IPA Exam 2 Flashcards
(169 cards)
1
Q
What are refractive errors?
A
The most common cause of blurred vision, including myopia, hyperopia, astigmatism, and presbyopia.
Refractive errors occur when the shape of the eye prevents light from focusing directly on the retina.
2
Q
Define myopia.
A
Nearsightedness; difficulty seeing distant objects clearly because light focuses in front of the retina.
Myopia is characterized by clear near vision and blurry distant vision.
3
Q
What does HYPER-opia stand for?
A
Farsightedness; difficulty seeing near objects clearly because light focuses behind the retina.
Hyperopia means ‘high vision’ indicating that far vision is better.
4
Q
What is astigmatism?
A
Blurred vision at all distances due to light not being uniformly focused, often caused by an irregularly shaped cornea.
Astigmatism can cause distortion in vision.
5
Q
What is presbyopia?
A
Age-related decline in near vision due to decreased lens flexibility, typically occurring after age 40.
Presbyopia affects the ability to focus on close objects.
6
Q
What is amaurosis fugax?
A
Transient vision loss in one or both eyes due to inadequate blood flow to the retina, usually lasting up to 3 minutes.
It is often described as a momentary blackout.
7
Q
Describe open-angle glaucoma.
A
Characterized by gradual peripheral vision loss and is a leading cause of visual impairment and blindness in the United States.
Examination reveals optic disc pallor and an enlarged optic cup.
8
Q
What are the symptoms of narrow-angle glaucoma?
A
Pain, seeing halos, and poor vision due to intermittent obstruction of aqueous humor drainage.
Untreated narrow-angle glaucoma can lead to total blindness.
9
Q
Define age-related macular degeneration (AMD).
A
A leading cause of vision loss in older adults.
AMD affects the central part of the retina, leading to a loss of central vision.
10
Q
What are retinal tears and detachments?
A
Conditions that can lead to vision reduction and a shadow or curtain in the peripheral vision.
These conditions require urgent medical attention to prevent permanent vision loss.
11
Q
What is amblyopia?
A
Loss of visual acuity in childhood due to strabismus, where the eyes are misaligned.
Amblyopia is reversible until around age 7.
12
Q
What are cataracts?
A
Opacification of the lens, most commonly due to aging, leading to slow, gradual vision loss.
Cataracts can significantly affect vision clarity.
13
Q
What is scotoma?
A
A blind spot that can be physiologic or pathologic, with pathologic scotomata detectable on visual field testing.
Scotomas may result from primary ocular disease or CNS lesions.
14
Q
Explain tunnel vision.
A
Loss of peripheral vision while retaining central vision.
Tunnel vision can occur in advanced glaucoma.
15
Q
What is diplopia?
A
Seeing double; can be caused by conditions affecting the extraocular muscles or nerves.
Strabismus can lead to diplopia, confusion, and subsequently amblyopia.
16
Q
What are floaters and flashes?
A
Visual disturbances that can indicate retinal tears, potentially progressing to detachments if untreated.
Patients often describe these as small dots or streaks in their vision.
17
Q
Define corneal abrasion.
A
Pain, photophobia, and blurred vision due to a scratch on the cornea, usually caused by trauma.
Fluorescein staining reveals defects in the corneal epithelium.
18
Q
What is acute angle-closure glaucoma?
A
Sudden onset of severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and blurred vision, often with a sluggish, mid-dilated pupil.
This is a medical emergency requiring immediate attention.
19
Q
What is iritis or iridocyclitis?
A
Inflammation of the iris, causing severe pain, photophobia, tearing, decreased vision, and circumcorneal congestion.
Ciliary flush is characterized by injection of deep episcleral vessels.
20
Q
What is a stye?
A
Localized abscess in an eyelash follicle caused by a staphylococcal infection, presenting as a painful, red bump.
Also known as an acute external hordeolum.
21
Q
What is conjunctivitis?
A
Inflammation of the conjunctiva, the membrane lining the inner eyelid and covering the white part of the eye.
It is the most common eye disease in the Western Hemisphere.
22
Q
What are the common symptoms of nasal disease?
A
Obstruction, nasal discharge, epistaxis (nosebleeds) and loss of smell (anosmia).
These symptoms can be caused by various conditions including infections and allergies.
23
Q
What is rhinitis?
A
Inflammation of the nasal mucosa, which can be triggered by allergens or other factors.
Symptoms may include nasal obstruction and discharge.
24
Q
What are the types of nasal discharge?
