things i didnae know 2 Flashcards

(91 cards)

1
Q

who shouldn’t get dexamethasone in treatment of meningitis

A
  • septic shock
  • meningococcal septicaemia
  • immunocompromised
  • meningitis following surgery
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2
Q

keratitis Mx

A

contact wearers
- same day referral to opthalmology

topical antibiotics
don’t wear contacts until symptoms resolve

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3
Q

type of vision loss in ARMD

A

central vision loss

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4
Q

what needs tested before TB management

A
  • U+Es
  • LFTs
  • vision testing
  • FBC
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5
Q

presentation of giardiasis

A

ongoing diarrhoea
lethargy
bloating
flatulence
steathorrhoea
weight loss
recent travel

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6
Q

severe hepatitis in pregnant woman

A

hep E

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7
Q

first line management for ocular trauma

A

urgent lateral canthotomy to decompress the orbit
- before CT head

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8
Q

most common infection of CNS in HIV

A

cryptococcus
- diagnose by india ink stain

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9
Q

weber fracture

A

ankle fracture

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10
Q

when should you take bisphosphonates in the day, and with food or no?

A

take in morning 30 mins before eating and sit up right

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11
Q

what nerve is compressed in meralgia paraesthetica

A

lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

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12
Q

nerve conduction studies for carpal tunnel

A

action potential prolongation in both sensory and motor axons

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13
Q

who gets 5mg folic acid

A

Obese
Coeliac
Diabetes
Thalassaemia
Anti-epileptics
NTD - previous

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14
Q

when is cervical excitation found

A

in pelvic inflammatory disease and ectopic pregnancy

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15
Q

psoriatic arthritis on X-ray

A

combination of erosions and new bone formation

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16
Q

what usually causes cord prolapse

A

artificial rupture of membranes

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17
Q

COCP post partum

A

< 6 weeks post partum + breastfeeding = NO

6 weeks - 6 months postpartum + breastfeeding = okay (UKMEC 2)

> 6 months post partum + breastfeeding = okay (UKMEC 1)

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18
Q

cervical os in a threatened miscarriage

A

closed

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19
Q

after 28 weeks, no fetal movements and no heart rate detected with doppler… what next

A

ultrasound
- CTG measures heartbeat and contractions so not sueful if no heartbeat

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20
Q

first line if fetal movements not felt

A

handheld doppler
heartbeat deteced - CTG
no heartbeat - USS

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21
Q

no movements have been felt by 24 weeks?

A

referral to maternal fetal medicine unit

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22
Q

management of scaphoid fracture

A

waist = cast for 6-8 weeks
displaced waist = surgery
scaphoid pole = surgery

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23
Q

how much weight loss in new born baby measn they should go to a breastfeeding clinic

