Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

4th Year Exam > Infectious Diseases ILOs > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases ILOs Flashcards

(86 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Define sepsis

A

Life-threatening organ dysfunction as a result of dysregulated host response to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Outline SIRs criteria in which 2 or more are needed to diagnose sepsis

A
  • HR >90 BPM
  • Temp. >38 or <36
  • RR > 20 per minute
  • WCC >12 or <4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Outline sepsis 6

A

Take: blood culture, urine output, serum lactate

Give: IV AVX, IV Fluid, O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Outline the Q-SOFA scoring system for sepsis in which a score of 2 or more indicates poorer outcomes

A
  • Systolic BP<100
  • Altered mental status
  • RR >22
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give 2 common causes of viral gastroenteritis

A

Rotavirus

Norovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is norovirus transmitted and treated?

A

Person to person, water and food-borne

Tx: fluid, antispasmodic, analgesia, antipyretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What population does rotavirus mainly affect and how is it transmitted?

A

Under 2s

Faeco-oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does salmonella come from and what is it’s incubation period?

A

Pork, poultry and dairy

12-72hr incubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give 2 symptoms of campylobacter and what ABX can be used in persistent disease

A

Diarrhoea
Blood in stool

Macrolides/Quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of E coli infection is associated with infants and returning travellers?

A

Enterotoxigenic E coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the incubation time of Staph Aureus in terms of food poisoning and give 1 symptoms

A

30 mins-6 hours

Profuse D&V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give 2 common causative agents in the common cold

A

Rhinovirus and Coronavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give 2 viruses which cause pharyngitis

A

Adenovirus and Rhinovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is croup and what virus commonly causes it?

A

Inspiratory stridor leading to increased RR in 6 month-3 y/o mainly

Parainfluenza virus 1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is bronchiolitis and who is mainly affected?

A

Caused by paramyxovirus, most infected by 2 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which type of influenza virus is mainly in humans with 2 circulating types?

A

Influenza B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give 2 treatments for influenza

A

Ribiviren

Neuraminidase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Give 3 common causative bacteria in CAP

A
  • Strep. Pneumoniae (most common cause)
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Moraxella catharralis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give 4 signs and symptoms of pneumonia

A
  • Productive cough
  • Pleuritic chest pain
  • Bibasilar crepitations
  • Dull to percussion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What antibiotics are used to treat non-severe and severe CAP?

A

NS: oral amoxicillin, doxycycline or clarithromycin

S: IV Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Outline the CURB65 severity score for CAP

A 
Confusion
Urea>7
RR>/=30
SBP<90 or DPB<60
Age>65

(3 or more is severe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When does HAP occur and give 2 causative bacteria

A

Acquired after at least 48 hours of admission to hospital

Strep. pneumoniae
Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Give 1 ABX for non-severe and severe HAP

A

NS: oral co-amoxiclav
S: IV Levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give 3 features of MRSA infection