A
- Thin and watery: Viral infection or allergies
- Thick and purulent: Bacterial infection
- Bloody: Neoplasm, trauma, or infection
- Foul-smelling: Foreign bodies or chronic sinusitis
- Clear watery: Suggests cerebrospinal fluid leakage
The characteristics of nasal discharge can help in diagnosing the underlying condition.
25
What causes conductive hearing loss?
* Cerumen (earwax)
* Foreign bodies in the ear
* Infection
* Congenital abnormalities
* Middle ear effusions
* Otosclerosis
## Footnote
Conductive hearing loss occurs when sound transmission is blocked from the outer ear to the inner ear.
26
What is the Weber test?
A hearing test using a vibrating tuning fork to assess conductive hearing loss by placing it in the middle of the forehead.
## Footnote
Lateralization indicates which ear may have a conductive hearing loss.
27
What are signs of acute otitis media?
* Diffusely red tympanic membrane
* Loss of light reflex
* Less prominent malleus
* Bulging tympanic membrane due to effusion
## Footnote
Pneumatic otoscopy is used to assess the mobility of the tympanic membrane.
28
What is blepharoptosis?
Drooping of the eyelid, which can be symmetrical or affect only one eyelid.
## Footnote
It can be caused by various conditions including genetic disorders.
29
What is lagophthalmos?
Inability to close the eyelids completely, caused by conditions such as thyroid disease or ocular surgery.
## Footnote
This can lead to exposure keratitis.
30
What is entropion?
A turning inward of the lid margin causing eyelashes to rub against the cornea.
## Footnote
This condition can lead to irritation and corneal damage.
31
What is ectropion?
A turning outward of the eyelid margin, which can also be caused by age-related changes.
## Footnote
Ectropion may result in dryness and irritation of the eye.
32
What are raccoon eyes?
Orbital pigmentation indicating a basilar skull fracture.
## Footnote
This sign suggests serious intracranial injury.
33
What is entropion?
A turning inward of the lid margin that causes the eyelashes to rub against the cornea and globe.
34
What can cause entropion?
Age-related changes and dry eye syndrome.
35
What is ectropion?
A turning outward of the eyelid margin.
36
What can cause ectropion?
Age-related changes and dry eye syndrome.
37
What are raccoon eyes?
Orbital pigmentation that is a sign of a basilar skull fracture.
38
What is xanthelasma?
Sharply demarcated yellowish papules and plaques commonly found near the inner corner of the eyelid.
39
What causes xanthelasma?
Lipid deposits in the periorbital skin and is associated with hyperlipidemia in about half of cases.
40
What is a chalazion?
A granulomatous reaction to thickened secretions of the meibomian glands in the eyelid caused by a blocked duct.
41
What is a stye?
A painful, red, localized abscess in an eyelash follicle caused by a staphylococcal infection.
42
What is blepharitis?
Chronic inflammation of the eyelid margins.
43
What are common symptoms of blepharitis?
Itching, tearing, and redness.
44
What types of carcinoma can affect the eyelid?
* Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) * Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) * Malignant melanoma.
45
What are sublingual varices?
Varicose veins that appear under the tongue.
46
What is geographic tongue?
Irregular, map-like patterns on the tongue caused by areas where the papillae are missing.
47
What is black hairy tongue?
A harmless condition causing the tongue to look black and hairy due to overgrowth of bacteria and yeast.
48
What is scrotal tongue?
A benign condition that causes deep grooves or fissures on the surface of the tongue.
49
What is oral candidiasis?
A fungal infection of the mouth that can cause white patches on the tongue.
50
What is oral hairy leukoplakia?
A white, hairy-looking lesion on the sides of the tongue caused by the Epstein-Barr virus.
51
What is angular cheilitis?
Dry, cracked corners of the mouth.
52
What is the most significant risk factor for oral cancer?
Tobacco use.
53
What are the primary causes of oral cancer?
* Tobacco use * Alcohol consumption.
54
What is the role of HPV in oral cancer?
Human Papillomavirus, especially HPV-16, is an important modern risk factor.
55
What is conjunctivitis?
The most common eye disease in the Western Hemisphere, caused by various factors.
56
What is Acute Hemorrhagic Conjunctivitis (AHC)?
A highly contagious viral eye infection characterized by sudden onset of painful, swollen eyes with subconjunctival hemorrhages.
57
What is giant papillary conjunctivitis (GPC)?
An inflammatory condition with large papillae under the upper eyelid, usually as an allergic reaction.
VERY COMMON IN CONTACT LENS USERS
58
What is subconjunctival hemorrhage?
A condition occurring when a blood vessel breaks just beneath the conjunctiva.
59
What is episcleritis?
Inflammation of the episclera, usually benign and self-limiting.
60
What is scleritis?
