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IT ALL Knowledge > IT Advancement Exam > Flashcards

IT Advancement Exam Flashcards

1
Q

1. What is the International Aeronautical Emergency Frequency? (Page 6-1)

A

121.5 MHz

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2
Q
  1. What is the Distress and Emergency Frequency? (Page 6-1)
A

243.0 MHz

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3
Q
  1. Which frequencies are used to supplement the carrier frequency 2182 kHz for DISTRESS and SAFETY purposes and for call and reply? (Page 6-3)
A

4125 kHz and 6215 kHz

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4
Q
  1. Which frequency is for international use by the maritime mobile VHF radiotelephone service as a distress, safety and calling frequency? (Page 6 3)
A

156.8 MHz

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5
Q
  1. Which frequency is for world-wide use when communicating with enroute aircraft participating in SAR operations? (Page 6-4)
A

123.1 MHz

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6
Q
  1. Which term means “movement through a medium”? (Page l1-2)
A

Propagation

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7
Q
  1. What can be defined as a disturbance (sound, light, radio waves) that moves through a medium (air, water, vacuum)? (Page 1-3)
A

Wave

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8
Q
  1. What can be defined as a recurring disturbance advancing through space with or without the use of a physical medium? (Page 1-3)
A

Wave motion

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9
Q
  1. Which type of waves are water waves known as because the motion of the water is up and down, or at right angles to the direction in which the waves are traveling? (Page 1-6)
A

Transverse

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10
Q
  1. Which type of waves are waves in which the disturbance takes place in the direction of propagation? (Page 1-7)
A

Longitudinal

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11
Q
  1. What is the vehicle through which the wave travels from one point to the next? (Page 1-8)
A

Medium

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12
Q
  1. What is the position called that a particle of matter would have if it were not disturbed by wave motion? (Page 1-9)
A

Reference line

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13
Q
  1. What is the distance in space occupied by one cycle of a radio wave at any given instant? (Page 1-11)
A

Wavelength

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14
Q
  1. Which unit of measurement are wavelengths expressed in? (Page 1- 11)
A

Meters

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15
Q
  1. Which wave property gives a relative indication of the amount of energy the wave transmits? (Page 1-11)
A

Amplitude

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16
Q
  1. What is a continuous series of waves called having the same amplitude and wavelength? (Page 1-11)
A

Wave train

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17
Q
  1. The number of vibrations, or cycles, of a wave train in a unit of time is called the frequency of the wave train and is measured in what? (Page1-11)
A

Hertz

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18
Q
  1. Which term refers to the number of occurrences that take place in one second? (Page 1-11)
A

Hertz

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19
Q
  1. Which propagation property is the rate at which the disturbance travels through the medium, or the velocity with which the crest of the wave moves along? (Page 1-12)
A

Velocity

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20
Q
  1. What is the time in which one complete vibratory cycle of events occurs? (Page 1-13)
A

Period

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21
Q
  1. What is a wave called that is directed toward the surface of the mirror? (Page 1-17)
A

Incident

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22
Q
  1. What is the angle between the reflected wave and the normal called? (Page 1-17)
A

Angle of reflection

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23
Q
  1. Which law states that “The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection’”? (Page 1-18)
A

Law of reflection

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24
Q
  1. What is the bending of the wave path when the waves meet an obstruction? (Page 1-21)
A

Diffraction

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25
Q
  1. What is the apparent change in frequency or pitch when a sound source moves either toward or away from the listener, or when the listener moves either toward or away from the sound source? (Page 1- 21)
A

Doppler Effect

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26
Q
  1. How does sound travel through a medium? (Page 1-22)
A

Wave motion

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27
Q
  1. In the study of physics, what is defined as a range of compression- wave frequencies to which the human ear is sensitive? (Page 1-23)
A

Sound

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28
Q
  1. Which type of sounds are capable of being heard by the human ear? (Page 1-23)
A

Sonics

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29
Q
  1. The Navy has set an arbitrary upper limit for sonics at 10,000 hertz and a lower limit at what? (Page 1-23)
A

15 hertz

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30
Q
  1. What is it standard practice to refer to sounds above 10,000 hertz as? (Page 1-23)
A

Ultrasonic

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31
Q
  1. What are sounds below 15 hertz known as? (Page 1-23)
A

Infrasonic

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32
Q
  1. How many basic elements for transmission and reception of sound must be present before a sound can be produced? (Page 1-23)
A

Three

  1. Source of Sound: This is the origin of the sound, where vibrations are generated. It could be something like a vibrating vocal cord for human speech, a musical instrument’s strings, or the diaphragm in a microphone.
  2. Medium for Transmission: Sound requires a medium through which it can travel. Sound waves are essentially vibrations that propagate through a material medium, such as air, water, or solids. In space, where there is a vacuum, sound cannot propagate because there is no medium to carry the vibrations.
  3. Receiver: There needs to be a receiver or a “listener” to perceive the sound. This can be a human ear, a microphone, or some other sensor capable of detecting and converting the sound waves back into electrical signals or sensory perception.

These three elements work together in a chain: the source generates vibrations, these vibrations travel through the medium as sound waves, and the receiver picks up and interprets these waves to produce sound that we can perceive or record.

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33
Q
  1. Which two general groups may sounds be broadly classified into? (Page 1-26)
A

Noise or Tones

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34
Q
  1. Sound has three basic characteristics: pitch, intensity, and what else? (Page 1-27)
A

Quality

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35
Q
  1. Which term is used to describe the frequency of a sound? (Page 1- 27)
A

Pitch

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36
Q
  1. What is a measure of the sound energy of a wave? (Page 1-28)
A

Intensity

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37
Q
  1. What is the sensation the intensity (and sometimes frequency) the sound wave produces on the ear? (Page 1-28)
A

Loudness

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38
Q
  1. What are the two basic physical properties that govern the velocity of sound through the medium? (Page 1-30)
A

Elasticity and Density

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39
Q
  1. What is the ability of a strained body to recover its shape after deformation? (Page 1-30)
A

Elasticity

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40
Q
  1. What property of a medium or substance is the mass per unit volume of the medium or substance? (Page 1-30)
A

Density

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41
Q
  1. What is the velocity in FPS that sound will travel through air at 32 degrees F? (Page 1-30)
A

1087

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42
Q
  1. What is the science of sound referred to as? (Page l-31)
A

Acoustics

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43
Q
  1. What is the reflection of the original sound wave as it bounces off a distant surface called? (Page 1-31)
A

Echo

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44
Q
  1. In empty rooms or other confined spaces, sound may be reflected several times to cause what is known as what? (Page 1-33)
A

Reverberation

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45
Q
  1. What is any disturbance, man-made or natural, that causes an undesirable response or the degradation of a wave referred to as? (Page 1-33)
A

Interference

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46
Q
  1. What is the most complex sound wave that can be produced? (Page 1-34)
A

Noise

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47
Q
  1. What is light a form of? (Page 1-35)
A

Electromagnetic radiation

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48
Q
  1. Current light theory says that light is made up of very small packets of electromagnetic energy called what? (Page 1-36)
A

Photons

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49
Q
  1. Approximately how many miles per second does light travel? (Page 1-36)
A

186000

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50
Q
  1. What is a large volume of light called? (Page 1-37)
A

Beam

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51
Q
  1. What is a narrow volume of light called? (Page 1-37)
A

Pencil

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52
Q
  1. Which type of substance is one through which you can see clearly? Page 1-39)
A

Transparent

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53
Q
  1. What are substances called through which some light rays can pass but through which objects cannot be seen clearly because the rays are diffused? (Page 1-39)
A

Translucent

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54
Q
  1. Which year did Ole Roemer discover that light travels approximately 186,000 miles per second in space? (Page 1-42)
A

1675

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55
Q
  1. How many times in one second can a light beam circle the earth?(Page 1-42)
A

7.5

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56
Q
  1. Which term is used to designate the entire range of electromagnetic waves arranged in order of their frequencies? (Page 1-47)
A

Spectrum

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57
Q
  1. What is a conductor or a set of conductors used either to radiate electromagnetic energy into space or to collect this energy from space? (Page 1-49)
A

Antenna

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58
Q
  1. Which two primary components does an electromagnetic wave consist of? (Page 1-50)
A

