Introduction and Bone Tissue Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of Anatomy?

A

The study of the structures of the body and their relationships to each other

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2
Q

What is the definition of Physiology

A

The study of the functions of the living organism

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3
Q

What is gross anatomy?

A

Anatomy that is visible to the naked eye

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4
Q

What is surface anatomy?

A

Anatomical landmarks on the body surface

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5
Q

What is systemic anatomy?

A

Approach to the study of anatomy by organ system

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6
Q

What is regional anatomy?

A

Approach to the study of anatomy by body region

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7
Q

What are the 8 levels of organization?

A

Atoms -> Molecules-> organelles-> cells -> tissues ->organ -> organ system -> organism

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8
Q

What is anatomical position defined?

A

Standing with arms at the sides and palms and head facing forward

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9
Q

Describe the sagittal plane

A

Any vertical plane that passes through the body to divide it into right and left

Midsagittal divides the body into right and left equally

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10
Q

Describe the horizontal (crossectional plane)

A

Divides the body or organ into upper and lower portions

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11
Q

Describe the frontal or coronal plane

A

Divides the body or organ into front and back portions (dorsal and ventral portions)

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12
Q

Describe the directional terms superior and inferior

A

Superior: means above, towards the head (AKA cranial)

Inferior: means below, towards the feet (AKA caudal- towards the tail end)

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13
Q

Describe the directional terms anterior and posterior

A

Anterior or ventral refers to the front of the body

Posterior or dorsal refers to the back of the body

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14
Q

Describe the directional terms medial and lateral

A

Medial: means toward or near the midline of the body

Lateral means away from the midline or toward the side of the body

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15
Q

Describe the anatomical term intermediate

A

Between two structures

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16
Q

Describe the anatomical terms superficial and deep

A

Superficial: means closer to the surface of the body

Deep: means ways from the surface of the body

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17
Q

Describe the anatomical terms proximal and distal

A

Proximal: means near the point of origin

Distal: means far from the point of origin

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18
Q

Describe the anatomical terms Ipsilateral and contralateral

A

Ipsilateral: means on the same side

Contralateral: means on the opposite side

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19
Q

What are the two major body cavities

A

Dorsal and ventral body cavities

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20
Q

What cavities are a part of the dorsal body cavity?

A

Cranial cavity and spinal cavity

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21
Q

What are the divisions of the ventral body cavity?

A

Thoracic and abdominopelvic cavity

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22
Q

One of the cavities in the ventral body cavity is the thoracic cavity. It is further divided into what two cavities?

A

Pleural cavity and the mediastinum ( pericardial/middle, superior, anterior)

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23
Q

Serous membranes line the organs and provide cushion and allows movement of the organs. Each membrane has two layers. what a re these layers?

A

Parietal: lines the cavity walls

Visceral layer covers the surface of organs within the cavity

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24
Q

What are the names of the thoracic cavity membranes?

A

Pleural membranes are in the pleural cavity

Pericardial membranes in the pericardial cavity

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25
What is the cavity called in the abdominopelvic cavity?
Peritoneal cavity contains peritoneal membranes
26
What do the serous membranes secrete into cavities which functions as a lubricant?
Serous fluid
27
What is int he peritoneal cavity that suspends abdominal organs via a double layer serous membrane called _____
Mesentery
28
The _______ is continuous with the parietal and visceral serous membranes
Mesentery
29
The greater and lesser omentum are other derivatives of _________ ____________
The serous membranes
30
What are the 4 types of tissue?
Epithelial tissue Connective tissue Muscular tissue Nervous tissue
31
The femur is an ______ Compact and spongy bone are ______
Organ Tissues
32
What is a complex and dynamic living tissue that continuously engages in a process called remodeling?
Bone tissue
33
Building new bone tissue and breaking down old bone tissue is called what?
Remodeling
34
What are the 6 funcitons of the skeletal system?
Support Protection Assistance in movements Mineral homeostasis (storage and release) Blood cell production Triglyceride storage in yellow bone marrow
35
What is stored in the yellow bone marrow and are part of the potential chemical energy reserve?
Triglycerides
36
What connective tissue produces red blood cells, WBC and platelets?
Red bone marrow
37
What are the 8 parts of a long bone?
``` Diaphysis Epiphyses Metaphyses Epiphyseal line Articular cartilage Periosteum Medullary cavity The endosteum ```
38
The bones shaft that is the main portion of the bone is known as the ______
Diaphysis
39
The proximal and distal ends of long bones are called _______
Epiphyses
40
The tapered area wher ethe diaphysis joins the epiphysis is known as the ________
Metaphyses
41
What is the resulting bony structure when the cartilage in the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone?
Epiphyseal line
42
A thin layer of hyaline cartilage covering the articular surface of the bone is known as the ___________ ________. It’s function is to absorb shock and friction
Hyaline cartilage
43
The connective tissue sheath that surrounds the bone surface wherever it is not covered by articular cartilage is known as the _________
Periosteum
44
What are the 4 functions of the periosteum?
Protects the bone assists in fracture repair helps nourish bone tissue serves as an attachment point for ligament and tendons
45
How is the periosteum attached to the underlying bone?
Perforating fibers or Sharpey’s fibers
46
A hollow cylindrical space within the diaphysis that contains fatty yellow bone marrow is known as the ________
Medullary cavity
47
What is the purpose of the medullary cavity?
Minimizes the weight of the bone
48
A thin membrane that lines the medullary cavity is known as the ___________
The endosteum
49
There are two types of bone tissue. Which of the bone tissue provides protection and support and resists the stresses produces by weight and movement?
Compact bone tissue
50
Osteons are repeating structural units of compact bone tissue. What are other parts fo the osteons?
``` Central canal (Haversian canal) Concentric lamellae Lacunae Canaliculi Osteocytes located in the canaliculi Interstitial lamellae Perforating canals (volkmann’s canal) Circumferential lamellae ```
51
What are concentric lamellae? And how are they arranged?
Circular plates of mineralized extracellular matrix Arranged around a central canal or Haversian canal
52
What are between the concentric lamellae that are small spaces that contain osteocytes?
Lacunae
53
What are the small channels radiating in alll directions from the lacunae?
Canaliculi
54
What is the funciton of canaliculi?
Connect lacunae with one another and with central canals
55
What are fragments of older osteons located between neighboring new osteons which also have lacunae with osteocytes and canaliculi?
Interstitial lamellae
56
What canals are which the blood vessel and nerves pass from the periosteum to the compact bone?
Perforating Canals (volkmann’s canals)
57
What is arranged around the entire outer and innner circumference of the shaft of a long bone?
Circumferential lamellae
58
Trabecular or cancellous bone tissue is also known as ________
Spongy bone tissue
59
Which of the two bone tissues does NOT contain osteons?
Spongy bone tissue
60
Spongy bone consists of lamellae that are arranged in an irregular pattern of thin columns called ________
Trabeculae
61
What a re the macroscopic between the trabeculae filled with in spongy bone tissue?
Bone marrow
62
What does each trabecular consist of?
Concentric lamellae Osteocytes that lie in the lacunae Canaliculi that radiate outward from the lacunae
63
What are the 4 locations of spongy bone?
In short, flat, sesamoid irregularly shaped bones, and the epiphyses of the long bones.
64
Unspecialized bone stem cells derided from mesenchyme, the only bone cells to undergo division, and are located in the endosteum and in the canals within bone that contain blood vessels are known as ____________ ____
Osteoprogenitor cells
65
What are the bone building cells that synthesize and secrete collagen fibers and other organic components, do not undergo cell division and surround themselves with extracellular matrix.
Osteoblasts
66
What are the four types of cells are present in bone tissue?
Osteogenic cells Osteoblasts Osteoclasts Osteocytes
67
What are unspecialized bone stem cells derived from mesenchyme, are the ONLY bone cells to undergo cell division, and located in the endosteum and in the canals within the bone that contain blood vessels?
Osteoprogenitor cells
68
What are the bone building cells that synthesize and secrete collagen fibers and other organic components?
Osteoblasts
69
T or F: Osteocytes and Osteoblasts Undergo cell division.
False. They do not undergo cell division
70
As ___________ surround themselves with ECM they become trapped in their own secretions and become __________
Osteoblasts Osteocytes
71
What are mature bone cells, the main cells in bone tissue and function to maintain its daily metabolism, such as the exchange of nutrients and wastes in the blood?
Osteocytes
72
What bone cells ruffled borer faces the bone surface releases powerful lysosomal enzymes and acids that digest the protein and mineral components of the underlying ECM?
Osteoclasts
73
What bone cell focuses on the resorption or breakdown of bone?
Osteoclasts
74
What is a disease of children in which the growing bones become soft and are easily deformed which can lead to bowed legs and deformities of the skull, ribcage and pelvis?
Rickets
75
Describe Osteomalacia
New bone formed during remodeling fails to calcify Bone fracture result from mild trauma and tenderness occurs in hips and legs
76
What Artereies and veins supply bone tissue?
Periosteal arteries and veins Nutrient artery and vein Epiphyseal arteries and veins Metaphyseal arteries
77
What is the path and supply of the periosteal arteries and veins?
Enter the diaphysis through perforating (Volkmanns) canal supply the periosteum and outer compact bone
78
Near the center of the diaphysis, a large __________ ________ passes through a hole in the compact bone called the _________ ________
Nutrient artery Nutrient foramen
79
The ends fo long bones are supplied by _________ ________ which arise from arteries that supply the associated joint
Epiphyseal arteries
80
What arteries supply the red bone marrow and bone tissue of the metaphyses?
Metaphyseal arteries and nutrient artery
81
What are the 5 main types of bones based on shape?
Long bone Flat bone Short bone Irregular bones Sesamoid bones Sutural bones
82
What are the characteristics of long bones?
Have greater length than width, consist of a shaft and epiphyses (ends) Vary tremendously in size such as femurs, fibula, tibia, and phalanges
83
Describe characteristics of short bones
Cube shaped and are nearly equal in length and width Ex: carpal bones and tarsal bones
84
Describe flat bones
Generally thin and composed of nearly two parallel plates of compact one tissue enclosing a layer of spongy bone tissue Ex: cranial bones, sternum, ribs, scapulae
85
Describe irregular bones
Have complex shapes Ex: vertebrae, certain facial bones and calcaneus
86
Describe when sesamoid bones form.
Develop in certain tendons where there is considerable friction, tension and physical stress Ex: plasma and soles and the patella
87
Where do sutural bones occur?
Within sutures
88
What is the prominent ridge of elongated projection used for tendon/ligament attachment?
Crest Ex: Iliac crest of hip bone
89
What is a typically rough projection ABOVE condyle used for tendon ligament attachment?
Epicondyle
90
What is a long narrow ride or border (less prominent than crest)?
Line Ex: Linea aspera of femur
91
What is a sharp slender bony projection?
Spinous process
92
What is the term for a very large projection?
Trochanter
93
What term is used to describe variably sized rounded projection?
Tubercle
94
What term is used to describe variables sized projection that has rough bumpy surface?
Tuberosity
95
What are three processes that form joints?
Condyle Facet Head
96
What is a diagnostic procedure that takes advantage of the fact that bone is living tissue?
Bone scan
97
When a. Bone scan is used how is normal bone tissue identified? How are normalities noticed?
By a consistent gray color throughout because of its uniform uptake of the radioactive tracer. Darker or lighter areas may indicate bone abnormalities
98
In a bone scan what does the lighter and darker areas describe?
Darker areas are areas of increased metabolism, that absorb more of the radioactive tracer due to increased blood flow Lighter areas (cold spots) are areas of decreased metabolism that absorb less of the tracer due to decreased blood flow
99
The lattice work of spongy bone is related to te arrangement of:: Osteoblasts Lamellar Trabecular Canaliculi
Trabeculae
100
An osteoblasts is made up of concentric lamellar surrounding Volkmanns canal Have risen cnanal Ostoid nerve
Haversian canal
101
Name the primitive type of tissue from which the osseus tissue ``` Cartilage Ectoderm Mesoderm Endoderm Connective tissue ```
Cartilage
102
When the fracture line is perpendicular to the axis of a long bone what type of fracture is it?
Transverse
103
When the fracture is an angled line what type of fracture is it?
Oblique
104
A helical fracture line produced by a twisting force is what type of fracture?
Spiral
105
When the bone is broken into pieces at the site of impact, what fracture type is it?
Comminuted fracture
106
When a bone fragment tears off the main bone by excessive forces acting on attached tendon or ligament, what type of fracture is it?
Avulsion fracture
107
When one end of the fractured bone is forcefully driven into the interior of the other, what type of fracture is it?
Impacted fracture
108
A partial fracture, one side of the bone is broken and the other side bends which occurs mostly in children whose bones are not fully ossified is known as what type of fracture?
Green stick fracture
109
What are the phases of bone fracture repair?
Reactive phase Reparative phase (firbocartilagenous (soft) callus formation) Reparative phase (bony (hard) callus formation Bone remodeling phase
110
The first phase is the reactive phase, what are the major steps that occur in this phase?
An early inflammatory phase in which a mass of blood forms around the site of the fracture called a fracture hematoma. Dead bone cells produce additional cellular debris Phagocytes and osteoclasts begin to remove the dead or damaged tissue in and around the fracture hematoma.
111
What happens in the second step of bone fracture, the reparative phase: Fibrocartilaginaous (soft) callus formation?
Characterized by two events: The formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus and a bony callus to bridge the gap between the broken ends of bones Blood vessels grow into the fracture hematoma
112
Fibroblasts produce _______ Chrondroblasts produce _______
Collagen fibers Fibrocartilage
113
What are the parts of the reparative phase: Bony (hard) callus formation?
Soft callus ossifies Osteoprogentior cells develop into osteoblasts which begin to produce spongy bone trabeculae In time the fibrocartilage is converted to spongy bone and the callus is then referred to as bony (hard) callus
114
What are the major parts of the fourth bone fracture repair phase?
Replace and remodel hard callus Dead portions of the original fragments of broken bone are gradually resorted by osteoclasts, then compact bone replaces spongy bone around the periphery of the fracture
115
What is the process to untie the bones properly in where the fractured ends must be brought into alignment?
Reduction
116
In __________ ________, the fractured ends of a bone are brought into alignment by manual manipulation, and the skin remains intact
Closed reduction
117
In ________ __________ the fractured ends of a bone are brought into alignment by a surgical procedure using internal fixation devices such as screws, plates and pins
Open reduction
118
What are the 3 steps to treating a fracture?
Reduction (open or closed) Immobilization (cast, sling, splint) Rehabilitation (restoration of function)
119
What inhibits activity of osteoclasts, speeds blood Ca2+ uptake by bone and accelaerates Ca2+ deposition into bones?
Calcitonin
120
What are the two principal effects of aging?
Loss of bone mass Brittleness
121
Loss of bone mass results from __________
Demineralization (loss of Calcium)
122
What does brittleness result from?
Decrease rate of protein synthesis (loss of collagen)
123
What gives bone its tensile strength?
Collagen fibers
124
Explain osteoporosis
Bone resorption more than bone deposition Bones may become brittle Occurs when creation of newbone (remodeling) doesn’t keep up with the removal of old bone
125
Explain the axial skeleton
80 bones consisting of the bones that lie around the longitudinal acids of the human body Skull, auditory ossicles, hyoid bone, ribs, sternum and vertebral column
126
Explain the appendicular skeleton
Consists of the bones of the upper and lower limbs plus the bones forming girdles that connect the limbs to the axial skeleton