IT Advancement Exam Flashcards
(446 cards)
1
Q
1. What is the International Aeronautical Emergency Frequency? (Page 6-1)
A
121.5 MHz
2
Q
- What is the Distress and Emergency Frequency? (Page 6-1)
A
243.0 MHz
3
Q
- Which frequencies are used to supplement the carrier frequency 2182 kHz for DISTRESS and SAFETY purposes and for call and reply? (Page 6-3)
A
4125 kHz and 6215 kHz
4
Q
- Which frequency is for international use by the maritime mobile VHF radiotelephone service as a distress, safety and calling frequency? (Page 6 3)
A
156.8 MHz
5
Q
- Which frequency is for world-wide use when communicating with enroute aircraft participating in SAR operations? (Page 6-4)
A
123.1 MHz
6
Q
- Which term means “movement through a medium”? (Page l1-2)
A
Propagation
7
Q
- What can be defined as a disturbance (sound, light, radio waves) that moves through a medium (air, water, vacuum)? (Page 1-3)
A
Wave
8
Q
- What can be defined as a recurring disturbance advancing through space with or without the use of a physical medium? (Page 1-3)
A
Wave motion
9
Q
- Which type of waves are water waves known as because the motion of the water is up and down, or at right angles to the direction in which the waves are traveling? (Page 1-6)
A
Transverse
10
Q
- Which type of waves are waves in which the disturbance takes place in the direction of propagation? (Page 1-7)
A
Longitudinal
11
Q
- What is the vehicle through which the wave travels from one point to the next? (Page 1-8)
A
Medium
12
Q
- What is the position called that a particle of matter would have if it were not disturbed by wave motion? (Page 1-9)
A
Reference line
13
Q
- What is the distance in space occupied by one cycle of a radio wave at any given instant? (Page 1-11)
A
Wavelength
14
Q
- Which unit of measurement are wavelengths expressed in? (Page 1- 11)
A
Meters
15
Q
- Which wave property gives a relative indication of the amount of energy the wave transmits? (Page 1-11)
A
Amplitude
16
Q
- What is a continuous series of waves called having the same amplitude and wavelength? (Page 1-11)
A
Wave train
17
Q
- The number of vibrations, or cycles, of a wave train in a unit of time is called the frequency of the wave train and is measured in what? (Page1-11)
A
Hertz
18
Q
- Which term refers to the number of occurrences that take place in one second? (Page 1-11)
A
Hertz
19
Q
- Which propagation property is the rate at which the disturbance travels through the medium, or the velocity with which the crest of the wave moves along? (Page 1-12)
A
Velocity
20
Q
- What is the time in which one complete vibratory cycle of events occurs? (Page 1-13)
A
Period
21
Q
- What is a wave called that is directed toward the surface of the mirror? (Page 1-17)
A
Incident
22
Q
- What is the angle between the reflected wave and the normal called? (Page 1-17)
A
Angle of reflection
23
Q
- Which law states that “The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection’”? (Page 1-18)
A
Law of reflection
24
Q
- What is the bending of the wave path when the waves meet an obstruction? (Page 1-21)
A
Diffraction
25
20. What is the apparent change in frequency or pitch when a sound source moves either toward or away from the listener, or when the listener moves either toward or away from the sound source? (Page 1- 21)
Doppler Effect
26
21. How does sound travel through a medium? (Page 1-22)
Wave motion
27
22. In the study of physics, what is defined as a range of compression- wave frequencies to which the human ear is sensitive? (Page 1-23)
Sound
28
23. Which type of sounds are capable of being heard by the human ear? (Page 1-23)
Sonics
29
24. The Navy has set an arbitrary upper limit for sonics at 10,000 hertz and a lower limit at what? (Page 1-23)
15 hertz
30
25. What is it standard practice to refer to sounds above 10,000 hertz as? (Page 1-23)
Ultrasonic
31
26. What are sounds below 15 hertz known as? (Page 1-23)
Infrasonic
32
27. How many basic elements for transmission and reception of sound must be present before a sound can be produced? (Page 1-23)
Three
1. **Source of Sound**: This is the origin of the sound, where vibrations are generated. It could be something like a vibrating vocal cord for human speech, a musical instrument's strings, or the diaphragm in a microphone.
2. **Medium for Transmission**: Sound requires a medium through which it can travel. Sound waves are essentially vibrations that propagate through a material medium, such as air, water, or solids. In space, where there is a vacuum, sound cannot propagate because there is no medium to carry the vibrations.
3. **Receiver**: There needs to be a receiver or a "listener" to perceive the sound. This can be a human ear, a microphone, or some other sensor capable of detecting and converting the sound waves back into electrical signals or sensory perception.
These three elements work together in a chain: the source generates vibrations, these vibrations travel through the medium as sound waves, and the receiver picks up and interprets these waves to produce sound that we can perceive or record.