Electric and Magnetic field

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59
Q
  1. What is the smallest unit of radiant energy that makes up light waves and radio waves? (Page 1-61)
A

Photon

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60
Q
  1. Which units are used for measuring the wavelength of light? (Page 1-61)
A

Angstrom

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61
Q
  1. What are the primary colors of light? (Page 1-61)
A

Red, green, and blue

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62
Q
  1. What are the complementary colors of light? Page 1-61)
A

Magenta, yellow, and cyan

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63
Q
  1. Which two basic fields are associated with every antenna? (Page 2-2)
A

Induction and Radiation

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64
Q
  1. Which field is associated with the energy stored in the antenna? (Page 2-2)
A

Induction

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65
Q
  1. Which type of antenna has an electrical length equal to half the wavelength of the signal being transmitted? (Page 2-5)
A

Half-wave

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66
Q
  1. What is an energy wave called that is generated by a transmitter? (Page 2-7)
A

Radio wave

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67
Q
  1. What is the basic shape of the wave generated by a transmitter? (Page 2-7)
A

Sine wave

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68
Q
  1. What is the number of cycles of a sine wave that are completed in 1 second known as? (Page 2-7)
A

Frequency

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69
Q
  1. The frequencies falling between 3 kHz and what are called radio frequencies (abbreviated rf) since they are commonly used in radio communications? (Page 2-7)
A

300 GHZ

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70
Q
  1. The usable radio-frequency range is roughly 10 kilohertz to what? (Page 2-7)
A

100 gigahertz

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71
Q
  1. What is the VLF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
A

3 to 30 KHz

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72
Q
  1. What is the LF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
A

30 to 300 KHz

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73
Q
  1. What is the MF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
A

300 to 3000 KHz

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74
Q
  1. What is the HF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
A

3 to 30 MHz

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75
Q
  1. What is the VHF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
A

30 to 300 MHz

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76
Q
  1. What is the UHF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
A

300 to 3000 MHZ

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77
Q
  1. What is the SHF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
A

3 to 30 GHz

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78
Q
  1. What is the EHF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
A

30 to 300 GHZ

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79
Q
  1. Any frequency that is a whole number multiple of a smaller basic frequency is known as what property of that basic frequency? (Page 2-8)
A

Harmonic

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80
Q
  1. What is the property of a radio wave which is simply the amount of time required for the completion of one full cycle? (Page 2-8)
A

Period

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81
Q
  1. What is the space called occupied by one full cycle of a radio wave at any given instant? (Page 2-8)
A

Wavelength

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82
Q
  1. The velocity (or speed) of a radio wave radiated into free space by a transmitting antenna is equal to the speed of light which is how many miles per second? (Page 2-8)
A

186000

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83
Q
  1. Where must the receiving antenna be located for maximum absorption of energy from the electromagnetic fields? (Page 2-12)
A

Plane of polarization

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84
Q
  1. Troposphere, Stratosphere, along with what else are the three separate regions, or layers that the Earth’s atmosphere is divided into? (Page 2-17)
A

ionosphere

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85
Q
  1. The troposphere is the portion of the Earth’s atmosphere that extends from the surface of the Earth to a height of about 3.7 miles (6 km) at the North Pole or the South Pole and how many miles at the equator? (Page 2-18)
A

11.2

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86
Q
  1. Which atmosphere layer has relatively little effect on radio waves because it is a relatively calm region with little or no temperature changes? (Page 2-19)
A

Stratosphere

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87
Q
  1. The Ionosphere extends upward from about 31.1 miles to a height of about how many miles? (Page 2-19)
A

250

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88
Q
  1. What is the most important region of the atmosphere for long distance point-to-point communications? (Page 2-19)
A

Ionosphere

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89
Q
  1. What are the two principal ways in which electromagnetic (radio) energy travels from a transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna? (Page 2-9)
A

Ground and Sky waves

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90
Q
  1. The surface wave is impractical for long distance transmissions at frequencies above what frequency? (Page 2-22)
A

2 megahertz

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91
Q
  1. Which frequency band is used for sky wave propagation? (Page 2- 24)
A

High Frequency (HF)

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92
Q
  1. What is the process known as of upsetting electrical neutrality? (Page 2-24)
A

ionization

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93
Q
  1. What occurs when the free electrons and positive ions collide with each other? (Page 2-25)
A

Recombination

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94
Q
  1. How many layers is the Ionosphere composed of? (Page 2-25)
A

Three

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95
Q
  1. Each ionospheric layer has a maximum frequency at which radio waves can be transmitted vertically and refracted back to Earth which is known as what? (Page 2-29)
A

Critical frequency

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96
Q
  1. What is the distance from the transmitter to the point where the sky wave is first returned to Earth? (Page 2-32)
A

Skip distance

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97
Q
  1. What is a zone of silence between the point where the ground wave becomes too weak for reception and the point where the sky wave is first returned to Earth? (Page 2-32)
A

Skip zone

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98
Q
  1. What results in the loss of energy of a radio wave and has a pronounced effect on both the strength of received signals and the ability to communicate over long distances? (Page 2-34)
A

Absorption

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99
Q
  1. Fading on ionospheric circuits is mainly a result of what? (Page 2- 35)
A

Multipath propagation

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100
Q
  1. In what practice are two transmitters and two receivers used, each pair tuned to a different frequency, with the same information being transmitted simultaneously over both frequencies? (Page 2-36)
A

Frequency diversity

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101
Q
  1. When a wide band of frequencies is transmitted simultaneously, each frequency will vary in the amount of fading. What is this variation called? (Page 2-36)
A

Selective fading

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102
Q
  1. The combined effects of absorption, ground reflection loss, and what else account for most of the energy losses of radio transmissions propagated by the ionosphere? (Page 2-37)
A

Free space loss

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103
Q
  1. There is little natural interference above what frequency? Page 2- 39)
A

30 megahertz

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104
Q
  1. How many main classes can the regular variations that affect the extent of ionization in the ionosphere be divided into? (Page 2-40)
A

Four

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105
Q
  1. What are responsible for variations in the ionization level of the ionosphere? (Page 2-41)
A

Sunspots

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106
Q
  1. Long distance propagation of hf radio waves is almost totally “blanked out” when what occurs? (Page 2-43)
A

Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance (SID)

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107
Q
  1. An ionospheric storm that is associated with sunspot activity may begin anytime from 2 days before an active sunspot crosses the central meridian of the sun until how many days after it passes the central meridian? (Page 2-43)
A

Four

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108
Q
  1. For a given angle of incidence and time of day, there is a maximum frequency that can be used for communications between two given locations. What is this frequency known as? (Page 2-44)
A

Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)

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109
Q
  1. Raindrops cause greater attenuation by scattering than by absorption at frequencies above what? (Page 2-48)
A

100 megahertz

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110
Q
  1. Fog can cause serious attenuation by absorption at frequencies above what? (Page 2-48)
A

2 gigahertz

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111
Q
  1. What is the condition when layers of warm air are formed above layers of cool air known as? (Page 2-49)
A

Temperature inversion

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112
Q
  1. As the lowest region of the Earth’s atmosphere, the troposphere extends from the Earth’s surface to a height of slightly over how many miles? (Page 2-51)
A

7

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113
Q
  1. What region does virtually all weather phenomena occur in? (Page 2-51)
A

Troposphere

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114
Q
  1. Radio waves of frequencies below what normally have wavelengths longer than the size of weather turbulences? (Page 2-51)
A

30 megahertz

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115
Q
  1. The usable frequency range for tropospheric scattering is from about 100 megahertz to what? (Page 2-51)
A

10 gigahertz

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116
Q
  1. A correctly designed tropospheric scatter circuit will provide highly reliable service for distances ranging from 50 miles to how many miles? (Page 2-53)
A

500

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117
Q
  1. Which two basic classifications are most practical transmitting antennas divided into? (Page 4-3)
A

Hertz and Marconi

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118
Q
  1. Which type of antennas operate with one end grounded and are mounted perpendicular to the Earth or to a surface acting as a ground? (Page 4 3)
A

Marconi

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119
Q
  1. Hertz antennas are generally used for frequencies above what? (Page 4-3)
A