A more serious condition involving inflammation of the sclera itself, often associated with autoimmune disorders.
61
What is a corneal abrasion?
A scratch on the cornea that is often painful.
62
What is a corneal ulceration?
An open sore on the cornea that can be very painful and may cause vision loss.
63
What is herpes simplex virus-related keratitis?
A viral infection of the cornea caused by the herpes simplex virus.
64
What is acute iritis?
Inflammation of the iris, which can cause pain and light sensitivity.
65
What is uveitis?
Inflammation of the uvea, which includes the iris, ciliary body, and choroid.
66
What is hyphema?
Bleeding into the anterior chamber of the eye.
67
What is globe rupture?
A serious injury where the sclera is torn.
68
What is papilledema?
Swelling of the optic disc caused by increased intracranial pressure.
69
What is open-angle glaucoma?
A leading cause of vision impairment due to gradual loss of peripheral vision.
70
What are risk factors for open-angle glaucoma?
* Age over 65 * African American ethnicity * Diabetes * Myopia * Ocular hypertension.
71
What is narrow-angle glaucoma?
A condition arising from obstruction in the drainage of aqueous humor, leading to acute increases in intraocular pressure.
72
What is diabetic retinopathy?
A complication of diabetes that can damage small blood vessels in the retina.
73
What is the first step in conducting an otoscopic exam?
Turn on the light source of the otoscope.
74
What is the importance of patient positioning during an otoscopic exam?
Ensures the patient's head is stabilized for optimal visualization.
75
What should be visually inspected before inserting the otoscope?
The external ear anatomy, ear canal patency, erythema, swelling, and lesions.
76
What is the purpose of the 'tug test' during an otoscopic exam?
To assess for pain in the ear.
77
What maneuver helps facilitate easier passage of the otoscope?
Gently grasping the top of the ear and pulling upward and backward.
78
What should be checked using fluorescein staining?
Identify any corneal damage.
79
What is the first step in speculum insertion?
Place the tip of the speculum into the opening of the external canal under direct vision
## Footnote
Do not insert while looking through the otoscope.
80
What maneuver helps to straighten the ear canal?
Gently grasp the top of the ear and pull upward and backward
## Footnote
This facilitates easier passage of the otoscope.
81
How should the otoscope be advanced during an examination?
Slowly advance the otoscope towards the patient's nose, avoiding upward or downward angulation
## Footnote
Hold the otoscope steady to minimize discomfort.
82
What should be observed during ear canal examination?
Look for abnormalities such as redness, swelling, discharge, or foreign bodies
## Footnote
Note the appearance of the external canal.
83
What is a healthy tympanic membrane's appearance?
Grayish and translucent
## Footnote
The malleus should be visible and touching the membrane.
84
What is assessed using pneumatic otoscopy?
The mobility of the tympanic membrane
## Footnote
A normal membrane will move; effusions will prevent movement.
85
What is the significance of documenting findings during an ear examination?
To record observations including appearance and any abnormalities
## Footnote
Important for clinical assessments.
86
What condition is characterized by large papillae under the upper eyelid?
Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis (GPC)
## Footnote
It is a common complication of contact lens wear.
87
What is the normal cup-to-disc ratio in a fundoscopic exam?
Ranges from 0.1 to 0.5
## Footnote
Asymmetry or increased ratios may suggest glaucoma.
88
What does papilledema indicate?
Swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure
## Footnote
Often caused by a space-occupying lesion in the brain.
89
What is arteriovenous nicking?
Compression of a vein by a hardened artery crossing it
## Footnote
This is a sign of hypertension.
90
What are the characteristics of nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy?
Microaneurysms, hemorrhages, and exudates
## Footnote
This is an early stage of diabetic retinopathy.
91
What is the primary symptom of epiglottitis?
Drooling
## Footnote
Other symptoms include fever, dysphonia, and stridor.
92
Which condition involves a sudden increase in intraocular pressure?
Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma
## Footnote
Characterized by severe eye pain and blurred vision.
93
What distinguishes otitis externa from otitis media?
OE is an infection of the external auditory canal; OM is an infection of the middle ear
## Footnote
Symptoms and examination findings differ between the two.
94
What are common symptoms of allergic rhinitis?
* Itching in the nose, eyes, and throat
* Sneezing in bursts
* Clear, watery discharge
* Nasal congestion
* Conjunctivitis
## Footnote
Symptoms are triggered by allergens.
95
What are the main causes of decreased visual acuity?
* Refractive errors
* Cataracts
* Glaucoma
* Macular degeneration
* Retinal tears and detachments
* Diabetic retinopathy
* Corneal abrasions
* Amaurosis fugax
## Footnote
Each condition affects vision in different ways.