33
28. Which two general groups may sounds be broadly classified into? (Page 1-26)
Noise or Tones
34
29. Sound has three basic characteristics: pitch, intensity, and what else? (Page 1-27)
Quality
35
30. Which term is used to describe the frequency of a sound? (Page 1- 27)
Pitch
36
31. What is a measure of the sound energy of a wave? (Page 1-28)
Intensity
37
32. What is the sensation the intensity (and sometimes frequency) the sound wave produces on the ear? (Page 1-28)
Loudness
38
33. What are the two basic physical properties that govern the velocity of sound through the medium? (Page 1-30)
Elasticity and Density
39
34. What is the ability of a strained body to recover its shape after deformation? (Page 1-30)
Elasticity
40
35. What property of a medium or substance is the mass per unit volume of the medium or substance? (Page 1-30)
Density
41
36. What is the velocity in FPS that sound will travel through air at 32 degrees F? (Page 1-30)
1087
42
37. What is the science of sound referred to as? (Page l-31)
Acoustics
43
38. What is the reflection of the original sound wave as it bounces off a distant surface called? (Page 1-31)
Echo
44
39. In empty rooms or other confined spaces, sound may be reflected several times to cause what is known as what? (Page 1-33)
Reverberation
45
40. What is any disturbance, man-made or natural, that causes an undesirable response or the degradation of a wave referred to as? (Page 1-33)
Interference
46
41. What is the most complex sound wave that can be produced? (Page 1-34)
Noise
47
42. What is light a form of? (Page 1-35)
Electromagnetic radiation
48
43. Current light theory says that light is made up of very small packets of electromagnetic energy called what? (Page 1-36)
Photons
49
44. Approximately how many miles per second does light travel? (Page 1-36)
186000
50
45. What is a large volume of light called? (Page 1-37)
Beam
51
46. What is a narrow volume of light called? (Page 1-37)
Pencil
52
47. Which type of substance is one through which you can see clearly? Page 1-39)
Transparent
53
48. What are substances called through which some light rays can pass but through which objects cannot be seen clearly because the rays are diffused? (Page 1-39)
Translucent
54
49. Which year did Ole Roemer discover that light travels approximately 186,000 miles per second in space? (Page 1-42)
1675
55
50. How many times in one second can a light beam circle the earth?(Page 1-42)
7.5
56
51. Which term is used to designate the entire range of electromagnetic waves arranged in order of their frequencies? (Page 1-47)
Spectrum
57
52. What is a conductor or a set of conductors used either to radiate electromagnetic energy into space or to collect this energy from space? (Page 1-49)
Antenna
58
53. Which two primary components does an electromagnetic wave consist of? (Page 1-50)
Electric and Magnetic field
59
54. What is the smallest unit of radiant energy that makes up light waves and radio waves? (Page 1-61)
Photon
60
55. Which units are used for measuring the wavelength of light? (Page 1-61)
Angstrom
61
56. What are the primary colors of light? (Page 1-61)
Red, green, and blue
62
57. What are the complementary colors of light? Page 1-61)
Magenta, yellow, and cyan
63
1. Which two basic fields are associated with every antenna? (Page 2-2)
Induction and Radiation
64
2. Which field is associated with the energy stored in the antenna? (Page 2-2)
Induction
65
3. Which type of antenna has an electrical length equal to half the wavelength of the signal being transmitted? (Page 2-5)
Half-wave
66
4. What is an energy wave called that is generated by a transmitter? (Page 2-7)
Radio wave
67
5. What is the basic shape of the wave generated by a transmitter? (Page 2-7)
Sine wave
68
6. What is the number of cycles of a sine wave that are completed in 1 second known as? (Page 2-7)
Frequency
69
7. The frequencies falling between 3 kHz and what are called radio frequencies (abbreviated rf) since they are commonly used in radio communications? (Page 2-7)
300 GHZ
70
8. The usable radio-frequency range is roughly 10 kilohertz to what? (Page 2-7)
100 gigahertz
71
9. What is the VLF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
3 to 30 KHz
72
10. What is the LF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
30 to 300 KHz
73
11. What is the MF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
300 to 3000 KHz
74
12. What is the HF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
3 to 30 MHz
75
13. What is the VHF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
30 to 300 MHz
76
14. What is the UHF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
300 to 3000 MHZ
77
15. What is the SHF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
3 to 30 GHz
78
16. What is the EHF frequency range? (Page 2-8)
30 to 300 GHZ
79
17. Any frequency that is a whole number multiple of a smaller basic frequency is known as what property of that basic frequency? (Page 2-8)
Harmonic
80
18. What is the property of a radio wave which is simply the amount of time required for the completion of one full cycle? (Page 2-8)
Period
81
19. What is the space called occupied by one full cycle of a radio wave at any given instant? (Page 2-8)
Wavelength
82
20. The velocity (or speed) of a radio wave radiated into free space by a transmitting antenna is equal to the speed of light which is how many miles per second? (Page 2-8)
186000
83
21. Where must the receiving antenna be located for maximum absorption of energy from the electromagnetic fields? (Page 2-12)
Plane of polarization
84
22. Troposphere, Stratosphere, along with what else are the three separate regions, or layers that the Earth's atmosphere is divided into? (Page 2-17)
ionosphere
85
23. The troposphere is the portion of the Earth's atmosphere that extends from the surface of the Earth to a height of about 3.7 miles (6 km) at the North Pole or the South Pole and how many miles at the equator? (Page 2-18)