2 megahertz

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120
Q
  1. Which three parts does a complete antenna system consist of? (Page 4-4)
A

Coupling device, feeder, and antenna

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121
Q
  1. What is defined as a conductor or group of conductors used either for radiating electromagnetic energy into space or for collecting it from space? (Page 4-5)
A

Antenna

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122
Q
  1. What is the interchangeability of the same antenna for transmitting and receiving known as? (Page 4-10)
A

Reciprocity

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123
Q
  1. What cannot be used at medium and low frequencies because the electric lines of force are parallel to and touch the earth? (Page 4-13)
A

Horizontal polarization

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124
Q
  1. Which frequencies is sky-wave transmission used? (Page 4-13)
A

High

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125
Q
  1. From approximately 50 to how many megahertz, vertical polarization results in a slightly stronger signal than does horizontal polarization with antennas at the same height? (Page 4-15)
A

100

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126
Q
  1. At 30 megahertz, vertical polarization is better for antenna heights below about how many meters? (Page 4-15)
A

91

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127
Q
  1. At ordinary antenna mast heights of 12 meters (40 feet), vertical polarization is advantageous for frequencies less than about what? (Page 4-15)
A

100 megahertz

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128
Q
  1. Which type of polarization is used by VHF and UHF transmissions? (Page 4-15)
A

Horizontal

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129
Q
  1. What is the useful part of the transmitter’s signal? (Page 4-17)
A

Radiated energy

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130
Q
  1. For the antenna in free space, that is, entirely removed from any objects that might affect its operation, the radiation resistance is how many ohms? (Page 4-17)
A

73

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131
Q
  1. For most half-wave wire antennas, the radiation resistance is about how many ohms? (Page 4-17)
A

65

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132
Q
  1. What is a plot of the radiated energy from an antenna? (Page 4-17)
A

Radiation pattern

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133
Q
  1. What is it known as when antenna sources radiate energy equally in all directions? (Page 418)
A

Isotropic radiation

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134
Q
  1. Which type of radiators emit (radiate) stronger radiation in one direction than in another? (Page 4-21)
A

Anisotropic

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135
Q
  1. What is used to indicate directions of minimum radiation? (Page 4- 24)
A

Null

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136
Q
  1. The electrical length of any antenna wire can be increased or decreased by what way? (Page 4-24)
A

Loading

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137
Q
  1. What is the basic unit from which many complex antennas are constructed? (Page 4-26)
A

Half-wave antenna

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138
Q
  1. What term is used to indicate an antenna that is very short compared with the wavelength of the operating frequency? (Page 4-26)
A

Doublet

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139
Q
  1. What is the simplest form of a practical antenna? (Page 4-26)
A

Doublet

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140
Q
  1. What type of antenna is the shortest antenna that can be used in free space? (Page 4-30)
A

1/2 wavelength

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141
Q
  1. What is an ordinary half-wave antenna that has one or more additional conductors connected across its ends? (Page 4-35)
A

Folded dipole

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142
Q
  1. What is a parasitic element referred to as when it operates to reinforce energy coming from the driver toward itself? (Page 4-36)
A

Director

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143
Q
  1. What is a parasitic element referred to as if it is placed so it causes maximum energy radiation in a direction away from itself and toward the driven clement? (Page 4-36)
A

Reflector

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144
Q
  1. What designates an array in which the direction of maximum radiation is perpendicular to the plane containing these elements? (Page 4-36)
A

Broadside array

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145
Q
  1. What type of array is it when all the elements lie in a straight line with no radiation at the ends of the array? (Page 4-37)
A

Collinear

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146
Q
  1. What type of array is it when the principal direction of radiation is along the plane of the array and perpendicular to the elements? (Page 4- 37)
A

End-fire

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147
Q
  1. What property of an array is the proportion of energy radiated in the principal direction of radiation to the energy radiated in the opposite direction? (Page 4-56)
A

Front-To-Back Ratio

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148
Q
  1. What is an antenna that is a wavelength or longer at the operating frequency? (Page 4-61)
A

Long-wire

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149
Q
  1. What is a horizontal, long-wire antenna designed especially for the reception and transmission of 1low-frequency, vertically polarized ground waves? (Page 4-61)
A

Beverage antenna

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150
Q
  1. What is one of the most popular fixed-station antennas because it is very useful in point-to-point communications? (Page 4-65)
A

Rhombic

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151
Q
  1. What is a half-wave radiator with a reflector? (Page 4-70)
A

Corner-Reflector antenna

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152
Q
  1. What is the heating of an insulating material by placing it in a high- frequency electric field? (Page 4-73)
A

Dielectric heating

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153
Q
  1. What parts of the human body are highly susceptible to dielectric heating? (Page 4-73)
A

Eyes

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154
Q
  1. What is the area of a radiation pattern that is covered by radiation? Page 4-74)
A

Lobe

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155
Q
  1. The optimum gain of a broadside array is obtained when the elements are spaced what distance apart? (Page 4-75)
A

0.65 wavelength

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156
Q
  1. What year was the first official naval radio message sent from ship to shore? (Page 1-1)
A

1899

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157
Q
  1. What year was the first radiotelephone used between ships? (Page 1- 1)
A

1916

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158
Q
  1. In what year were the first superheterodyne receivers installed in the fleet? (Page 1-1)
A

1931

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159
Q
  1. In what year were the first successful radio teletypewriter transmissions between ships completed? (Page 1-1)
A

1944

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160
Q
  1. In what year did the first successful use of radiophoto (facsimile) occur? (Page 1-1)
A

1945

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161
Q
  1. What refers to communications over a distance and includes any transmission, emission, or reception of signs, signals, writings, images, or sounds? (Page 1-2)
A

Telecommunications

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162
Q
  1. What is the most important method the Navy has of communicating between widely separated forces? (Page 1-2)
A

Radio

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163
Q
  1. What was the first means of radio communications that had military and commercial importance? (Page 1-2)
A

Radiotelegraphy

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164
Q
  1. Line-of-sight characteristics limit the usual range of radiotelephone from how many miles? (Page 1-3)
A

20 to 25

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165
Q
  1. The Navy uses radio teletypewriter (rtty) mainly for high-speed automatic communications across ocean areas and has a normal speed of operation of how many words per minute? Page 1-4)
A

100

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166
Q
  1. What is the process used to transmit photographs, charts, and other graphic information electronically? (Page 1-4)
A

Facsimile (fax)

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167
Q
  1. What is a combination of sets, units, assemblies, subassemblies, and parts joined together to perform a specific operational function or several functions? (Page 1-7)
A

System

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168
Q
  1. What consists of a unit or units and the assemblies, subassemblies, and parts connected or associated together to perform a specific function? (Page 1-8)
A

Set

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169
Q
  1. What is a collection of units, assemblies, subassemblies, and parts? (Page 1-9)
A

Group

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170
Q
  1. What is an assembly or any combination of parts, subassemblies, and assemblies mounted together? (Page 1-9)
A

Unit

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171
Q
  1. What is a number of parts or subassemblies, or any combination thereof, joined together to perform a specific function? (Page 1-10)
A

Assembly

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172
Q
  1. What is one component or two or more components joined together? (Page 1-12)
A

Part

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173
Q
  1. What is the frequency range for the extremely high frequency (EHF) band? (Page 1-14)
A

30 GHZ - 300 GHz

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174
Q
  1. What is the frequency range for the super high frequency (SHF) band? (Page 1-14)
A

3 GHZ- 30 GHZ

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175
Q
  1. What is the frequency range for the ultra high frequency (UHF) band? (Page 1-14)
A

300 MHZ- 3GHZ

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176
Q
  1. What is the frequency range for the very high frequency (VHF) band? (Page 1-14)
A

30 MHZ-300 MHz

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177
Q
  1. What is the frequency range for the high frequency (HF) band? (Page 1-14)
A

3 MHZ - 30 MHz

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178
Q
  1. What is the frequency range for the medium frequency (MF) band? (Page 1-14)
A

300 KHZ-3 MHz

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179
Q
  1. What is the frequency range for the low frequency (LF) band? (Page 1-14)
A