96
What is the typical presentation of a corneal abrasion?
Pain, photophobia, and blurred vision
## Footnote
Fluorescein staining can help diagnose it.
97
What is the significance of the red reflex in an eye exam?
Absence or dimming may indicate opacity in the lens or vitreous humor
## Footnote
This can suggest cataracts or other ocular issues.
98
What is the definition of amaurosis fugax?
Transient vision loss in one or both eyes due to temporary interruption of blood flow to the retina
## Footnote
It is often a warning sign of vascular issues.
99
What is diabetic retinopathy?
A leading cause of blindness in Americans aged 20 to 75 years old.
100
What are corneal abrasions?
Scratches on the cornea causing pain, photophobia, and blurred vision.
101
Define Amaurosis Fugax.
Transient vision loss in one or both eyes due to temporary interruption of blood flow to the retina.
102
What is Central Retinal Artery Occlusion (CRAO)?
A serious condition where the central retinal artery becomes blocked, leading to sudden and often permanent vision loss.
103
What is Amblyopia?
Reduced vision in one eye due to abnormal visual development in childhood, often associated with strabismus.
104
What can cause optic nerve damage?
Conditions like optic neuritis or tumors.
105
What are common causes of visual loss in elderly patients?
Age-related changes, ocular disease, vascular issues affecting the eye.
106
What is presbyopia?
A natural age-related decline in the eye's ability to focus on near objects due to decreased lens flexibility.
107
What are cataracts?
Opacification of the lens causing gradual vision loss.
108
What is glaucoma?
A group of conditions that damage the optic nerve, often due to increased intraocular pressure.
109
What is Age-Related Macular Degeneration (AMD)?
Deterioration of the macula, affecting sharp, detailed vision.
110
How does hypertension affect the eye?
It can lead to narrowing, copper wiring, and arteriovenous nicking of retinal blood vessels.
111
What is the significance of visual acuity testing?
Crucial for detecting and quantifying vision loss.
112
What is a fundoscopic examination?
An ophthalmoscopic exam for visualizing the retina and its blood vessels.
113
What characterizes acute angle-closure glaucoma?
A sudden and severe increase in intraocular pressure causing intense eye pain.
114
What is tinnitus?
A sensation of hearing sounds without an external source.
115
What are common causes of tinnitus?
* Sensorineural hearing loss
* Conductive hearing loss
* Noise exposure
* Meniere's disease
* Ototoxic medications
* Head and neck injuries
* TMJ disorders
116
What are the symptoms of acute bacterial sinusitis?
* Persistent symptoms >10 days
* Facial pain/pressure
* Purulent nasal discharge
* Fever
117
What is the first step in examining the thyroid gland?
Inspection for visibility and enlargement.
118
What does diffuse enlargement of the thyroid indicate?
Conditions like Graves' disease and Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
119
What is a bruit?
A soft, whooshing sound indicating increased blood flow, often associated with hyperthyroidism.
120
What is the significance of a detailed fundoscopic examination?
It can reveal signs of conditions affecting vision, such as diabetic retinopathy.
121
What are red flags suggesting complications in sinusitis?
“HOMS”
* Severe headache
* Orbital involvement
* Mental status changes
* High fever
122
What is a bruit in relation to the thyroid gland?
A soft, whooshing sound indicating increased blood flow, often associated with hyperthyroidism
## Footnote
Bruits can be detected using the bell of a stethoscope over the lateral lobes of the thyroid.
123
What landmarks are used to palpate the thyroid gland?
Thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, sternal notch
## Footnote
The thyroid gland lies between the cricoid cartilage and the sternal notch.
124
What is the significance of a tender thyroid gland during palpation?
Suggests thyroiditis (inflammation of the thyroid)
## Footnote
Tenderness can indicate various underlying conditions affecting the thyroid.
125
What are the characteristics of lymph nodes that could indicate malignancy?
Fixed, firm, hard, nontender
## Footnote
These characteristics often raise concern for possible cancer involvement.
126
What is the normal range for jugular venous pressure (JVP)?
Typically less than or equal to 9 cm
## Footnote
JVP is an important indicator of intravascular volume status and cardiac function.
127
Fill in the blank: A _______ thyroid gland may indicate Graves' disease.
soft
## Footnote
Graves' disease is an autoimmune disorder characterized by an overactive thyroid.
128
What does a firm thyroid gland suggest?
May indicate Hashimoto's thyroiditis, malignancy, or benign and malignant nodules
## Footnote
The consistency of the thyroid gland provides valuable diagnostic insights.
129
What is the primary concern with enlarged supraclavicular lymph nodes?