11.2
86
24. Which atmosphere layer has relatively little effect on radio waves because it is a relatively calm region with little or no temperature changes? (Page 2-19)
Stratosphere
87
25. The Ionosphere extends upward from about 31.1 miles to a height of about how many miles? (Page 2-19)
250
88
26. What is the most important region of the atmosphere for long distance point-to-point communications? (Page 2-19)
Ionosphere
89
27. What are the two principal ways in which electromagnetic (radio) energy travels from a transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna? (Page 2-9)
Ground and Sky waves
90
28. The surface wave is impractical for long distance transmissions at frequencies above what frequency? (Page 2-22)
2 megahertz
91
29. Which frequency band is used for sky wave propagation? (Page 2- 24)
High Frequency (HF)
92
30. What is the process known as of upsetting electrical neutrality? (Page 2-24)
ionization
93
31. What occurs when the free electrons and positive ions collide with each other? (Page 2-25)
Recombination
94
32. How many layers is the Ionosphere composed of? (Page 2-25)
Three
95
33. Each ionospheric layer has a maximum frequency at which radio waves can be transmitted vertically and refracted back to Earth which is known as what? (Page 2-29)
Critical frequency
96
34. What is the distance from the transmitter to the point where the sky wave is first returned to Earth? (Page 2-32)
Skip distance
97
35. What is a zone of silence between the point where the ground wave becomes too weak for reception and the point where the sky wave is first returned to Earth? (Page 2-32)
Skip zone
98
36. What results in the loss of energy of a radio wave and has a pronounced effect on both the strength of received signals and the ability to communicate over long distances? (Page 2-34)
Absorption
99
37. Fading on ionospheric circuits is mainly a result of what? (Page 2- 35)
Multipath propagation
100
38. In what practice are two transmitters and two receivers used, each pair tuned to a different frequency, with the same information being transmitted simultaneously over both frequencies? (Page 2-36)
Frequency diversity
101
39. When a wide band of frequencies is transmitted simultaneously, each frequency will vary in the amount of fading. What is this variation called? (Page 2-36)
Selective fading
102
40. The combined effects of absorption, ground reflection loss, and what else account for most of the energy losses of radio transmissions propagated by the ionosphere? (Page 2-37)
Free space loss
103
41. There is little natural interference above what frequency? Page 2- 39)
30 megahertz
104
42. How many main classes can the regular variations that affect the extent of ionization in the ionosphere be divided into? (Page 2-40)
Four
105
43. What are responsible for variations in the ionization level of the ionosphere? (Page 2-41)
Sunspots
106
44. Long distance propagation of hf radio waves is almost totally "blanked out" when what occurs? (Page 2-43)
Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance (SID)
107
45. An ionospheric storm that is associated with sunspot activity may begin anytime from 2 days before an active sunspot crosses the central meridian of the sun until how many days after it passes the central meridian? (Page 2-43)
Four
108
46. For a given angle of incidence and time of day, there is a maximum frequency that can be used for communications between two given locations. What is this frequency known as? (Page 2-44)
Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)
109
47. Raindrops cause greater attenuation by scattering than by absorption at frequencies above what? (Page 2-48)
100 megahertz
110
48. Fog can cause serious attenuation by absorption at frequencies above what? (Page 2-48)
2 gigahertz
111
49. What is the condition when layers of warm air are formed above layers of cool air known as? (Page 2-49)
Temperature inversion
112
50. As the lowest region of the Earth's atmosphere, the troposphere extends from the Earth's surface to a height of slightly over how many miles? (Page 2-51)
7
113
51. What region does virtually all weather phenomena occur in? (Page 2-51)
Troposphere
114
52. Radio waves of frequencies below what normally have wavelengths longer than the size of weather turbulences? (Page 2-51)
30 megahertz
115
53. The usable frequency range for tropospheric scattering is from about 100 megahertz to what? (Page 2-51)
10 gigahertz
116
54. A correctly designed tropospheric scatter circuit will provide highly reliable service for distances ranging from 50 miles to how many miles? (Page 2-53)
500
117
1. Which two basic classifications are most practical transmitting antennas divided into? (Page 4-3)
Hertz and Marconi
118
2. Which type of antennas operate with one end grounded and are mounted perpendicular to the Earth or to a surface acting as a ground? (Page 4 3)
Marconi
119
3. Hertz antennas are generally used for frequencies above what? (Page 4-3)
2 megahertz
120
4. Which three parts does a complete antenna system consist of? (Page 4-4)
Coupling device, feeder, and antenna
121
5. What is defined as a conductor or group of conductors used either for radiating electromagnetic energy into space or for collecting it from space? (Page 4-5)
Antenna
122
6. What is the interchangeability of the same antenna for transmitting and receiving known as? (Page 4-10)
Reciprocity
123
7. What cannot be used at medium and low frequencies because the electric lines of force are parallel to and touch the earth? (Page 4-13)
Horizontal polarization
124
8. Which frequencies is sky-wave transmission used? (Page 4-13)
High
125
9. From approximately 50 to how many megahertz, vertical polarization results in a slightly stronger signal than does horizontal polarization with antennas at the same height? (Page 4-15)
100
126