30 KHZ-300 KHz

180
Q
  1. What is the frequency range for the very low frequency (VLF) band? (Page 1-14)
A

3 KHZ - 30 KHz

181
Q
  1. What is the frequency range for the extremely low frequency (ELF) band? (Page I-14)
A

Up to 300 Hz

182
Q
  1. What band has the ability to penetrate ocean depths to several hundred feet with little signal loss? (Page 1-15)
A

ELF

183
Q
  1. What type of transmission is normally considered a broadcast, that is, one-way transmission, no reply required? (Page 1-15)
A

VLF

184
Q
  1. What systems are established to communicate over long- distance trunks or links between fixed terminals? (Page 1-18)
A

Point-to-point

185
Q
  1. What is normally message circuit between two points that are both switching centers or individual message distribution points? (Page 1-18)
A

Trunk

186
Q
  1. What is a transmitter-receiver system connecting two locations? (Page 1-18)
A

Link

187
Q
  1. Frequencies above what are not normally refracted by the atmosphere and ground-wave range is minimal? (Page 1-19)
A

30 megahertz

188
Q
  1. The naval communications system is broken down into what groups? (Page 1-21)
A

Strategic and tactical

189
Q
  1. What type of communications are usually limited to a specific area of operations and are used to direct or report the movement of specific forces? (Page 1-21)
A

Tactical

190
Q
  1. What mode is a method of operation in which telecommunications between stations takes place simultaneously in both directions using two separate frequencies? (Page 1-22)
A

Full-Duplex (fdx)

191
Q
  1. What is the type of operation in which one station transmits information on one or more channels directed to more than one station and/or unit? (Page 1-22)
A

Broadcast (bc)

192
Q
  1. Message traffic is normally sent to the fleet by three methods: broadcast, intercept, and what else? (Page 1-22)
A

Receipt

193
Q
  1. What combines into a single system all the elements that make up the naval communications system and the Army and Air Force equivalent? (Page 1-23)
A

DCS

194
Q
  1. What offers rapid, direct interconnection of DOD and certain other government installations through worldwide telephone exchanges? (Page 1 24)
A

DCS AUTOVON

195
Q
  1. What provides authorized users with a means for exchanging classified information over communications security (COMSEC) circuitry or over other approved circuitry? (Page 1-24)
A

AUTOSEVOCOM

196
Q
  1. Daily capacity of the AUTODIN system is about how many average- length messages? (Page 1-25)
A

Five million

197
Q
  1. What was established for the purpose of integrating the critical intelligence communications (CRITICOMM) and the special intelligence communications (SPINTCOMM) networks into a single automated communications network? (Page 1-25)
A

DSSCS

198
Q
  1. What network provides a voice link between the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) and all subordinate commands ashore, afloat, and airborne? (Page 1-26)
A

HICOM

199
Q
  1. What meets our need for a connection between Navy tactical voice systems of the operating forces and the various fixed telephone services ashore? (Page 1-26)
A

NORATS

200
Q
  1. Components or tools of a computer system are grouped into one of what two categories? (Page 2-1)
A

Hardware or Software

201
Q
  1. What is the brain of the computer? (Page 2-2)
A

CPU

202
Q
  1. What transform the digital computer into a system that is more than a high- speed adding machine? (Page 2-3)
A

Logic instructions

203
Q
  1. What is the process by which instructions and data are read into the computer called? (Page 2-4)
A

Loading

204
Q
  1. What type of memory consists of a very thin crystal made of semiconductor material? (Page 2-9)
A

Bubble

205
Q
  1. What type of computer memory retains all the data and instructions even when the computer is powered down and is usually programmed from the manufacturer? (Page 2-10)
A

ROM

206
Q
  1. What is the working memory of the computer and is volatile (loses its data when the computer powers down)? (Page 2-11)
A

RAM

207
Q
  1. What type of memory has the advantages of ROM with the additional flexibility to program the memory to meet a unique need? (Page 2-11)
A

PROM

208
Q
  1. What type of memory has the advantages of ROM but also allows you the flexibility to change programs to include improvements or modifications in the future? (Page 2-11)
A

EPROM

209
Q
  1. The storage capacities of magnetic drums range from 20 million to more than how many characters (or bytes) of data? (Page 2-24)
A

150,000 million

210
Q
  1. A high average speed for keyboard operation is how many characters per second? (Page 2-25)
A

2 - 3

211
Q
  1. What printers have the most professional-looking, pleasing-to-the-eye print of all the printers in the character-at-a-time impact printer class? (Page 2-32)
A

Daisy-wheel

212
Q
  1. The speeds of daisywheel printers range from 30 to how many characters per second (cps)? (Page 2-32)
A

60

213
Q
  1. Dot-matrix printers are faster than the daisy-wheel printers with speeds ranging from 60 to how many cps, but their print quality is not as good? (Page 2-33)
A

350

214
Q
  1. Ink jet printers can print up to how many cps? (Page 2-34)
A

300

215
Q
  1. Laser printers can print up to how many cps? (Page 2-35)
A

26666

216
Q
  1. The major grouping of key switches on a keyboard will be in one of what two styles of a typewriter keyboard arrangement? (Page 2-36)
A

QWERTY or DVORAK

217
Q
  1. What is defined in terms of the number of picture elements that can be displayed on the horizontal line without overlapping or running into each other? (Page 2-40)
A

Horizontal resolution

218
Q
  1. Gas plasma displays use approximately 200 volts to charge the electrodes, and electroluminescent displays require only how many volts? (Page 2-42)
A

20

219
Q
  1. What is the memory outside the main body of the computer (CPU) where we store programs and data for future use? (Page 2-45)
A

Secondary storage

220
Q
  1. What is the heart of any computer system? (Page 3-2)
A

Operating System

221
Q
  1. UNIX is a trademark of what company? (Page 3-2)
A

AT&T

222
Q
  1. What eliminate the need for programmers to write new programs when all they want to do is copy, print, or sort a data file? (Page 3-5)
A

Utility programs

223
Q
  1. What is the term given to arranging data records in a predefined sequence or order? (Page 3-6)
A

Sorting

224
Q
  1. What is the combining of two or more ordered files into one file? (Page 3-6)
A

Merging

225
Q
  1. What are used to generate programs to print detail and summary reports of data files? (Page 3-7)
A

Report Program Generators (RPG)

226
Q
  1. What allow the programmer to write a single instruction that is equivalent to a specified sequence of machine instructions? (Page 3-10)
A

Macroinstructions

227
Q
  1. What type of languages were developed to allow a programmer to work in a language that is close to English or mathematical notation?
A

Procedure-oriented

228
Q
  1. What was designed as a teaching language to help beginning programmers write programs? (Page 3-10)
A

BASIC

229
Q
  1. What is being used by many colleges and universities to teach programming because it is fairly easy to learn; yet is a more powerful language than BASIC? (Page 3-11)
A

PASCAL

230
Q
  1. What is a modern general-purpose language designed with the professional programmer in mind and has many unique features to aid in the implementation of large scale applications and real-time systems? (Page 3-11)
A

Ada

231
Q
  1. What is the process of planning the computer solution to a problem? (Page 3-12)
A

Programming

232
Q
  1. What is one method of pictorially representing a procedural (step-by- step) solution to a problem before you actually start to write the computer instructions required to produce the desired results? (Page 3- 14)
A

Flowcharting

233
Q
  1. Within a flowchart, what are used to specify arithmetic operations and relational conditions? (Page 3-17)
A

Graphic symbols

234
Q
  1. What is the fundamental element in program preparation? (Page 3- 22)
A

Instruction

235
Q
  1. What instructions allow comparison between variables, or between variables and constants? (Page 3-23)
A

Logic

236
Q
  1. Errors caused by faulty logic and coding mistakes are referred to as what? (Page 3-25)
A

Bugs

237
Q
  1. What is a collection of related elements or items, that when properly coded into some type of input medium, can be processed by a computer? (Page 4-1)
A

Data

238
Q
  1. Using an 8-bit code, it is possible to represent how many different characters or bit combinations? Page 4-4)
A

256

239
Q
  1. What provides an internal means for checking the validity, the correctness, of code construction? (Page 4-9)
A