Possible malignancy originating in the thorax or abdomen
## Footnote
Enlarged nodes in this area are significant and warrant further investigation.
130
True or False: Hyperthyroidism can present with symptoms such as weight loss and excessive sweating.
True
## Footnote
Symptoms of hyperthyroidism include nervousness, heat intolerance, and tachycardia.
131
What conditions are associated with thyroid abnormalities?
* Graves' Disease
* Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
* Endemic Goiter
* Thyroid Cancer
* Thyroiditis
* Multinodular Goiter
* Hypothyroidism
* Hyperthyroidism
## Footnote
Each condition presents with distinct clinical features and requires specific assessments.
132
What does the presence of a bruit over the thyroid suggest?
Increased blood flow, often associated with hyperthyroidism
## Footnote
Bruits can be indicative of various thyroid dysfunctions.
133
What should be assessed when a thyroid nodule is detected?
Risk factors for malignancy
## Footnote
Important factors include radiation exposure, nodule hardness, and rapid growth.
134
What are the signs of inflammation in lymph nodes?
Tenderness and potential enlargement
## Footnote
Tender nodes often indicate an inflammatory process, which can arise from infections or other causes.
135
What is the procedure for measuring JVP?
1. Position patient at 30-45 degrees
2. Identify sternal angle
3. Visualize IJ pulsations
4. Measure vertical distance to sternal angle
5. Add 5 cm to calculate JVP
## Footnote
This method assesses the pressure in the right atrium of the heart.
136
What can elevated JVP indicate?
Heart failure, fluid overload, or constrictive pericarditis
## Footnote
Elevated JVP is a significant clinical finding in assessing cardiac function.
137
What is the role of lymph nodes in the immune system?
Filter fluid and trap foreign substances like bacteria and cancer cells
## Footnote
They play a crucial role in the body's immune response.
138
What does a rubbery consistency of lymph nodes suggest?
May indicate lymphoma
## Footnote
The texture of lymph nodes can provide important diagnostic clues.
139
What anatomical areas do the anterior cervical lymph nodes drain?
Throat, tonsils, oropharynx, thyroid, and tongue
## Footnote
The location of enlarged lymph nodes can indicate underlying health issues.
140
What is the significance of palpating the thyroid isthmus while the patient swallows?
Feel for the isthmus as it slides upward beneath your fingers
## Footnote
This technique helps assess the size and consistency of the thyroid gland.
141
What does Anterior Auricular drain?
Ear, scalp, skin
142
What does Anterior Cervical drain?
Throat, tonsils, oropharynx, thyroid, tongue
143
What does Posterior Cervical drain?
Back of skull, scalp, neck
144
What does Sub-Mandibular drain?
Floor of mouth
145
What does Sub-Mental drain?
Teeth
146
What does Supra-Clavicular drain?
Thorax
147
What does Tonsillar drain?
Tonsils, posterior pharynx
148
What does the Weber Test assess?
It assesses hearing loss types and lateralization.
149
In the presence of a conductive hearing loss, where is the sound heard?
On the side of the conductive loss.
150
In the presence of a sensorineural loss, where is the sound heard better?
On the opposite (unaffected) side.
151
True or False: The Weber Test can determine if hearing loss is conductive or sensorineural.
True.
152
The head acts as a _______ during the Weber Test.
receiver of sound.
153
What happens to the head when sound is heard during the Weber Test?
The whole head vibrates.
154
What does OD mean?
OD means Right eye.
155
What does OS mean?
OS means Left eye.
156
What does OU mean?
OU means both eyes.
157
What is an absence of refractive error known as?
Emmetropia
## Footnote
Good vision - no nearsightedness or farsightedness.
158
What does emmetropia indicate?
Good vision with no nearsightedness or farsightedness.
159
Which nerve tests visual fields (i.e. peripheral vision)?
CN 2 (optic)
160
What does CN 2 (optic) nerve test?
Peripheral
161
What is it called when pupils are >6mm?
Mydriasis (dilated)
162
Which cranial nerves innervate the extra ocular muscles?
CN 3, 4, 6
163
What is another term for eye alignment?
esotropia
164
What is disconjugate gaze?
Disconjugate gaze refers to a condition where the eyes do not move together in the same direction.
165
What is exotropia?
Exotropia is a type of strabismus where one or both eyes turn outward.
166
What is the eye motion going internally and upwards?
Intorsion
167
What is the eye motion going internally and upwards?
Intorsion
168
What is it called when the pupils are less than 2mm?
Miosis (Constricted)
169
What is it called when the pupils are less than 2mm?
Miosis (Constricted)