10. At 30 megahertz, vertical polarization is better for antenna heights below about how many meters? (Page 4-15)
91
127
11. At ordinary antenna mast heights of 12 meters (40 feet), vertical polarization is advantageous for frequencies less than about what? (Page 4-15)
100 megahertz
128
12. Which type of polarization is used by VHF and UHF transmissions? (Page 4-15)
Horizontal
129
13. What is the useful part of the transmitter's signal? (Page 4-17)
Radiated energy
130
14. For the antenna in free space, that is, entirely removed from any objects that might affect its operation, the radiation resistance is how many ohms? (Page 4-17)
73
131
15. For most half-wave wire antennas, the radiation resistance is about how many ohms? (Page 4-17)
65
132
16. What is a plot of the radiated energy from an antenna? (Page 4-17)
Radiation pattern
133
17. What is it known as when antenna sources radiate energy equally in all directions? (Page 418)
Isotropic radiation
134
18. Which type of radiators emit (radiate) stronger radiation in one direction than in another? (Page 4-21)
Anisotropic
135
19. What is used to indicate directions of minimum radiation? (Page 4- 24)
Null
136
20. The electrical length of any antenna wire can be increased or decreased by what way? (Page 4-24)
Loading
137
21. What is the basic unit from which many complex antennas are constructed? (Page 4-26)
Half-wave antenna
138
22. What term is used to indicate an antenna that is very short compared with the wavelength of the operating frequency? (Page 4-26)
Doublet
139
23. What is the simplest form of a practical antenna? (Page 4-26)
Doublet
140
24. What type of antenna is the shortest antenna that can be used in free space? (Page 4-30)
1/2 wavelength
141
25. What is an ordinary half-wave antenna that has one or more additional conductors connected across its ends? (Page 4-35)
Folded dipole
142
26. What is a parasitic element referred to as when it operates to reinforce energy coming from the driver toward itself? (Page 4-36)
Director
143
27. What is a parasitic element referred to as if it is placed so it causes maximum energy radiation in a direction away from itself and toward the driven clement? (Page 4-36)
Reflector
144
28. What designates an array in which the direction of maximum radiation is perpendicular to the plane containing these elements? (Page 4-36)
Broadside array
145
29. What type of array is it when all the elements lie in a straight line with no radiation at the ends of the array? (Page 4-37)
Collinear
146
30. What type of array is it when the principal direction of radiation is along the plane of the array and perpendicular to the elements? (Page 4- 37)
End-fire
147
31. What property of an array is the proportion of energy radiated in the principal direction of radiation to the energy radiated in the opposite direction? (Page 4-56)
Front-To-Back Ratio
148
32. What is an antenna that is a wavelength or longer at the operating frequency? (Page 4-61)
Long-wire
149
33. What is a horizontal, long-wire antenna designed especially for the reception and transmission of 1low-frequency, vertically polarized ground waves? (Page 4-61)
Beverage antenna
150
34. What is one of the most popular fixed-station antennas because it is very useful in point-to-point communications? (Page 4-65)
Rhombic
151
35. What is a half-wave radiator with a reflector? (Page 4-70)
Corner-Reflector antenna
152
36. What is the heating of an insulating material by placing it in a high- frequency electric field? (Page 4-73)
Dielectric heating
153
37. What parts of the human body are highly susceptible to dielectric heating? (Page 4-73)
Eyes
154
38. What is the area of a radiation pattern that is covered by radiation? Page 4-74)
Lobe
155
39. The optimum gain of a broadside array is obtained when the elements are spaced what distance apart? (Page 4-75)
0.65 wavelength
156
1. What year was the first official naval radio message sent from ship to shore? (Page 1-1)
1899
157
2. What year was the first radiotelephone used between ships? (Page 1- 1)
1916
158
3. In what year were the first superheterodyne receivers installed in the fleet? (Page 1-1)
1931
159
4. In what year were the first successful radio teletypewriter transmissions between ships completed? (Page 1-1)
1944
160
5. In what year did the first successful use of radiophoto (facsimile) occur? (Page 1-1)
1945
161
6. What refers to communications over a distance and includes any transmission, emission, or reception of signs, signals, writings, images, or sounds? (Page 1-2)
Telecommunications
162
7. What is the most important method the Navy has of communicating between widely separated forces? (Page 1-2)
Radio
163
8. What was the first means of radio communications that had military and commercial importance? (Page 1-2)
Radiotelegraphy
164
9. Line-of-sight characteristics limit the usual range of radiotelephone from how many miles? (Page 1-3)
20 to 25
165
10. The Navy uses radio teletypewriter (rtty) mainly for high-speed automatic communications across ocean areas and has a normal speed of operation of how many words per minute? Page 1-4)
100
166
11. What is the process used to transmit photographs, charts, and other graphic information electronically? (Page 1-4)
Facsimile (fax)
167
12. What is a combination of sets, units, assemblies, subassemblies, and parts joined together to perform a specific operational function or several functions? (Page 1-7)
System
168
13. What consists of a unit or units and the assemblies, subassemblies, and parts connected or associated together to perform a specific function? (Page 1-8)
Set
169
14. What is a collection of units, assemblies, subassemblies, and parts? (Page 1-9)
Group
170
15. What is an assembly or any combination of parts, subassemblies, and assemblies mounted together? (Page 1-9)
Unit
171
16. What is a number of parts or subassemblies, or any combination thereof, joined together to perform a specific function? (Page 1-10)
Assembly
172
17. What is one component or two or more components joined together? (Page 1-12)
Part
173
18. What is the frequency range for the extremely high frequency (EHF) band? (Page 1-14)
30 GHZ - 300 GHz
174
19. What is the frequency range for the super high frequency (SHF) band? (Page 1-14)
3 GHZ- 30 GHZ
175
20. What is the frequency range for the ultra high frequency (UHF) band? (Page 1-14)
300 MHZ- 3GHZ
176
21. What is the frequency range for the very high frequency (VHF) band? (Page 1-14)
30 MHZ-300 MHz
177
22. What is the frequency range for the high frequency (HF) band? (Page 1-14)
3 MHZ - 30 MHz
178
23. What is the frequency range for the medium frequency (MF) band? (Page 1-14)
300 KHZ-3 MHz
179
24. What is the frequency range for the low frequency (LF) band? (Page 1-14)
30 KHZ-300 KHz
180
25. What is the frequency range for the very low frequency (VLF) band? (Page 1-14)
3 KHZ - 30 KHz
181
26. What is the frequency range for the extremely low frequency (ELF) band? (Page I-14)
Up to 300 Hz
182
27. What band has the ability to penetrate ocean depths to several hundred feet with little signal loss? (Page 1-15)
ELF
183
28. What type of transmission is normally considered a broadcast, that is, one-way transmission, no reply required? (Page 1-15)
VLF
184
29. What systems are established to communicate over long- distance trunks or links between fixed terminals? (Page 1-18)
Point-to-point
185
30. What is normally message circuit between two points that are both switching centers or individual message distribution points? (Page 1-18)
Trunk
186
31. What is a transmitter-receiver system connecting two locations? (Page 1-18)
Link
187
32. Frequencies above what are not normally refracted by the atmosphere and ground-wave range is minimal? (Page 1-19)
30 megahertz
188
33. The naval communications system is broken down into what groups? (Page 1-21)
Strategic and tactical
189
34. What type of communications are usually limited to a specific area of operations and are used to direct or report the movement of specific forces? (Page 1-21)
Tactical
190
35. What mode is a method of operation in which telecommunications between stations takes place simultaneously in both directions using two separate frequencies? (Page 1-22)
Full-Duplex (fdx)
191
36. What is the type of operation in which one station transmits information on one or more channels directed to more than one station and/or unit? (Page 1-22)
Broadcast (bc)
192
37. Message traffic is normally sent to the fleet by three methods: broadcast, intercept, and what else? (Page 1-22)
Receipt
193
38. What combines into a single system all the elements that make up the naval communications system and the Army and Air Force equivalent? (Page 1-23)
DCS
194
39. What offers rapid, direct interconnection of DOD and certain other government installations through worldwide telephone exchanges? (Page 1 24)
DCS AUTOVON
195
40. What provides authorized users with a means for exchanging classified information over communications security (COMSEC) circuitry or over other approved circuitry? (Page 1-24)
AUTOSEVOCOM
196
41. Daily capacity of the AUTODIN system is about how many average- length messages? (Page 1-25)
Five million
197
42. What was established for the purpose of integrating the critical intelligence communications (CRITICOMM) and the special intelligence communications (SPINTCOMM) networks into a single automated communications network? (Page 1-25)
DSSCS
198
43. What network provides a voice link between the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) and all subordinate commands ashore, afloat, and airborne? (Page 1-26)
HICOM
199
44. What meets our need for a connection between Navy tactical voice systems of the operating forces and the various fixed telephone services ashore? (Page 1-26)
NORATS
200
1. Components or tools of a computer system are grouped into one of what two categories? (Page 2-1)
Hardware or Software
201
2. What is the brain of the computer? (Page 2-2)
CPU
202
3. What transform the digital computer into a system that is more than a high- speed adding machine? (Page 2-3)
Logic instructions
203
4. What is the process by which instructions and data are read into the computer called? (Page 2-4)
Loading
204
5. What type of memory consists of a very thin crystal made of semiconductor material? (Page 2-9)
Bubble
205
6. What type of computer memory retains all the data and instructions even when the computer is powered down and is usually programmed from the manufacturer? (Page 2-10)
ROM
206
7. What is the working memory of the computer and is volatile (loses its data when the computer powers down)? (Page 2-11)
RAM
207
8. What type of memory has the advantages of ROM with the additional flexibility to program the memory to meet a unique need? (Page 2-11)
PROM
208
9. What type of memory has the advantages of ROM but also allows you the flexibility to change programs to include improvements or modifications in the future? (Page 2-11)
EPROM
209
10. The storage capacities of magnetic drums range from 20 million to more than how many characters (or bytes) of data? (Page 2-24)
150,000 million
210
11. A high average speed for keyboard operation is how many characters per second? (Page 2-25)
2 - 3
211
12. What printers have the most professional-looking, pleasing-to-the-eye print of all the printers in the character-at-a-time impact printer class? (Page 2-32)
Daisy-wheel
212
13. The speeds of daisywheel printers range from 30 to how many characters per second (cps)? (Page 2-32)
60
213
14. Dot-matrix printers are faster than the daisy-wheel printers with speeds ranging from 60 to how many cps, but their print quality is not as good? (Page 2-33)
350
214
15. Ink jet printers can print up to how many cps? (Page 2-34)
300
215
16. Laser printers can print up to how many cps? (Page 2-35)
26666
216
17. The major grouping of key switches on a keyboard will be in one of what two styles of a typewriter keyboard arrangement? (Page 2-36)
QWERTY or DVORAK
217
18. What is defined in terms of the number of picture elements that can be displayed on the horizontal line without overlapping or running into each other? (Page 2-40)
Horizontal resolution
218
19. Gas plasma displays use approximately 200 volts to charge the electrodes, and electroluminescent displays require only how many volts? (Page 2-42)
20
219
20. What is the memory outside the main body of the computer (CPU) where we store programs and data for future use? (Page 2-45)
Secondary storage
220
1. What is the heart of any computer system? (Page 3-2)
Operating System
221
2. UNIX is a trademark of what company? (Page 3-2)
AT&T
222
3. What eliminate the need for programmers to write new programs when all they want to do is copy, print, or sort a data file? (Page 3-5)
Utility programs
223
4. What is the term given to arranging data records in a predefined sequence or order? (Page 3-6)
Sorting
224
5. What is the combining of two or more ordered files into one file? (Page 3-6)
Merging
225
6. What are used to generate programs to print detail and summary reports of data files? (Page 3-7)
Report Program Generators (RPG)
226
7. What allow the programmer to write a single instruction that is equivalent to a specified sequence of machine instructions? (Page 3-10)
Macroinstructions
227
8. What type of languages were developed to allow a programmer to work in a language that is close to English or mathematical notation?
Procedure-oriented
228
9. What was designed as a teaching language to help beginning programmers write programs? (Page 3-10)
BASIC
229
10. What is being used by many colleges and universities to teach programming because it is fairly easy to learn; yet is a more powerful language than BASIC? (Page 3-11)
PASCAL
230
11. What is a modern general-purpose language designed with the professional programmer in mind and has many unique features to aid in the implementation of large scale applications and real-time systems? (Page 3-11)
Ada
231
12. What is the process of planning the computer solution to a problem? (Page 3-12)
Programming
232
13. What is one method of pictorially representing a procedural (step-by- step) solution to a problem before you actually start to write the computer instructions required to produce the desired results? (Page 3- 14)
Flowcharting
233
14. Within a flowchart, what are used to specify arithmetic operations and relational conditions? (Page 3-17)
Graphic symbols
234
15. What is the fundamental element in program preparation? (Page 3- 22)
Instruction
235
16. What instructions allow comparison between variables, or between variables and constants? (Page 3-23)
Logic
236
17. Errors caused by faulty logic and coding mistakes are referred to as what? (Page 3-25)
Bugs
237
1. What is a collection of related elements or items, that when properly coded into some type of input medium, can be processed by a computer? (Page 4-1)
Data
238
2. Using an 8-bit code, it is possible to represent how many different characters or bit combinations? Page 4-4)
256
239
3. What provides an internal means for checking the validity, the correctness, of code construction? (Page 4-9)
Parity bit
240
4. What represents the smallest unit of data? (Page 4-10)
Bit
241
5. Eight bits are equal to one what? (Page 4-10)
Byte
242
6. What is a group of related bytes that are treated as a single addressable unit or entity in memory known as? (Page 4-17)
Word
243
7. What is one or more related characters that are treated as a unit of information known as? (Page 4-17)
Field
244
8. What is a group of related fields, all pertaining to the same subject; a person, a thing, or an event called? (Page 4-17)
Record
245
9. What isa collection of related records called? (Page 4-17)
File
246
10. Data files may be stored on or in sequential-access storage, direct- access storage, or what type of storage? (Page 4-19)
Random-access
247
11. What can be defined as any system composed of one or more computers and terminals? (Page 4-20)
Network
248
12. Various machines are linked together within a building or adjacent buildings in what type of network? (Page 4-20)
LAN
249
13. What type of communications channel uses the basic frequency band of radio waves and a coaxial cable? (Page 4-20)
Baseband
250
14. What type of networks provide for global connections and are sometimes referred to as global networks? (Page 4-21)
WAN
251
15. What converts the digital signal produced by your terminal or the computer to an audio signal suitable for transmission over the communications line? (Page 4-21)
MODEM
252
16. What is the physical link or medium that is used to carry (or transmit) data from one location to another? (Page 4-22)
Communications channel
253
17. Whenever data is transferred between devices, it also involves an exchange of prearranged signals known as what? (Page 4-22)
Handshaking
254
18. What is the term used for the specific set of rules that govern handshaking and message characters? (Page 4-22)
Protocol
255
1. Which type of network are the workstations in close proximity to each other, usually within the same building? (Page 1-1)
Local Area Network (LAN)
256
2. Which type of network are the workstations basewide as in one command connected to another command or one base connected to another base? (Page 1-1)
Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
257
3. How many primary modes of system operation are there? (Page 1-3)
2
258
4. How many common situations for rebooting the system are there? (Page 1-3)
4
259
5. Which term refers to the process of recording events and using that information to detect usage violations or to confirm that network procedures are operating correctly? (Page 1-4)
Auditing
260
