Intro Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

After exiting the x-ray tube the x-photons undergo 3-main events within the patient
tissues, also known as what?

A

differential absorption

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2
Q

x-rays can pass through and expose the film turning it___

A

black

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3
Q

the x-rays can interact and be completely absorbed by

A

patient’s tissue

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4
Q

X-rays can interact, deflect and produce _______ that can contribute to
radiation dose to the patient and the medical personnel

A

Compton scatter

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5
Q

What are the 4-known radiographic densities potentially representing normal or
pathological densities of the human body?

A

Air
Fat
Water
Bone/metal/calcium

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6
Q

What appears as black?

A

Air-

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7
Q

What appears as slightly less black than air?

A

Fat- subcutaneous fat and fat pads of the joints

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8
Q

What appears as grey?

A

Water soft tissues and abnormal fluid

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9
Q

What appears as white?

A

Bone/Metal/Calcium-mineralised bone or metallic objects

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10
Q

What does APLC stand for?

A

AP lower cervical

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11
Q

What does APOM stand for?

A

AP open mouth

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12
Q

The views of the cervical spine considered to be diagnostic if they include:

A

Cranio-cervical region superiorly

Cervico-throacic region inferiorly

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13
Q

General rule states that t is required to perform at least _________
orthogonal to each other.

A

2-radiographic views

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14
Q

What does A.B.C.S stand for in radiographic evaluation?

A

Alignment
Bone
Cartilage
Soft Tissues

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15
Q

normal anatomic relations of joints and osseous structures concerns what part of ABCS?

A

Alignment

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16
Q

bone mineral density, abnormal destructive/lytic or abnormal

sclerotic processes of the bone concerns what part of ABCS?

A

Bone

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17
Q

joint spaces and disc spaces concerns what part of ABCS?

A

Cartilage

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18
Q

evaluates surrounding soft tissues for abnormal fluid,

calcifications or any other pathology concerns what part of ABCS?

A

Soft Tissues

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19
Q

In lateral cervical view when evaluating alignment, what 4 things should you look at?

A

Anterior vertebral line
• Posterior or George’s line
• Spinal laminar line
• SP posterior line

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20
Q

retrophareyngeal space should be ____ at C2

21
Q

retrotracheal space should be ____ at C6-C7

22
Q

Flexed and extended lateral cervical views (stress views)- help to evaluate what?

A

Ligamentous stability

23
Q

R+L posterior oblique cervical views demonstrates what?

A

Inter vertebral formania

24
Q

What is normal in children and especially prominent at C3?

A

Anterior body wedging

25
Abnormally widened pituitary | fossa or “ballooning of sella” sign indicates what?
Space occupying lesion such as a pituitary gland adenoma or other neoplasms may cause erosion of the osseous margins
26
Radiographic measurement of Basilar skull angle should be what?
(125-143 degrees | standard reference)
27
What makes up the lines for the basilar skull angle?
-nasion to middle of pituitary fossa - anterior border of magnum along the clivus
28
What is diagnosed it the basilar angle is >152 degrees?
Platybasia
29
What is a direct line from posterior tip of hard palate to the lowest point of the occipital bone
McGegegor line
30
What is the signifcance of the McGegor line?
odontoid process should not pass this line more than 8-mm
31
What line goes from the hard palate to posterior margin of | magnum foramina?
Chamberlain line
32
What is the significance of the chamberlain line?
Odontoid should not pass this line (<4-mm can be normal)
33
Atlantodental interspace (ADI) should be ____ in children
<5mm
34
Atlantodental interspace (ADI) should be ____ in adults
<3mm
35
Normally the articular mass of C1 should be aligned with corresponding mass of C2. In children, C1 mass may appear ______ C2
overhanging
36
what are congenital abnormalities resulting in caudal displacement of the cerebellum and the brainstem due to small volume or hypoplasia of posterior cranial fossa.
Arnold-Chiari malformations
37
What is (partial or complete, uni or bilateral ossification of posterior atlanto-occipital membrane)- asymptomatic and detected incidentally on radiographs
Posterior ponticle
38
What is a failed segmentation of vertebra | Single level-blocked vertebra
Congenital blocked vertebra
39
Two or more blocked vertebra
Klippel-Feil syndrome
40
Ossification of the stylohyoid ligament
eagle syndrome
41
Interruption in smooth contour may indicate facet | imbrication (subluxation) or DJD
Hadley's S-curve
42
Eisenstein Method, normal sagittal Lumbar canal should remain no less than _____
14mm
43
failed union of both lateral centers of vertebral body due to persistent notochord between them
Buttefly vertebra
44
failed formation of vertebral half, can be major source of | congenital scoliosis
Hemivertebra
45
closely related condition when nucleus pulposus can herniate | anterior through ring apophysis
Limbus Bone
46
Central herniation of the nucleus pulposus through vertebral end-palate
Schmorl's nodes
47
Central herniation of the nucleus pulposus through vertebral end-palate
Nuclear impressions/ cupid bow
48
failure of closure of the neural tube
Spina bifida manifesta
49
Midline cleft at S1-S2 with | elongated SP of L5
Knife Clasp Syndrome