A

Erythematous skin lesions or pustules

Infection unresponsive to penicillins

Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the difference between community associated and healthcare associated MRSA in terms of treatment?
Community: Oral ABX Healthcare: IV ABX
26
Give 3 investigations for MRSA
- FBC - Cultures (urine, tissue, sputum) - CXR
27
Give 2 antibiotics which are effective against MRSA
Vancomycin | Clindamycin
28
Give 3 risks for MRSA
Age >50 Native American IVDU
29
Define Clostridium Difficile and give the 4C ABX which cause it
``` Infection of colon characterised by formation of pseudomembranes o Clindamycin o Cephalosporins o Co-amoxiclav o Ciprofloxacin ```
30
Outline the pathophysiology of C diff
Disruption of bowel flora by ingestion of heat-resistant spores occurring on days 4-9 of ABX therapy
31
Give 3 symptoms of C diff infection
- Diarrhoea - Abdominal pain - Fever
32
Give 2 investigations and 2 ABX used in C diff
- Faecal occult blood + - Stool immunoassay for toxins A and B + Vancomycin + Metranidazole
33
Define meningitis and give two bacteria which commonly cause it
Inflammation of meninges +/- cerebrum caused by bacteria or virus. All pt. treated empirically for bacterial - Pneumococcal (common in alcohol users) - Listeria (pregnancy)
34
Give 5 symptoms of meningitis
- Headache - Neck stiffness - Fever - Confusion - Rash (purpuric+/-petechiae)
35
What should be done for patients with suspected meningitis before CT and why?
Antibiotics pre-CT to cover bacteria as bacterial meningitis is so deadly
36
As well as antibiotics, what should be given to patients with pneumococcal meningitis?
Corticosteriods
37
What additional measure must be considered when a pt. is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis
Chemoprophylaxis for close contacts
38
Give 3 features seen on LP in bacterial meningitis
- Neutrophils - Raised protein - Reduced glucose
39
What is the tx for viral meningitis?
Aciclovir in immunocompromsied Otherwise no Tx
40
What is cryptococcal meningitis and how is it treated?
Occurs in immunodeficiency usually HIV Tx: ABX, anti fungal, shunt in raised ICP
41
Define tuberculosis and give 4 symptoms
Infectious disease caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis - Cough - Haemoptysis - Fever - Night sweats
42
Give 2 pathological features of TB which may be seen on CXR
Granuloma | Ghon complexes
43
Give 3 investigations for TB
- Positive AFB smear - Solid or liquid culture - CXR
44
What is the treatment for active TB?
- 6 month rifampicin - 6 month Isoniazid - 2 month Ethambutol - 2 month pyrazinamide
45
Define HIV and which type is the most common worldwide
A retrovirus that destroys CD4 T cells and is the aetiological agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) HIV 1
46
Give 3 routes of transmission of HIV
- Anal or vaginal sex - IV drug use - Mother to child transmission e.g. birth and breastmilk
47
Outline the pathology of HIV
- HIV infects helper T cells, CD4+ cells depleted - Abnormal B cell activation = inappropriate immunoglobulins - CD4+ level <200 = OPPORTUNISTIC INFECTIONS
48
How is HIV diagnosed?
4th generation testing: p24 antigen and HIV antibody (4 weeks after exposure)
49
What is the current Tx of HIV?
HAART (triple therapy in one tablet)
50
What is seroconversion?
Primary HIV, an acute illness 1-2 months after contracting the virus. Fever, rash...
51
What does Herpes simplex 1 cause compared to HSV 2?
HSV1: herpies labiallis + genital herpes HSV2: genital herpes
52
Give 2 risks of herpes simplex virus
- HIV | - Immunosuppressive medications
53
Outline the pathophysiology of herpes simplex
Acquired at mucosal surfaces or broken skin and enters latent stage allowing immune system evasion and lifelong infection
54
Give 2 management options for herpes simplex
- Symptomatic relief | - Aciclovir to clear symptoms
55
Give 2 features of an immunocompromised host
Asplenic | Organ transplant
56
What level defines neutropenia?
<0.5 x 109/L or <1.0 x 109/L and falling
57
How does neutropenia occur in cancer patients?
Chemo/irradiation = less proliferation of haemopoietic progenitor cells and depleted marrow = neutropenia
58
What is chronic granulomatous disease?
Inherited disorder where gene coding NADPH oxidase is defective = intracellular killing of pathogens can’t happen = Recurrent infection
59
How does infection usually occur in pt. with neutropenia
If no site is located for infection probably due to translocation across a compromised mucous membrane
60
What are the components of a sexual health screen?
Chlamydia Gonorrhoea (NAAT test) HIV Syphilis
61
Give 2 symptoms and one Tx of gonorrhoea
Dysuria, urethral discharge Ceftriaxone
62
Give 2 symptoms and one Tx of chlamydia
Asymptomatic + intermenstrual bleeding Doxycycline
63
What type of bacteria is syphilis and how many phases of disease exist?
Gram positive spirochete 3 stages
64
Give one Tx for syphilis
Benzathine penicillin
65
What causes trichomonas vaginalis and what population is mainly affected?
Protozoon Black females
66
Give 3 causes of staph aureus bacteraemia
Catheter Line Prosthetic
67
How is staph aureus bacteraemia treated?
Uncomplicated: 2 weeks IV ABX Complicated: 4-6 weeks IV ABX
68
Define malaria and how it occurs
Parasitic infection caused by protozoa of genus Plasmodium Bite from female Anopheles mosquito
69
Give 4 symptoms of malaria
- Myalgia - Diarrhoea - Jaundice - Renal impairment
70
Give 3 ways to investigate malaria
- Antigen testing - Blood film (parasite in erythrocytes) - PCR
71
Give 2 Tx for malaria
Quinine and doxycycline
72
Give 3 possible disease causes of fever in returned traveller
Typhoid fever Dengue fever Viral haemorrhagic fever
73
Define infectious mononucleosis
aka glandular fever, clinical syndrome caused by EBV in most cases
74
Give 4 symptoms of infectious mononucleosis
- Fever - Pharyngitis - Lymphadenopathy - Splenomegaly
75
Give 2 tests and 2 management options for infectious mononucleosis
FBC (lymphocytosis) EBV specific antibodies Supportive Corticosteroids
76
Define fever of unknown origin and give 3 possible causes
Temp >38.3 on several separate occasions - TB - Intra-abdominal/pelvic abscesses - Malaria
77
Give 3 tests in the investigation of fever on unknown origin
Blood culture Urine culture Skin test and CXR for TB
78
Define Tetanus
Life threatening neurological syndrome characterised by tonic muscle spasms and hyperreflexia, caused by exotoxic Clostridium tetani
79
Define dysentery
Infection of intestine causing bloody/mucus diarrhoea
80
Define cholera
Secretory diarrhoeal illness caused by Vibrio Cholerae causing watery diarrhoea and dehydraton
81
Define Leprosy
Chronic infectious disease caused by acid-fast bacteria, characterised by skin lesions and peripheral nerve involvement
82
Define Rabies
Acute viral encephalomyelitis caused by rabies virus transmitted by animal bites causing hydrophobia and aerophobia
83
Define toxoplasmosis
Caused by a protozoan parasite with cats being the definitive host, usually asymptomatic but can cause encephalopathy
84
Define Lyme disease
Caused by a spirochete transmitted by ticks, characterised by erythema migrans rash, facial palsy + encephalopathy
85
Define measles
Highly infectious measles virus, characterised by maculopapular rash, cough, conjunctivitis, fever…
86
Define mumps
Acute systemic infection caused by RNA paramyxovirus causing parotid swelling, orchitis + aseptic meningitis

4th Year Exam (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions