investigation Flashcards
When interpreting an arterial blood gas, a high serum anion gap is consistent with:
a) lithium toxicity
b) Salicylate toxiticy
c) Hypercholeraemia
d) Hypoalbuminaemia
e) Hypercalcaemia
b) Salicylate toxicity
Salicylate toxicity can cause an elevated serum anion gap due to the production of organic acids (salicylic acid and its metabolites) that are not measured by the standard anion gap calculation. This leads to an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis.
HAGMA results from accumulation of organic acids or impaired H+ excretion
Causes (LTKR)
Lactate
Toxins
Ketones
Renal
Causes (CATMUDPILES)
CO, CN
Alcoholic ketoacidosis and starvation ketoacidosis
Toluene
Metformin, Methanol
Uremia
DKA
Pyroglutamic acidosis, paracetamol, phenformin, propylene glycol, paraladehyde
Iron, Isoniazid
Lactic acidosis
Ethylene glycol
Salicylates
NAGMA results from loss of HCO3- from ECF
Causes (CAGE)
Chloride excess
Acetazolamide/Addisons
GI causes – diarrhea/vomiting, fistulae (pancreatic, ureters, billary, small bowel, ileostomy)
Extra – RTA
Causes (ABCD)
Addisons (adrenal insufficiency)
Bicarbonate loss (GI or Renal)
Chloride excess
Diuretics (Acetazolamide)
LITFL
A drug which is unlikely to interfere with skin testing is oral:
a) Diphenhydramine
b) Amitriptyline
c) Prednisolone
d) Risperidone
e) Ranitidine
MAYANK Risperidone
Avoid antihistamines and steroids
TCAs known to interfere
Mayo clinic website
See allergy.org.au - risp mentioned in appendix b as a med that may need held
A drug which is unlikely to interfere with skin testing is oral:
a) Diphenhydramine
b) Amitriptyline
c) Prednisolone
d) Risperidone
e) Ranitidine
MAYANK Risperidone
Avoid antihistamines and steroids
TCAs known to interfere
Mayo clinic website
See allergy.org.au - risp mentioned in appendix b as a med that may need held
Steph In a patient presenting with an Addisonian crisis, the electrolyte disturbances MOST LIKELY to be seen are:
a) Low BSL, hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia
b) High BSL, hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia
c) Hypocalcaemia, hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia
d) Hypercalcaemia, hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia
a) Low BSL, hyperkaelamia, hypernatraemia
Adrenal crisis is a medical emergency and should be considered in any patient presenting with one or more of the following symptoms:
* altered consciousness
* circulatory collapse
* hypoglycaemia
* hyponatraemia
* hyperkalaemia
* seizures
* history of steroid use/withdrawal
* any clinical features of Addison disease
Adrenal crisis may be precipitated by stress, sepsis, dehydration or trauma; clinical features may be modified accordingly. In patients with known adrenal insufficiency, nonadherence with therapy, inappropriate cortisol dose reduction or lack of stress related cortisol dose adjustment can cause adrenal crisis.
Aus Family Physician - RACGP
Re chat below - incorrect recall, have updated
A
Why A? All three should be seen - glucocorticoid deficiency causes low Na and glucose while simultaneous mineralocorticoid deficiency low K.
Crisis typically presents with hypotension abdo pain, nausea, vomiting and confusion. No one electrolyte/lab value can tie all those together.
In pulmonary function testing the presence of airflow limitation is defined by a post- bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio less than:
a) 0.5
b) 0.6
c) 0.7
d) 0.8
c) 0.7
A 70-year-old patient booked for a revision total hip replacement is reviewed in preadmission clinic ten days before surgery. The following blood test results are
noted:
haemoglobin 110 g/L
ferritin 51 mcg/L
CRP (c-reactive protein) 10 mg/L
The most appropriate management for this patient should be to:
a) Proceed
b) Give PO iron and delay 6 weeks
c) Give IV iron
d) Blood transfusion pre-op
Victoria
Screenshot sent to JJ
B
Kate A bleeding patient has ROTEM results including: [table attached]. The most
appropriate treatment is:
a) Fibrinolysis
LINDON
22.2 Regarding cardiopulmonary exercise testing before major surgery, oxygen pulse is the
a. Arterial oxygen content at peak HR
b. Arterial oxygen saturation at mean HR?
c. Arterial oxygen saturation at peak HR
d. PaO2 at peak HR
e. Oxygen consumption/min divided by HR
e. Oxygen consumption/min divided by HR
VO2/HR: oxygen consumption divided by HR, known as the ‘oxygen pulse’ (ml beat–1)
https://www.bjaed.org/article/S2058-5349(19)30021-6/fulltext
The objective of CPET is to determine functional capacity in an individual.
Deficiencies in CPET-derived variables—specifically:
1. ventilatory anaerobic threshold (AT)
2. peak O2 consumption (VO2peak)
3. ventilatory efficiency for carbon dioxide (VE/VCO2)
—are associated with poor postoperative outcomes (mortality, morbidity, admission to intensive care, and length of hospital stay) after intra-abdominal surgery.
- Does the oxygen pulse increase with exercise?
The oxygen pulse is the VO2 divided by HR, and represents the product of the stroke volume and the arterial-venous oxygen difference. It can be seen in panel 2 and can be viewed as a surrogate for stroke volume, and as such should increase at the start of exercise before slowly reaching a plateau at its highest predicted value.
An awake patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit complains of breathlessness. The FiO2 through the patient’s rebreather mask is 40%. An arterial blood gas taken at the time shows (ABG shown). The alveolar-arterial gradient (in mmHg) is approximately
Blood gas shows:
PaO2 135
PaCO2 48
SpO2 100%
The A-a gradient is:
A. 5
B. 30
C. 60
D. 90
E. 110
D 90
A-a = PAO2 - PaO2
Alveolar air equation gives PAO2
PAO2 = PiO2 - PaCO2 / R
PAO2 = 0.4 x (760 - 47) - 48 / 0.8
so, as PaO2 given as 135
A-a = 228 - 135 = 93
21.2 The image below on the left shows a normal central venous pressure (CVP) trace. The CVP
trace in the image below on the right is most consistent with
a) AF
b) MR
c) AR
d) TR
e) Pericardial constriction
TR
19.2 An 80-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with respiratory failure. Her arterial blood gas on oxygen 4 litres per minute via a Hudson mask is as follows: (ABG shown) Which of the following most accurately describes this blood gas result?
pH 7.2, pO2 91, pCO2 84, BE 16, HCO3- 43, Na 145
a) Metabolic alkalosis, acute resp acidosis + normal AG
b) Metabolic alkalosis resp acidaemia + abnormal AG
c) Mixed acidaemia
d) Respiratory Acidosis with incomplete compensation
e) Compensated Respiratory acidosis
d) Respiratory Acidosis with incomplete compensation
Uncertain of this answer, not enough info to calculate anion gap
pH 7.2 = acidaemia
pCO2 84 = respiratory acidosis
HCO3 43 = metabolic alkalosis as compensation
BE 16 = metabolic alkalosis
Boston rules:
Chronic fully compensated Respiratory acidosis
Expected compensation is 3-4 mmol/L rise for every 10mmHg rise in PCO2.
Expected metabolic compensation therefore is
HCO3 = 24 + 4 x ((84-40)/10)
= 24 + 4x (44/10)
= 24 + 4 x (4.4)
= 24 + 17.6
= 41.6
Metabolic acidosis
PaCO2 should be 1.5 x HCO3 + 8
= 72.5
Rules (from K.Brandis Acid-base rules anaesthesia mcq):
- 1 for 10 (acute resp acidosis), 4 for 10 (chronic resp acidosis)
- 2 for 10 (acute resp alkalosis), 5 for 10 (chronic resp alkalosis)
- 1.5xHCO + 8 = expected pCO2 in a metabolic acidosis
- 0.7xHCO3 + 22 = expected pCO2 in a metabolic alkalosis
https://www.anaesthesiamcq.com/AcidBaseBook/ab9_3.php
22.1 A 68-year-old woman presents with a loud systolic murmur in the anaesthesia room before total
hip joint arthroplasty. A transthoracic echocardiogram is performed (image provided) and shows
a. AS
b. LVOT
c. MR
MR
22.1 A 57-year-old female smoker presents for a laparotomy with the following pulmonary function tests
(normal FEV1 FVC, low RV and FRC only, normal DLCO)
They are consistent with a diagnosis of
a. Obesity
b. PE
c. Pulmonary fibrosis
d. COPD
a. Obesity
Obesity and pulmonary function testing
https://www.jacionline.org/article/S0091-6749(05)00164-8/fulltext
- Full pulmonary function tests are often necessary to better characterize the spirometric abnormalities seen in the obese patient
- The most sensitive indicator of obesity is a low expiratory reserve volume (ERV) and functional residual capacity
- Restriction is seen in more severe obesity, with reductions in TLC and FVC.
- However, residual volume is often preserved because of the relative high closing volume in relation to ERV.
23.1 The following is a chest X-ray from a patient complaining of dyspnoea after thoracic surgery. The diagnosis is
(not the image from the exam)
A. Dextracardia
B. Cardiac hernation
C. LLL collapse
D. Tension Pneumohorax
B. Cardiac hernation
https://www.ahajournals.org/doi/10.1161/CIRCULATIONAHA.109.896829
20.2 A patient presents with a serum sodium of 110mmol/L. A feature NOT consistent with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is
a. urinary sodium >40
b. Euvolemia
c. Increased cortisol
d. Urine osmolarity <100
e. Serum Na <145
d. Urine osmolarity <100
DIAGNOSTIC CRITERIA
>hypotonic hyponatraemia
>urine osmolality > plasma osmolality (<275mOsm/kg) (i.e. concentrated urine despite hypotonic blood)
>urinary Na+ > 20mmol/L
>normal renal, hepatic, cardiac, pituitary, adrenal and thyroid function
>euvolaemia (absence of hypotension, hypovolaemia, and oedema)
correction by water restriction
CAUSES (MAD CHOP)
Major Surgery
>abdominal
>thoracic
>transsphenoidal pituitary surgery (6-7 days post op)
ADH production by tumours (Ectopic)
>small cell bronchogenic carcinoma
>adenocarcinoma of pancreas/duodenum
>leukaemia
>lymphoma
>thymoma
Drugs
>antidepressants (e.g. SSRI, TCAs, MAOIs)
>psychotropics (e.g. haloperidol, chlorpromazine), carbamazepine, Na+ valproate)
>anaesthetic drugs (barbiturates, inhalational agents, oxytocin, opioids)
>ADH analogues (vasopressin, DDAVP)
>chemotherapy (e.g.Vinca alkaloids, Melphalan, Methotrexate and cyclophosphamide)
>others (e.g. NSAIDs, amiodarone, ciprofloxacin, morphine, MDMA, proton pump inhibitors)
CNS Disorders
>cerebral trauma
>brain tumour (primary or metastases)
>meningitis/encephalitis
>brain abscess
>SAH
>acute intermittent porphyria
>SLE
Hormone deficiency
>hypothyroidism
>adrenal insufficiency
Others
>Guillain-Barre Syndrome
>HIV infection (early symptomatic or AIDS)
>hereditary SIADH
>giant cell arteritis
>idiopathic (occult small cell or olfactory neuroblastoma)
Pulmonary Disorders
>pneumonia (viral, fungal, bacterial)
>TB
>lung abscess
MANAGEMENT
1. see hyponatraemia
2. fluid restrict
3. incremental increase in Na+ if indicated to avoid central pontine myelinolysis
4. medications to decrease ADH secretion
>Demeclocycline
>Tolvaptan / Conivaptan
23.1 A 24-year-old man has been brought into the emergency department with a traumatic fracture of the femur. His observations are: heart rate 90 beats per minute; blood
pressure 120/80 mmHg; respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute. A peripheral VENOUS blood gas sample shows a pH of 7.29. The arterial blood pH can be estimated to be
A. 7.29
B. 7.32
C. 7.35
D. 7.4
B. 7.32
https://emj.bmj.com/content/18/5/340
The values of pH on arterial and venous samples were highly correlated (r=0.92) with an average difference between the samples of −0.4 units. There was also a high level of agreement between the methods with the 95% limits of agreement being −0.11 to +0.04 units.
https://litfl.com/vbg-versus-abg/
pH
- Good correlation
- pooled mean difference: +0.035 pH units
23.1 During standard diagnostic nocturnal polysomnography for investigation of obstructive sleep apnoea, apnoea is defined as cessation of airflow for
A. 10 sec
B. 20 sec
C. 30 sec
D. 10 sec with 3% desat
E. 20 sec with 3 % desat
A
Apnea is defined as the cessation of airflow for ten or more seconds.
Hypopnea is defined as a recognizable, transient reduction, but not a complete cessation of, breathing for ten or more seconds.
Hypopnea requires a 4% fall in SpO2
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK441909/#:~:text=Obstructive%20Sleep%20Apnea%20(OSA)%2C,for%20ten%20or%20more%20seconds.
A 35-year-old male, three days post laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy has ongoing nausea and vomiting. His arterial blood gas measurement is as follows: (ABG shown) The best initial therapeutic option would be
Blood gas given:
hypokalaemia
hypochloraemia
alkalosis
normal lactate
a Laparoscopy
b IV fluids and KCL
c 4% albumin
d HCl infusion
e Acetazolamide
b IV fluids and KCL
UTD Stricture post Lap Sleeve Gastrectomy management
Although sleeve strictures have been reported in 0.26 to 4 percent of LSG operations, <1 percent result in symptoms that require endoscopic or surgical intervention
A stricture can manifest acutely, early after surgery, or more chronically.
Although strictures can occur anywhere along the long staple line, they are most often located at the level of the incisura angularis for anatomic reasons.
The etiologies of post-LSG strictures are either mechanical or functional. Mechanical strictures usually derive from the use of small bougies, stapling too close to the bougie (especially at the incisura angularis), twisting of the staple line creating a “spiral” sleeve, or aggressive imbrication of the staple line.
Functional stenoses derive from edema or hematomas at the staple line. As a result, functional stenoses are transient, which present immediately following LSG and resolve spontaneously with expectant treatment.
Patients who present with obstructive symptoms during the early postoperative period should be resuscitated with hydration and antiemetic medications and studied with an upper gastrointestinal (UGI) series.
Stable patients with a stricture can be observed to allow postsurgical mucosal edema to resolve, typically in 24 to 48 hours. Patients who cannot handle their own secretions require nasogastric tube decompression, preferably placed under fluoroscopic guidance.
Patients with an acute stricture who do not respond to conservative management require early surgical reintervention. Laparoscopy could demonstrate kinking of the gastric tube, a tight suture, or a compressing hematoma.
●Endoscopy is a good initial treatment for short-segment strictures, most of which can be dilated with balloons. Multiple treatments in four- to six-week intervals are sometimes needed to treat the stricture and improve patient symptoms. Stents have also been tried but are not effective for post-LSG strictures.
●Laparoscopic seromyotomy is a treatment option for long-segment strictures . In a small retrospective study, patients treated with laparoscopic seromyotomy had good symptomatic relief.
●Conversion to an RYGB is the last option for patients with a refractory stricture who have failed all other treatments.
20.1 A 64-year-old man presenting for elective surgery is on thyroxine 100 mcg daily. His thyroid function tests are: (Thyroid function tests shown). These results are most consistent with
TFTs thryoxine TSH < .05 T4 and T3 completely normal
a) Hypophysectomy
b) Subclinical Hyperthyoirdism
c) Sick euthyroid
d) Toxic Multinodular goitre
b) Subclinical Hyperthyoirdism
Subclinical hyperthyroidism: low TSH, normal T3 + T4
Clinical hyperthyroidism: low TSH, high T3, high/normal T4
Subclinical hypothyroidism: high TSH, normal T3 + T4
Clinical hypothyroidism: high TSH, low/normal T3, i T4
Amiodarone: high/normal TSH, low T3 (2o to inhibition of pituitary T4 to T3 conversion)
Sick euthyroid: low TSH, low T3
Hypophysectomy (central hypothyroidism): low/normal TSH/T3/T4
Compliant on thyroxine: normal TSH, high/normal T3, low T4
Non-compliant w thyroxine (pt taking several tabs prior to Dr’s appointment): high TSH, normal T4
23.1 A 60-year-old woman presents for thrombectomy with left lower leg ischaemia. She has not received any medications since presentation and takes none at home. The sole abnormality on laboratory testing is an activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) of 52 seconds. The most likely cause of the raised APTT is
a. Cold agglutinins
b. Erroneous reading
c. Lupus anticoagulant
d. Factor VII deficiency
e. Haemophilia A
c. Lupus anticoagulant
(normal PT, raised APTT)
Lupus anticoagulant (more likely to be associated with thrombosis than bleeding)
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/image?imageKey=HEME%2F79969
The amount of intravenous potassium chloride required to raise the plasma potassium level from 2.8 mmol/L to 3.8 mmol/L in a normal adult is approximately
a. 10mmol
b. 20mmol
c. 30mmol
d. 100mmol
e. 200mmol
e. 200mmol
K+ < 3.0 mmol/L: 200-400 mmol of potassium are required to raise it by 1 mmol/L
K+ > 3.0 mmol/L: 100-200 mmol of potassium are required to raise it by 1 mmol/L
Hypokalaemia P. GLOVER
https://www.cicm.org.au/CICM_Media/CICMSite/CICM-Website/Resources/Publications/CCR Journal/Previous Editions/September 1999/05-Sept_1999_Hypokalaemia.pdf
If the serum potassium level is greater than 3 mmol/L, 100-200 mmol of potassium are required to raise it by 1 mmol/L; 200 - 400 mmol are required to raise the serum potassium level by 1 mmol/L when the potassium concentration is less than 3mmol/L, assuming a normal distribution between cells and the intracellular space, and a linear relationship between plasma potassium and body deficit (which has been described, i.e. 0.27 mmol/L/100 mmol deficit/70 kg), exists. The rate of administration of potassium will be influenced by the presence and seriousness of the pathophysiological changes caused by hypokalaemia. The underlying disorder should also be treated simultaneously.
21.1 A 45-year-old man has the following results on his blood biochemistry testing (Liver function tests shown). The most likely diagnosis is
a. Cholecystitis
b. Metastatic liver disease
c. Hepatitis C
d. Chronic liver disease
e. Paracetamol toxicity
a. Cholecystitis
Example and explanation taken from RACGP:
The raised AlP relative to Alt suggests cholestasis and the high GGt confirms liver origin. The mild hyperbilirubinaemia confirms the clinical impression of jaundice. Biliary disease is highly likely with gallstones the most likely differential diagnosis. however, this clinical picture may also occur in drug reactions or infiltrative conditions. After a careful history, abdominal ultrasound is the most appropriate next investigation.
20.2 A 55 year old man with no past history of ischaemic heart disease is 3 days post total hip replacement surgery. He has an episode of chest pain that sounds ischaemic, began at rest and lasts thirty minutes before resolving fully. There are no ECG changes nor troponin rise. The diagnosis is
a. No diagnosis made
b. Unstable angina
c. STEMI
d. NSTEMI
e. MINS
b. Unstable angina
Not a Repeat, no Tropnin rise in this question making the answer unstable angina as opposed to NSTEMI
UTD:
Unstable angina (UA) and acute non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) differ primarily in whether the ischemia is severe enough to cause sufficient myocardial damage to release detectable quantities of a marker of myocardial injury (troponins):
●UA is considered to be present in patients with ischemic symptoms suggestive of an ACS and no elevation in troponins, with or without electrocardiogram changes indicative of ischemia (eg, ST segment depression or transient elevation or new T wave inversion).
●NSTEMI is considered to be present in patients having the same manifestations as those in UA, but in whom an elevation in troponins is present.
MINS: Myocardial injury after non-cardiac surgery (up to 30 days post-op):
1. Elevated postop troponin
2. Resulting from myocardial ischaemia (i.e. no evidence of a non-ischaemic aetiology), not requiring an ischaemic feature (i.e. no chest pain, no ECG change)
VISION studies (Vascular Events in Noncardiac Surgery Patients Cohort Evaluation) demonstrated that severity of MINS strongly associated with 30-day mortality after NCS.
hs-cTnT
<20ng/L ~ 0.5% 30 day mortality
20-64ng/L ~3% 30 day mortality
65-999 ng/L ~9% 30 day mortality
>1000ng/L ~30% 30 day mortality
Whilst VISION trial identified MINS in at risk patients, the question now becomes what interventions are available to prevent this complication?