Parity bit

240
Q
  1. What represents the smallest unit of data? (Page 4-10)
A

Bit

241
Q
  1. Eight bits are equal to one what? (Page 4-10)
A

Byte

242
Q
  1. What is a group of related bytes that are treated as a single addressable unit or entity in memory known as? (Page 4-17)
A

Word

243
Q
  1. What is one or more related characters that are treated as a unit of information known as? (Page 4-17)
A

Field

244
Q
  1. What is a group of related fields, all pertaining to the same subject; a person, a thing, or an event called? (Page 4-17)
A

Record

245
Q
  1. What isa collection of related records called? (Page 4-17)
A

File

246
Q
  1. Data files may be stored on or in sequential-access storage, direct- access storage, or what type of storage? (Page 4-19)
A

Random-access

247
Q
  1. What can be defined as any system composed of one or more computers and terminals? (Page 4-20)
A

Network

248
Q
  1. Various machines are linked together within a building or adjacent buildings in what type of network? (Page 4-20)
A

LAN

249
Q
  1. What type of communications channel uses the basic frequency band of radio waves and a coaxial cable? (Page 4-20)
A

Baseband

250
Q
  1. What type of networks provide for global connections and are sometimes referred to as global networks? (Page 4-21)
A

WAN

251
Q
  1. What converts the digital signal produced by your terminal or the computer to an audio signal suitable for transmission over the communications line? (Page 4-21)
A

MODEM

252
Q
  1. What is the physical link or medium that is used to carry (or transmit) data from one location to another? (Page 4-22)
A

Communications channel

253
Q
  1. Whenever data is transferred between devices, it also involves an exchange of prearranged signals known as what? (Page 4-22)
A

Handshaking

254
Q
  1. What is the term used for the specific set of rules that govern handshaking and message characters? (Page 4-22)
A

Protocol

255
Q
  1. Which type of network are the workstations in close proximity to each other, usually within the same building? (Page 1-1)
A

Local Area Network (LAN)

256
Q
  1. Which type of network are the workstations basewide as in one command connected to another command or one base connected to another base? (Page 1-1)
A

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

257
Q
  1. How many primary modes of system operation are there? (Page 1-3)
A

2

258
Q
  1. How many common situations for rebooting the system are there? (Page 1-3)
A

4

259
Q
  1. Which term refers to the process of recording events and using that information to detect usage violations or to confirm that network procedures are operating correctly? (Page 1-4)
A

Auditing

260
Q
  1. What is defined as a mechanism by which one computing element can get the attention of another element? (Page 1-4)
A

Interrupt

261
Q
  1. How many Interrupt Request Lines (IRQS) for hardware interrupts are there in a PC environment? (Page 1-4)
A

16

262
Q
  1. What is defined as a connection on the back of a computer where you connect peripherals, switches, networks, or other devices? (Page 1-5)
A

Port

263
Q
  1. Which type of hardware connection is used to send data one bit at a time and is very good for sending information over a long distance? Page 1-5)
A

Serial

264
Q
  1. Which names are reserved by DOS to reserve the first serial and parallel ports, respectively? (Page 1-6)
A

COM1 and LPT1

265
Q
  1. During the pinging process what is the ping that is sent out called? (Page 1-6)
A

Echo message

266
Q
  1. What prevents files from being updated by more than one user at a time? (Page 1-7)
A

Data Integrity

267
Q
  1. Which term refers to duplicate hardware and network facility segments that are available at all times? (Page 1-8)
A

Redundancy

268
Q
  1. What is the physical arrangement of a LAN’s components called? (Page 1-9)
A

Topology

269
Q
  1. What are the three major types of LAN configurations or topologies? (Page 1-9)
A

Star, Bus, and Ring

270
Q
  1. Which type of network is each component connected directly to the central computer or network server? (Page 1-9)
A

Star

271
Q
  1. Which type of network are all components or nodes connected to the same cable, and the far ends of this cable never meet? (Page 1-9)
A

Bus

272
Q
  1. Of all the topologies which is the least reliable because it has a single point of failure? (Page 1-10)
A

Star

273
Q
  1. What is the wiring concentrator which allows workstations to be either inserted or bypassed on the ring? (Page 1-10)
A

Multistation Access Unit (MAU)

274
Q
  1. What define how networks establish communications between elements, exchange information, and terminate communications? (Page 1-12)
A

Protocols

275
Q
  1. How many major functions do protocols have? (Page 1-12)
A

2

276
Q
  1. Which control procedure sends multiple blocks of data and returns a single acknowledgement for many blocks, thereby increasing the amount of time spent transmitting data? Page 1-12)
A

SDLC

Stands for “Synchronous Data Link Control.” SDLC is a communication protocol used for the reliable and efficient transmission of data between devices in a network. It defines a set of rules and procedures for data framing, error detection and correction, flow control, and synchronization.

277
Q
  1. What are the two principal network access methods? (Page 1-12)
A

Contention and Token passing

278
Q
  1. How many layers does the OSI model consist of? (Page 1-13)
A

7

279
Q
  1. What provides a basis for coordinating the development of standards that relate to the flexible interconnection of incompatible systems using data communications facilities? (Page 1-13)
A

Open Systems Interconnection (OS) model

280
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model is the physical layer? (Page 1-14)
A

1

281
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model is the data link layer? (Page 1-14)
A

2

282
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model is the network layer? (Page 1-14)
A

3

283
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model is the transport layer? (Page 1-15)
A

4

284
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model is the session layer? (Page 1-15)
A

5

285
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model is the presentation layer? (Page 1-15)
A

6

286
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model is the application layer? Page 1-15)
A

7

287
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model addresses the electrical, mechanical, and functional interface to the carrier? (Page 1-14)
A

Physical

288
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model provides error-free transmission of information over the physical medium? (Page 1-14)
A

Data link

289
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model decides which physical pathway the data should take? (Page 1-14)
A

Network

290
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model ensures data units are delivered error- free, in sequence, with no losses or duplications? (Page 1-15)
A

Transport

291
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model performs the functions that enable two applications to communicate across the network, performing security, name recognition, logging, administration, and other similar functions? (Page 1-15)
A

Session

292
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model provides a common representation of data that can be used between the application processes? (Page 1-1S)
A

Presentation

293
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model provides data encryption for privacy and authentication? (Page 1-15)
A

Presentation

294
Q
  1. Which layer of the OSI model represents the services that directly support users and application tasks? (Page 1-15)
A

Application

295
Q
  1. What is by far the cheapest type of transmission media? (Page 1-16)
A

Twisted-wire pairs

296
Q
  1. What are the two most common types of twisted-pair media? (Page 1-16)
A

22 and 24 gauge

297
Q
  1. What is the transmission rate of a T1 line? (Page 1-16)
A

1.5 Mbps

298
Q
  1. What is the transmission rate of a T2 line? (Page 1-16)
A

6.3 Mbps

299
Q
  1. What is the transmission rate of a T3 line? (Page 1-16)
A

46 Mbps

300
Q
  1. What is the transmission rate of a T4 line? (Page l-16)
A

281 Mbps

301
Q
  1. Coaxial cable is used extensively in local-area networks whenever the distance involved is relatively short, generally less than 2 miles for baseband LANS and how many miles for broadband LANS? (Page 1-17)
A

10

302
Q
  1. What is defined as a software package that makes it possible to implement and control a network and enables users to use the resources and services on that network? (Page 1-18)
A

Network Operating System (NOS)

303
Q
  1. What are used to secure a Local Area Network from a public network? (Page 1-18)
A

Firewalls

304
Q
  1. What are the majority of all network-related problems caused by? (Page 3-1)
A

Operator error

305
Q
  1. How many primary culprits to network malfunctions are there? (Page 3-3)
A

3

306
Q
  1. How many categories are component failures categorized into? (Page 3-3)
A

2

  1. Hard Failures: refer to abrupt and permanent failures of network components.
  2. Soft Failures:, also known as intermittent failures or transient faults, are temporary and often intermittent problems with network components.
307
Q
  1. What are the simple set of system checks called that are stored in ROM that are run when the computer is turned on? (Page 3-3)
A

Power On Self Test (POST)

308
Q
  1. Which device can be used to monitor the activity of a network and the stations on it and provides daily summaries or long-term trends of network usage and performance? (Page 3-3)
A

Network analyzer

309
Q
  1. What is the simultaneous presence of signals from twO nodes on the network referred to as? (Page 3-4)
A

Data collision

310
Q
  1. What is the hardware signal that is sent from a potential transmitter to a destination to indicate that the transmitter wishes to begin a transmission? (Page 3-5)
A

Request To Send (RTS)

311
Q
  1. What is the hardware signal that is sent from a receiver to a transmitter to indicate that the transmitter can begin sending? (Page 3-5)
A

Clear To Send (CTS)

312
Q
  1. Which term is used to describe the random electrical signals that become part of a transmission, that serve to make the signal component of the transmission more difficult to identify? (Page 3-5)
A

Noise

313
Q
  1. How is the Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) usually expressed? (Page 3- 5)
A

dB

314
Q
  1. What can be used to determine how longa cable segment can be before the signal loss is unacceptably high? (Page 3-5)
A

Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR)

315
Q
  1. What is defined as the decrease in signal strength, measured in decibels (dB) per 100 feet? (Page 3-6)
A

Attenuation

316
Q
  1. What is defined as interference in the form of a signal from a neighboring cable or circuit? (Page 3-6)
A

Crosstalk

317
Q
  1. What is used to try to eliminate the effects of certain types of distortions on the signal? (Page 3-6)
A

Line conditioning

318
Q
  1. Which device is used to test the integrity of a section of cable before the cable is even unwound? (Page 3-6)
A

Time Domain Reflectometry (TDR)

319
Q
  1. Which type of connector uses two prongs to pierce the cable to make its connection? (Page 3-7)
A

Vampire tap

320
Q
  1. No individual will be given access to classified information or be assigned to sensitive duties unless a favorable personnel security determination has been made regarding his/her loyalty, reliability and these determinations? (Page 6-1) trustworthiness. What is conducted to gather information pertinent to
A

Personnel Security Investigation (PSI)

321
Q
  1. What conducts (or controls the conduct of) all PSIs for the DON? (Page 6-1)
A

Office of Personnel Management (OPM)

322
Q
  1. PSIS will not normally be requested for any civilian or military personnel who will be retired, resigned, or separated with less than what amount of service remaining? (Page 6-1)
A

One year

323
Q
  1. What includes a search of DoD’s Defense Clearance and Investigations Index (DCI), OPM’s Reimbursable Suitability Investigation (RSI), Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) investigative and criminal history files including a technical fingerprint search and files of other federal government agency records as appropriate to the individual’s background (Immigration and Naturalization Service (INS), Office of Personnel Management (OPM), Central Intelligence Agency (CIA), etc.)? (Page 6-2)
A

National Agency Check (NAC)

324
Q
  1. A technical fingerprint search of the FBI files is conducted as part of a NAC, except during a what? (Page 6-2)
A

SSBI-PR

Single-Scope Background Investigation-Periodic Reinvestigation (SSBI-PR)

325
Q
  1. What is the basic EO 10450 investigative standard for federal government civil service employment suitability determinations? (Page 6-2)
A

NACI

The National Agency Check with Inquiries (NACI) is a background investigation process used by the U.S. federal government to assess the suitability of individuals for federal employment, especially positions that do not require access to classified information or sensitive national security data. The NACI process is a part of the broader framework established by Executive Order 10450.

326
Q
  1. A NACI consists of a NAC plus Written Inquiries to former employers and supervisors, to references, and to schools covering the previous how many years? (Page 6-2)
A

Five

327
Q
  1. The scope of an SSBI covers the most recent 10 years of the subject’s life or from the 18th birthday, whichever is the shorter period; however, at least the last how many years will be covered? (Page 6-4)
A

2

328
Q
  1. SSBI-PRs are conducted on personnel whose clearance/access to SCI or Top Secret information is based on an investigation that is how many years old or more? (Page 6-4)
A

Five

329
Q
  1. A NACLC is conducted at 10-year and how many-year intervals to support continued access to Secret and Confidential classified information, respectively? (Page 6-5)
A

15

330
Q
  1. What is conducted for applicants/potential nominees for SCI access? (Page 6-6)
A

Prenomination interview

331
Q
  1. The investigative basis for Top Secret clearance eligibility is a favorably completed SSBI, SSBI-PR or what else? (Page 6-6)
A

PPR

Phased Periodic Reinvestigation

Other:
Personal and Professional Reference

332
Q
  1. For those who have continuous assignment or access to Top Secret, critical sensitive positions, SCI, Presidential Support Activities, COSMIC Top Secret, LAA, PRP, IT-1 duties or SIOP-ESL, the SSBI must be updated every how many years by a PR? (Page 6-6)
A

Five

333
Q
  1. The investigative basis for Secret or Confidential clearance eligibility is a favorably completed NACLC or what else? (Page 6-6)
A

ANACI

“Access National Agency Check with Inquiries.”

334
Q
  1. The authority to take action to deny acceptance or retention in the Navy and Marine Corps, except for loyalty reasons, is vested in the what along with the CMC? (Page 6-7)
A

CHNAVPERS

335
Q
  1. A previously conducted PSI valid for security clearance purposes may sufice for appointment or commissioning purposes. A new investigation is required upon reentry of officers and enlisted members if there has been a break in active service greater than how many months?
A

24

336
Q
  1. The investigative basis for assignment to a designated Special-Sensitive1T-DAA position is a favorably completed and adjudicated SSBI, SSBI-PR, or PPR, in accordance with what? (Page 6-8)
A

DCID 6/4

Director of Central Intelligence Directive 6/4

337
Q
  1. The investigative basis for assignment to a designated Non-Critical Sensitive/AT-II position is a favorably completed and adjudicated ANACI for civilians or what for military/industry employees? (Page 6- 8)
A

NACLC

NAC National Agency Check
NAC with Local Agency Check and Credit

338
Q
  1. What is the investigative basis for assignment to a Non-Sensitive/1T- II? (Page 6-8)
A

NACI

339
Q
  1. An ANACI or SSBI is required for reappointment to a federal government sensitive position if there has been a break in service greater than how many months? (Page 6-8)
A

24

340
Q
  1. The authority to deny appointment or terminate employment of civilian personnel for loyalty reasons is vested solely in the what? (Page 6-8)
A

SECNAV

341
Q
  1. What is the minimum requirement for civilian summer hires in all designated non-critical sensitive positions including summer hires, intermittent and seasonal appointees, or work/study and cooperative education program employees? Page 6-9)
A

ANACI

Access National Agency Check with Inquiries

342
Q
  1. Investigative requirements for DON contractor personnel requiring access to classified information are managed under the what? (Page 6- 10)
A

National Industrial Security Program (NISP)

343
Q
  1. Requests for investigation of contractor personnel for security clearance eligibility are processed by the OPM and adjudicated by what? (Page 6-10)
A

Defense Industrial Security Clearance Office (DISCO)

344
Q
  1. What is the adjudicative authority for all DON contractor personnel requiring SCI access eligibility? (Page 6-10)
A

DON CAF

Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility.

345
Q
  1. Contractor employees who require access to DON controlled/restricted areas, NOT involving sensitive information or IT equipment and not involving access to classified information will be processed under what DON Program? (Page 6-11)
A

Facility Access Determination (FAD)

346
Q
  1. The designated security manager of a command must have a favorably adjudicated SSBI or SSBI-PR completed within the past how many years? (Page 6-11)
A

Five

347
Q
  1. NAF employees assigned to positions of trust within DoD will be the subject of a favorably adjudicated NACI completed no greater than how many months prior to appointment? (Page 6-12)
A

24

348
Q
  1. Employees assigned to IT-DAA designated positions require a favorably adjudicated SSBI or SSBI-PR to what standards? (Page 6-12)
A

DCID 6/4

349
Q
  1. Personnel operating a vehicle or providing security to a vehicle transporting Category I, II or Confidential AA&E require a favorably adjudicated NACLC or what else? (Page 6-13)
A

ANACI

350
Q
  1. What instruction provides the standards of individual reliability required for personnel performing duties involving nuclear weapons and components? (Page 6-13)
A

SECNAVINST 5510.35A

351
Q
  1. What establishes, to the extent possible, uniform and consistent personnel security investigative requirements? (Page 6-14)
A

Executive Order 12968

352
Q
  1. The investigative requirement for access to SCI is a favorably adjudicated what? (Page 6-15)
A

SSBI

353
Q
  1. Access to SIOP-ESI requires a Top Secret security clearance eligibility based on a favorably adjudicated SSBI. The SSBI need not have been completed within the past five years to grant access to SIOP- ESI, providing a new SSBI or SSBI-PR is initiated within how many days? (Page 6-15)
A

30

Single Integrated Operational Plan - Extremely Sensitive Information

354
Q
  1. What instruction prescribes the policies and procedures for the nomination, screening, selection, and continued evaluation of DON military and civilian personnel and contractor employees assigned to or used in PSA? Personal Security Actions (Page 6-15)
A

SECNAVINST 5312.12B

355
Q
  1. Continued assignment to a NATO COSMIC billet requires SSBI-PR every how many years? (Page 6-16)
A

Five

356
Q
  1. What is the federal government standard automated request tool for personnel security investigations (PSI)? (Page 6-20)
A

E-Qip

357
Q
  1. Within DoD, e-QIP will only be accessed through what? (Page 6-20)
A

JPAS

358
Q
  1. What is DoD’s electronic PSI request tool developed to support Defense Security Service (DSS) investigation request processing has been authorized for use by OPM in the interim, while awaiting e-Qip deployment? (Page 6-20)
A

Electronic Personnel Security Questionnaire (EPSQ)

359
Q
  1. What form is the currently approved method of requesting PSI products from OPM to support determinations of eligibility for assignment to sensitive national security positions or access to classified national security information? (Page 6-20)
A

Standard Form 86

360
Q
  1. What is required to prove or disprove allegations concerning an individual on whom adverse information has been developed and received by the DON CAF subsequent to a favorable security eligibility determination? (Page 6-22)
A

RSI

In the context of DON CAF (Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility), “RSI” often refers to “Request for Security Investigation.”

361
Q
  1. What is the investigative service provider for all DoD PSIs? (Page 6- 22)
A

OPM

Office of Personnel Management

362
Q
  1. What must be completed on each first-term enlistee to support a military suitability determination? (Page 6-24)
A

NACLC

National Agency Check with Local Agency Check and Credit Check

363
Q
  1. What applies uniform, consistent, and cost-effective policies and procedures to the classification, safeguarding, transmission and destruction of classified information? (Page 1-1)
A

Information Security Program (ISP)

364
Q
  1. Who bears executive responsibility for the security of the Nation, which includes the authority to classify information for the protection of the national defense and foreign relations of the U.S.? (Page 1-2)
A

President of the United States (POTUS)

365
Q
  1. What provides overall policy guidance on information security? (Page 1-2)
A

National Security Council (NSC)

366
Q
  1. Who as the chairman of the National Foreign Intelligence Board (NFIB), issues instructions in the form of DCI directives or policy statements affecting intelligence policies and activities? (Page 1-2)
A

Director of Central Intelligence (DCI)

367
Q
  1. What is the primary internal security agency of the U.S. Government? Page 1-2)
A

Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)

368
Q
  1. Who is the investigative component of the DON and is the sole liaison with the FBI on internal security matters? (Page 1-3)
A

Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service (DIRNCIS)

369
Q
  1. Who is the Department of Defense (DoD) senior official charged by the Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) with responsibility for developing policies and procedures governing information and personnel security, including atomic energy policy programs? (Page 1-3)
A

Under Secretary of Defense (Intelligence) (USD)(I)

370
Q
  1. Who is designated as the senior official responsible for administering the portion of the DoD ISP pertaining to Special Access Programs (SAP), the National Disclosure Policy (NDP), Foreign Government Information (FGI) (including North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) information), and security arrangements for international Programs? (Page 1-3)
A

Under Secretary of Defense for Policy (USDP)

371
Q
  1. What provides centralized coordination and direction for signals intelligence and communications security for the U.S. Government? (Page 1-3)
A

National Security Agency (NSA)

372
Q
  1. The authority to lower any COMSEC security standards within the DoD rests with the what? (Page 1-3)
A

SECDEF

373
Q
  1. What is responsible for the direction and control of SCI programs established by DOD components? (Page 1-3)
A

Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

374
Q
  1. Who is responsible to the SECNAV for establishing, directing, and overseeing an effective DON ISP, and for implementing and complying with all directives issued by higher authority ? (Page 1-4)
A

CNO

375
Q
  1. What is responsible for investigative, law enforcement, physical security, technical surveillance countermeasures, and counterintelligence (CI) policy and programs within the DON? (Page 1-5)
A

DIRNCIS

376
Q
  1. Who is responsible to the ASN ( The Assistant Secretary of the Navy)(RD&A) (Research, Development and Acquisition) for implementing policies and managing DON participation in international efforts concerning RD&A? (Page 1-5)
A

Director, Navy International Programs Office (Navy IPO)

377
Q
  1. Who is a Senior Official of the Intelligence Community (SOIC) and administers the SCI (Sensitive Compartmented Information) program for the Navy, including non-Service DON entities? (Page 1-5)
A

Director of Naval Intelligence (DNI)

378
Q
  1. Who is a Senior Official of the Intelligence Community (SOIC) and administers the SCI program for the Marine Corps? (Page 1-5)
A

Director of Intelligence of the Marine Corps

379
Q
  1. Who is responsible for DON policies and implementation of the DoD Information Assurance (IA) program? (Page 1-6)
A

Department of the Navy, Chief Information Officer (CIO)

380
Q
  1. Who is responsible for implementing the DON CIO policies within the DON? (Page 1-6)
A

Naval Network Warfare Command (NAVNETWARCOM)s mission is to execute, under C10F Operational Control, tactical-level C2 of Navy networks and to leverage
Joint space capabilities for Navy and Joint operations.
NAVNETWARCOM operates and defends the Navys portion of the
DoDIN (Department of Defense Information Networks), current Information Condition (INFOCON) level, and issues tasking orders and guidance to the Fleet in the form of Communications Tasking Orders (CTOs) and Naval Telecommunications Directives (NTDs).

381
Q
  1. Who as the designated SSO for the Commander, NETWARCOM, is responsible for signals intelligence activities and for administration of SCI programs within the DON cryptologic community? (Page 1-6)
A

NETWARCOM Security Directorate

382
Q
  1. Who administers the DON CMS program and acts as the central office of records for all DON CMS accounts? (Page 1-6)
A

Director, COMSEC Material System (DCMS)

383
Q
  1. Who administers the DON ISP (Information Security Program) within the U.S. Marine Corps? (Page 1-6)
A

Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC)

384
Q
  1. Who is responsible for implementation of CI and human intelligence programs and the ISP? Page 1-6)
A

CMC (Code ARS)

385
Q
  1. Who as Special Security Officer (SSO) for the U.S. Marine Corps, is responsible for guidance and implementation of SCI programs? (Page 1-6)
A

CMC (Code IOS)

386
Q
  1. What may be granted to accommodate a long-term or permanent inability to meet a specific requirement? (Page 1-7)
A

Exception

387
Q
  1. COMSEC information is governed by what reference? (Page 1-8)
A

EKMS-1

388
Q
  1. Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) is governed by what reference and other national, DoD and DON issuances? (Page 1-8)
A

DoD 5105.21-M-1

389
Q
  1. The Under Secretary of the Navy must formally approve the establishment of each SAP (Special Access Program) in coordination with the what? (Page 1-8)
A

Deputy SECDEF

390
Q
  1. SIOP and SIOP-ESI are governed by what reference which is issued by the CNO? (Page 1-8)
A

OPNAVINST S5511.35K

OPNAVINST S5511.35K, Policy for Safeguarding the Single
Integrated Operational Plan (SIOP)

Extremely Sensitive Information

391
Q
  1. Classified and unclassified NNPI (Naval Nuclear Propulsion Information) is governed by what reference? (Page 1-8)
A

NAVSEAINST 5511.32C

392
Q
  1. What is information received from one or more foreign governments or international organizations as classified or expected to be held in confidence? (Page 1-8)
A

FGI

393
Q
  1. NATO0 classified and unclassified information is governed by what reference? (Page 1-9)
A

USSAN 1-69

394
Q
  1. What is defined and governed by laws, international agreements, EOs, and regulations that address the identification, marking, protection, handling, transmission, transportation, and destruction? (Page 1-9)
A

Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI)

395
Q
  1. The National Industrial Security Program (NISP) was established by what reference to safeguard classified information released to industry in a manner that is equivalent to its protection within the executive branch? (Page 1-9)
A

Executive Order 12829

396
Q
  1. Which ranks will personnel automatically advance to without local action so long as they meet the minimum time in rate (TIR) requirements? (Page 1-3)
A

E2 and E3

397
Q
  1. What are the competitive examinations used as a part of that E4 through E7 advancement candidates take? (Page 1-3)
A

FMS
Final Multiple Score

398
Q
  1. What does advancement to E7, E8, and E9 require? (Page 1-5)
A

Selection board

399
Q
  1. Which advancement candidates are designated SBE Selection Board Eligible on the basis of their CO/OIC Commanding Officer Officer in Charge recommendation and their TIR Time in Rate eligibility? (Page 1-5)
A

E8 and E9

400
Q
  1. What convenes the annual selection boards? (Page 1-5)
A

Chief of Naval Personnel (CHNAVPERS)

401
Q
  1. How often are Special Boards normally held, or as required, to consider any member who was eligible but not properly considered by the last regular board? (Page 1-5)
A

Annually

402
Q
  1. How many months after the regular board convened do applicants have to submit a request for a special enlisted selection board to NAVPERSCOM? (Page 1-6)
A

9

403
Q
  1. What is the sole approval authority for convening special enlisted selection boards? (Page 1-6)
A

CHNAVPERS

404
Q
  1. Which selection board requires E6 personnel to pass the E7 advancement-in-rate examination prior to submitting a package? (Page 1-6)
A

LDO

405
Q
  1. Which instruction provides information on the selection of senior enlisted personnel for promotion to commissioned officer status? (Page 1-7)
A

OPNAVINST 1420.1A

406
Q
  1. What is responsible for developing, publishing, and distributing Navy-wide advancement-in-rate examinations for the purpose of testing and rank-ordering personnel who are qualified for advancement? (Page 1-10)
A

NETPDTC

Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center

407
Q
  1. No later than how many days prior to the first AEDC will NETPDTC publish a quarterly schedule with the exact dates of upcoming AEDCs? (Page 1-11)
A

120

408
Q
  1. How many subject matter expert SME’s will usually be designated by NPDC to participate in the rating AEDC? (Page 1-11)
A

6

409
Q
  1. No later than how many days prior to the scheduled AEDC should SME nominations be received by NETPDTC? (Page 1-12)
A

45

410
Q
  1. Approximately how long prior to the commencement of the AEDC will NETPDTC provide accounting data and arrange lodging for the SME’s? (Page 1-12)
A

2-weeks

411
Q
  1. How many years for most ratings are Topic/Sub-topic Subject/Sub- Subject Matrixes planned out? (Page 1-13)
A

2

412
Q
  1. What is the most important advancement eligibility requirement? (Page 2-2)
A

CO/OIC recommendation

413
Q
  1. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E1-E2? (Page 2-2)
A

9

414
Q
  1. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E2-E3? (Page 2-2)
A

9

415
Q
  1. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E3-E4? (Page 2-2)
A

6

416
Q
  1. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E4-E5? (Page 2-2)
A

12

417
Q
  1. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from ES-E6? (Page 2-2)
A

36

418
Q
  1. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E6-E7?
A

36

419
Q
  1. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E7-E8? (Page 2-2)
A

36

420
Q
  1. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E8-E9? (Page 2-2)
A

36

421
Q
  1. What publication defines the path of advancement? (Page 2-2)
A

NAVPERS 18068F

422
Q
  1. What form should be used to enter the actual designation date for rating conversions in the same paygrade? (Page 2-2)
A

NAVPERS 1070/604

423
Q
  1. Which MILPERSMAN article contains guidance on personnel designations other than those graduating from “A” school? (Page 2-2)
A

MILPERSMAN 1440-050

424
Q
  1. What contain procedures for establishing eligibility for entry into closed/open ratings with regards to Rating Entry for General Apprentices (REGA) and Career Reenlistment Objectives (CREO), and Enlisted Career Management Objectives (ECMO) ALNAVRESFORS for drilling Navy Reservists? (Page 2-2)
A

NAVADMINs

425
Q
  1. How long prior to selection board convening must personnel who are Selection Board Eligible submit for a change of rating in order to receive a review by the selection board in the new rating? (Page 2-3)
A

1 month

426
Q
  1. MILPERSMAN 1440-010 along with which other article contain the methods for changing from one path of advancement to another? (Page 2-3)
A

1160-090

427
Q
  1. What authority is required to participate in Navy-wide examinations for change in rating? (Page 2-3)
A

NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)

428
Q
  1. Which type of alien has been lawfully admitted to the U.S. for permanent residence under an immigration visa? (Page 2-4)
A

Immigrant alien

429
Q
  1. How many years is the naturalization residency requirement reduced down to after 3 years of honorable service in the U.S. Armed Forces? (Page 2-5)
A

3

430
Q
  1. Which MILPERSMAN article contains naturalization instructions for servicemembers? (Page 2-5)
A

MILPERSMAN 5352-010

431
Q
  1. Which type of aliens are defined as other than immigrant aliens? (Page 2-6)
A

Foreign nationals

432
Q
  1. Which valid certificate must all ACs possess? (Page 2-6)
A

FAA 7220-1

433
Q
  1. Which instruction contains PC (Note: PC’s don’t exist anymore so this would probably be LS’s) rating entry requirements? (Page 2-6)
A

OPNAVINST 5112.6C

434
Q
  1. Reserve personnel in what status are NOT eligible for participation in a Navy-wide advancement examination? (Page 2-8)
A

Records Review

435
Q
  1. Except for Fleet Reservists recalled to active duty, E6, E7, and E8 members who have submitted formal written requests for transfer to the FLTRES are ineligible for further advancement consideration, unless the request is mandated by what? (Page 2-9)
A

HYT
High Year Tenure

436
Q
  1. Which mobilized personnel are not required to complete the LDP requirement for advancement due to the limited duration of active duty? (Page 2-11)
A

Individual Ready Reserve (IRR)

437
Q
  1. Which MILPERSMAN article designates that non-designated personnel who have an “A” school request approved are not authorized to participate in an advancement examination for any other rating? (Page 2-11)
A

MILPERSMAN 1440-050

438
Q
  1. Personnel in what paygrades that are ordered to a Class “A” school incorporating a lengthy course of instruction shall be converted in rating at an equal paygrade after successful completion of the basic or A-1 phase of that course of instruction? (Page 2-12)
A

E1 through E5

439
Q
  1. Which date is the advancement candidate’s Service in Paygrade (SIPG) computed for advancement purposes? (Page 2-13)
A

TED
Terminal Eligibility Date

440
Q
  1. What does the Department of Defense (DOD) prescribe as the minimum active service a person must have to compete as a regular candidate for advancement? (Page 2-13)
A

TAFMS
Total Active Federal Military Service

441
Q
  1. What is the date from which an advancement candidate’s total service in paygrade is considered to have commenced for the purpose of computing advancement eligibility for the next higher paygrade? (Page 2-15)
A

TIR

442
Q
  1. What is defined as those members not under a Navy contract at time of reentry to naval service or Navy Reservists attached to the IRR? (Page 2-15)
A

Break in service

443
Q
  1. A break in service of what duration for NAVETs returning to active duty or to Drilling Reserve in the same paygrade held at discharge, release, or transfer to the IRR will have an adjusted TIR date? (Page 2-15)
A

24 hours

444
Q
  1. Lost time exceeding how many days as a result of an unauthorized absence, sick-misconduct, misconduct, or confinement is not creditable in computing service in paygrade? (Page 2-18)
A

15

445
Q
  1. What paygrades (one paygrade only) do COs/OICS have the authority to reinstate members to anytime after reduction in rate, without referral to higher authority? (Page 2-19)
A

E2 or E3

446
Q
  1. What holds the only reinstatement authority to reinstate E4 through E6 paygrades? (Page 2-20)
A

NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)

IT ALL Knowledge (14 decks)

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