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Introduction Flashcards

1
Q

golden period for giving pralidoxime

A

6-8 hours

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2
Q

smallest drug by MW

A

lithium

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3
Q

largest drug by MW

A

alteplase

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4
Q

excretion of a weak base may be accelerated by acidifying urine with

A

ammonium chloride

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5
Q

drug w/ no oral form, undergoes 100% 1st pass effect

A

nitroglycerin

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6
Q

drugs with IM=oral bioavailability

A

Metronidazole, Clindamycin

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7
Q

vessel in superomedial aspect of buttocks

A

sup.gluteal n.

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8
Q

vessel in inferomedial aspect of buttocks

A

sciatic nerve

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9
Q

blood vessels passed by SL drugs

A

lingual vein-internal jugular v-brachiocephalic/innominate v-SVC-RA

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10
Q

rectal vein responsible for partial first-pass effect on rectal (suppository) route

A

superior rectal vein-> inferior mesenteric vein–> portal vein

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11
Q

topical route, poorest ability to evaporate, better for chronic inflammation

A

ointment

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12
Q

topical route, greatest ability to evaporate, better for acute inflammation

A

tinctures

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13
Q

binding of acidic drugs

A

albumin

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14
Q

binding of basic drugs

A

orosomucoid

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15
Q

known teratogenic effect of methimazole

A

cutis aplasia

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16
Q

DOC for hyperthyroid pregnant

A

PTU

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17
Q

this drug undergoes elimination without metabolism

A

lithium

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18
Q

rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration

A

first-order elimination

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19
Q

rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration

A

zero-order elimination

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20
Q

concentration decreases linearly

A

zero-order

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21
Q

concentration decreases exponentially

A

first-order

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22
Q

occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms

A

zero-order elimination

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23
Q

drugs with zero-order elimination

A

warfarin, heparin, aspirin, tolbutamide, phenytoin, ethanol, theophylline (WHATPET)

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24
Q

dose at which 50% of maximal effect is reached

A

potency (EC50)

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25
concentration required to bind 50% of the receptors
Kd
26
minimum dose required to produce a specified response is determined in each member of a population
quantal dose-response curve
27
determines median effective (ED50), median toxic (TD50) and median lethal dose (LD50)--> three potency variables
quantal dose-response curve
28
formula for therapeutic index
median toxic dose/median effective dose
29
measures drug efficacy
graded dose-response curve
30
nonselective alpha antagonist, serves as a noncompetetive/irreversible antagonist which is the DOC for pheochromocytoma
phenoxybenzamine
31
binding to a different receptor, producing an effect opposite to the drug it is antagonizing
physiologic antagonists
32
physiologic antagonist of histamine
epinephrine
33
physiologic antagonist of thyroid hormone
propranolol
34
chemical antagonist for lead poisoning
dimercaprol
35
reduces constitutive activity
inverse agonist
36
drugs displaying tachyphylaxis
metoclopromide, ephedrine, dobutamine, LSD, calcitonin, nitroglycerin, nicotine, hydralazine, desmopressin
37
continuous activation may lead to depletion of essential substrates
tolerance
38
nitroglycerin tolerance can be reversible by administration of
glutathione
39
infrequently observed response
idiosyncratic drug response
40
example of idiosyncratic drug response- aplastic anemia
chloramphenicol
41
example of idiosyncratic drug response- cataracts
allopurinol
42
formula for apparent volume of distribution
amount of drug in tissue/ plasma drug concentration
43
formula for clearance
rate of elimination/plasma concentration
44
formula for half-life
0.693x Vd/CL
45
bioavailability is determined by computing
AUC
46
maintenance dose computation
clearance x desired plasma concentration / bioavailability
47
loading dose computation
Vd x desired plasma concentration / bioavailability
48
phase 1/phase 2 reaction? hydrolysis
phase 1
49
phase 1/phase 2 reaction? oxidation
phase 1
50
phase 1/phase 2 reaction? reduction
phase 1
51
phase 1/phase 2 reaction? deamination
phase 1
52
phase 1/phase 2 reaction? dealkylation
phase 1
53
phase 1/phase 2 reaction? dehydrogenation
phase 1
54
phase 1/phase 2 reaction? gluocoronidation
phase 2
55
phase 1/phase 2 reaction? acetylation
phase 2
56
phase 1/phase 2 reaction? glutathione conjugation
phase 2
57
phase 1/phase 2 reaction? glycine conjugation
phase 2
58
phase 1/phase 2 reaction? sulfation
phase 2
59
phase 1/phase 2 reaction? methylation
phase 2
60
teratogenic effect: ACEI
fetal renal damage
61
teratogenic effect: antiepileptic drugs
NTDs
62
teratogenic effect: phenytoin
fetal hydantoin syndrome
63
teratogenic effect: oral hypoglycemic agents
neonatal hypoglycemia
64
teratogenic effect: barbiturates
neonatal dependence
65
teratogenic effect: DES
vaginal clear cell adenoCA
66
teratogenic effect: ethanol
fetal alcohol syndrome
67
teratogenic effect: Lithium
Ebstein's anomaly
68
teratogenic effect: isotretinoin
craniofacial malformations
69
teratogenic effect: iodide
congenital hypothyroidism
70
teratogenic effect: misoprostol
Mobius sequence
71
teratogenic effect: penicillamine
cutis laxa
72
teratogenic effect: thalidomide
phocomelia
73
teratogenic effect: smoking
IUGR
74
teratogenic effect: tetracycline
tooth discoloration
75
teratogenic effect: streptomycin
ototoxicity
76
teratogenic effect: sulfonamides
kernicterus
77
teratogenic effect: fluoroquinolones
cartilage damage
78
teratogenic effect: warfarin
1st tri: chondrodysplasia, 2nd: CNS malformations, 3rd: bleeding diatheses
79
standard in vitro test for mutagenicity
Ames test
80
in vivo mutagenicity test in mice
Dominant lethal test
81
trial among normal human volunteers
phase 1 trial
82
evaluation of a drug in a moderate number of patients
phase 2 trial
83
large design involving many patients
phase 3 trial
84
compares therapy with the gold standard
phase 3 trial
85
postmarketing surveillance phase
phase 4 trial
86
detects toxicities that occur infrequently
phase 4 trial
87
comparable bioavailability and similar times to achieve peak blood concentrations
bioequivalence
88
drug for a rare disease (affecting <200,000)
orphan drug

Pharmacology (7 decks)

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