A

10%

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24
Q

most common place for ectopic

A

ampulla

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25
most dangerous place for ectopic
isthmus
26
which bacteria contributes to the development of acne
propionibacterium acnes
27
sensitising events in pregnancy for rhesus neg women, amy require anti-D
- Ectopic pregnancy - Evacuation of retained products of conception and molar pregnancy - Vaginal bleeding < 12 weeks, only if painful, heavy or persistent - Vaginal bleeding > 12 weeks - Chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis - Antepartum haemorrhage - Abdominal trauma - External cephalic version - Intra-uterine death - Post-delivery (if baby is RhD-positive)
28
hepatic adhesions
fitz-hugh-curtis
29
what makes a diagnosis of atypical anorexia
normal BMI
30
septic shock and in labour
immediate c-section
31
how do you calculate incremental cost effectiveness ratio (ICER)
the cost divided by QALY - cost per qaly
32
what is the PEP for the flu
oseltamivir - give to anyone who shares household with someone who has flu
33
gold standard investigation for malaria
thick and thin blood films
34
what is precocious puberty
the development of secondary sexual characteristics before 8 years of age in girls and 9 years in boys.
35
fever, productive cough, headache, neck stiffness and confusion
strep pneumoniae - combination of meningitis and pneumonia
36
most common type of breast cancer
ductal
37
management of hepatic encephalopathy
lactulose first line, with addition of rifaximin
38
what is addenbrooks cognitive assessment for
dementia screening
39
what is montreal cognitive assessment for
mild cognitive impairment
40
what is the barthel index
functional assessment for the ability of individuals to undertake activities of daily living.
41
most common complication of systemic sclerosis
pulmonary hypertension
42
management of oral thrush
nystatin
43
which psych drug causes hypothyroidism
LITHIUM
44
painless haematuria in a 74 year old man, what next
CYTOSCOPY
45
what is allodynia
when light touch causes pain - neuropathic pain - seen in shingles for example
46
onset of TB meningitis that makes it unique
slow onset - also signs of cough and weight loss
47
treatment order for hyperkalaemia
1. 30ml 10% calcium gluconate 2. Simultaneous 10 units insulin and 50ml 50% dextrose 3. Sodium bicarbonate +/- Salbutamol nebulised calsium resonium later to prevent reabsorption from the GI tract but not in acute setting
48
MoA of a loop diuretic
Blocks the Na+K +Cl-co-transporter
49
MoA of thiazide diuretic
block the Na+Cl- symporter at the distal convoluted tubule
50
first line treatment delirium
FIND OUT UNDERLYING CAUSE treatment of delirium to understand that nonpharmacological treatments are best if the patient is not distressed before thinking about sedatives and also looking to the casuation of the delerium
51
which cancer is AFP raised in
hepatocellular
52
which cancer is CEA raised in
colorectal
53
hallmark of refeeding syndrome in terms of electrolyte abnormalities
hypophosphataemia
54
Weakness, respiratory muscle involvement and confusion - electrolyte imbalance
hypophosphataemia
55
tram track appearance on basement membrane
membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
56
who gets biological valve
older patients
57
anticoag after biological valve
may give wafarin for three months - low dose aspirin long term
58
who gets mechanical valves
younger patients
59
target INR for aortic and mitral mechanical valves
aortic - 3 mitral - 3.5
60
threadworms proper name
enterobius vermicularis
61
what valve disease is assoc with ADPKD
mitral valve prolapse
62
whooping cough treatment
azithromycin or clarithromycin
63
lacunar stroke presentation
- unilateral motor disturbance - complete one sided sensory loss - ataxia hemiparesis
64
what can rapid rewarming cause in hypothermia
peripheral vasodilation and shock
65
what can acute withdrawal of levodopa cause
neuroleptic malignant syndrome
66
when do breech babies get screened for DDH
USS at 6 weeks
67
when is an essential temor worst
on use of hands - improved by rest
68
what is ebstein's anomaly caused by
the use of lithium in pregnancy
69
cause of endocarditis in prosthetic valve (<2 months post surgery)
staph epidermis
70
long term treatment of mobitz 2
pacemaker
71
ceftriaxone in under 3 months?
no! contraindicated
72
how long do patients with c. diff need to isolate for
until there has been no diarrhoea for at least 48 hours
73
what is osgood schlatter disease
pain tenderness and swelling over the tibial tubercle - seen in sporty teens - gradual onset - unilateral - releived by rest, worse by kneeling and activity
74
baby arching back when crying - worse in the evening
infantile colic
75
who gets a chest tube in pleural effusion
if the pleural fluid is: - purulent or turbid/cloudy - if the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected infection (i.e. pneumonia) - the presence of organisms in the pleural fluid
76
calcium in sarcoidosis
HIGH
77
Mx aortic stenosis in high operative risk patients
transcatheter AVR
78
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing Visual agnosia
posterior cerebral artery stroke
79
when is carotid endarterectomy considered in TIA patients
stenosis > 50% on the side contralateral to the symptoms
80
thiazide diuretic electrolyte abnormalities
HYPERcalcaemia HYPOnatraemia HYPOkalaemia
81
rhythm control for AF < 48hrs with HF
AMIODARONE | absolutely not flecanide
82
how many shocks given for VF/pulseless VT
ONE followed by two mins of CPR | only give three shcoks if in a coronary care unit
83
which hypertension drug is less effective in black african or african-caribbean origin
ACEi
84
third heart sound in < 30 years
normal
85
damage to hypoglossal nerve
tongue deviates towards the AFFECTED side
86
first line treatment for hyperthyroid
propanolol - carbimazole only if grave's and symptoms not controlled with propanolol
87
how do you calculate serum osmolality
2 x(Na) + Urea + glucose
88
what is gliclazide
sulfonylurea
89
whats a good marker for liver restoration back to normal function
PT!! - alt is released when liver cells damaged do back to normal doesn't necessarily mean normal functioning liver
90
GPA on CXR
bilateral pulmonary nodules
91
AAA 3-4.4
screen annually