6. What is defined as a mechanism by which one computing element can get the attention of another element? (Page 1-4)
Interrupt
261
7. How many Interrupt Request Lines (IRQS) for hardware interrupts are there in a PC environment? (Page 1-4)
16
262
8. What is defined as a connection on the back of a computer where you connect peripherals, switches, networks, or other devices? (Page 1-5)
Port
263
9. Which type of hardware connection is used to send data one bit at a time and is very good for sending information over a long distance? Page 1-5)
Serial
264
10. Which names are reserved by DOS to reserve the first serial and parallel ports, respectively? (Page 1-6)
COM1 and LPT1
265
11. During the pinging process what is the ping that is sent out called? (Page 1-6)
Echo message
266
12. What prevents files from being updated by more than one user at a time? (Page 1-7)
Data Integrity
267
13. Which term refers to duplicate hardware and network facility segments that are available at all times? (Page 1-8)
Redundancy
268
14. What is the physical arrangement of a LAN's components called? (Page 1-9)
Topology
269
15. What are the three major types of LAN configurations or topologies? (Page 1-9)
Star, Bus, and Ring
270
16. Which type of network is each component connected directly to the central computer or network server? (Page 1-9)
Star
271
17. Which type of network are all components or nodes connected to the same cable, and the far ends of this cable never meet? (Page 1-9)
Bus
272
18. Of all the topologies which is the least reliable because it has a single point of failure? (Page 1-10)
Star
273
19. What is the wiring concentrator which allows workstations to be either inserted or bypassed on the ring? (Page 1-10)
Multistation Access Unit (MAU)
274
20. What define how networks establish communications between elements, exchange information, and terminate communications? (Page 1-12)
Protocols
275
21. How many major functions do protocols have? (Page 1-12)
2
276
22. Which control procedure sends multiple blocks of data and returns a single acknowledgement for many blocks, thereby increasing the amount of time spent transmitting data? Page 1-12)
SDLC
Stands for "Synchronous Data Link Control." SDLC is a communication protocol used for the reliable and efficient transmission of data between devices in a network. It defines a set of rules and procedures for data framing, error detection and correction, flow control, and synchronization.
277
23. What are the two principal network access methods? (Page 1-12)
Contention and Token passing
278
24. How many layers does the OSI model consist of? (Page 1-13)
7
279
25. What provides a basis for coordinating the development of standards that relate to the flexible interconnection of incompatible systems using data communications facilities? (Page 1-13)
Open Systems Interconnection (OS) model
280
26. Which layer of the OSI model is the physical layer? (Page 1-14)
1
281
27. Which layer of the OSI model is the data link layer? (Page 1-14)
2
282
28. Which layer of the OSI model is the network layer? (Page 1-14)
3
283
29. Which layer of the OSI model is the transport layer? (Page 1-15)
4
284
30. Which layer of the OSI model is the session layer? (Page 1-15)
5
285
31. Which layer of the OSI model is the presentation layer? (Page 1-15)
6
286
32. Which layer of the OSI model is the application layer? Page 1-15)
7
287
33. Which layer of the OSI model addresses the electrical, mechanical, and functional interface to the carrier? (Page 1-14)
Physical
288
34. Which layer of the OSI model provides error-free transmission of information over the physical medium? (Page 1-14)
Data link
289
35. Which layer of the OSI model decides which physical pathway the data should take? (Page 1-14)
Network
290
36. Which layer of the OSI model ensures data units are delivered error- free, in sequence, with no losses or duplications? (Page 1-15)
Transport
291
37. Which layer of the OSI model performs the functions that enable two applications to communicate across the network, performing security, name recognition, logging, administration, and other similar functions? (Page 1-15)
Session
292
38. Which layer of the OSI model provides a common representation of data that can be used between the application processes? (Page 1-1S)
Presentation
293
39. Which layer of the OSI model provides data encryption for privacy and authentication? (Page 1-15)
Presentation
294
40. Which layer of the OSI model represents the services that directly support users and application tasks? (Page 1-15)
Application
295
41. What is by far the cheapest type of transmission media? (Page 1-16)
Twisted-wire pairs
296
42. What are the two most common types of twisted-pair media? (Page 1-16)
22 and 24 gauge
297
43. What is the transmission rate of a T1 line? (Page 1-16)
1.5 Mbps
298
44. What is the transmission rate of a T2 line? (Page 1-16)
6.3 Mbps
299
45. What is the transmission rate of a T3 line? (Page 1-16)
46 Mbps
300
46. What is the transmission rate of a T4 line? (Page l-16)
281 Mbps
301
47. Coaxial cable is used extensively in local-area networks whenever the distance involved is relatively short, generally less than 2 miles for baseband LANS and how many miles for broadband LANS? (Page 1-17)
10
302
48. What is defined as a software package that makes it possible to implement and control a network and enables users to use the resources and services on that network? (Page 1-18)
Network Operating System (NOS)
303
49. What are used to secure a Local Area Network from a public network? (Page 1-18)
Firewalls
304
1. What are the majority of all network-related problems caused by? (Page 3-1)
Operator error
305
2. How many primary culprits to network malfunctions are there? (Page 3-3)
3
306
3. How many categories are component failures categorized into? (Page 3-3)
2
1. **Hard Failures:** refer to abrupt and permanent failures of network components.
2. **Soft Failures:**, also known as intermittent failures or transient faults, are temporary and often intermittent problems with network components.
307
4. What are the simple set of system checks called that are stored in ROM that are run when the computer is turned on? (Page 3-3)
Power On Self Test (POST)
308
5. Which device can be used to monitor the activity of a network and the stations on it and provides daily summaries or long-term trends of network usage and performance? (Page 3-3)
Network analyzer
309
6. What is the simultaneous presence of signals from twO nodes on the network referred to as? (Page 3-4)
Data collision
310
7. What is the hardware signal that is sent from a potential transmitter to a destination to indicate that the transmitter wishes to begin a transmission? (Page 3-5)
Request To Send (RTS)
311
8. What is the hardware signal that is sent from a receiver to a transmitter to indicate that the transmitter can begin sending? (Page 3-5)
Clear To Send (CTS)
312
9. Which term is used to describe the random electrical signals that become part of a transmission, that serve to make the signal component of the transmission more difficult to identify? (Page 3-5)
Noise
313
10. How is the Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) usually expressed? (Page 3- 5)
dB
314
11. What can be used to determine how longa cable segment can be before the signal loss is unacceptably high? (Page 3-5)
Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR)
315
12. What is defined as the decrease in signal strength, measured in decibels (dB) per 100 feet? (Page 3-6)
Attenuation
316
13. What is defined as interference in the form of a signal from a neighboring cable or circuit? (Page 3-6)
Crosstalk
317
14. What is used to try to eliminate the effects of certain types of distortions on the signal? (Page 3-6)
Line conditioning
318
15. Which device is used to test the integrity of a section of cable before the cable is even unwound? (Page 3-6)
Time Domain Reflectometry (TDR)
319
16. Which type of connector uses two prongs to pierce the cable to make its connection? (Page 3-7)
Vampire tap
320
1. No individual will be given access to classified information or be assigned to sensitive duties unless a favorable personnel security determination has been made regarding his/her loyalty, reliability and these determinations? (Page 6-1) trustworthiness. What is conducted to gather information pertinent to
Personnel Security Investigation (PSI)
321
2. What conducts (or controls the conduct of) all PSIs for the DON? (Page 6-1)
Office of Personnel Management (OPM)
322
3. PSIS will not normally be requested for any civilian or military personnel who will be retired, resigned, or separated with less than what amount of service remaining? (Page 6-1)
One year
323
4. What includes a search of DoD's Defense Clearance and Investigations Index (DCI), OPM's Reimbursable Suitability Investigation (RSI), Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) investigative and criminal history files including a technical fingerprint search and files of other federal government agency records as appropriate to the individual's background (Immigration and Naturalization Service (INS), Office of Personnel Management (OPM), Central Intelligence Agency (CIA), etc.)? (Page 6-2)
National Agency Check (NAC)
324
5. A technical fingerprint search of the FBI files is conducted as part of a NAC, except during a what? (Page 6-2)
SSBI-PR
Single-Scope Background Investigation-Periodic Reinvestigation (SSBI-PR)
325
6. What is the basic EO 10450 investigative standard for federal government civil service employment suitability determinations? (Page 6-2)
NACI
The National Agency Check with Inquiries (NACI) is a background investigation process used by the U.S. federal government to assess the suitability of individuals for federal employment, especially positions that do not require access to classified information or sensitive national security data. The NACI process is a part of the broader framework established by Executive Order 10450.
326
7. A NACI consists of a NAC plus Written Inquiries to former employers and supervisors, to references, and to schools covering the previous how many years? (Page 6-2)
Five
327
8. The scope of an SSBI covers the most recent 10 years of the subject's life or from the 18th birthday, whichever is the shorter period; however, at least the last how many years will be covered? (Page 6-4)
2
328
9. SSBI-PRs are conducted on personnel whose clearance/access to SCI or Top Secret information is based on an investigation that is how many years old or more? (Page 6-4)
Five
329
10. A NACLC is conducted at 10-year and how many-year intervals to support continued access to Secret and Confidential classified information, respectively? (Page 6-5)
15
330
11. What is conducted for applicants/potential nominees for SCI access? (Page 6-6)
Prenomination interview
331
12. The investigative basis for Top Secret clearance eligibility is a favorably completed SSBI, SSBI-PR or what else? (Page 6-6)
PPR
Phased Periodic Reinvestigation
Other:
Personal and Professional Reference
332
13. For those who have continuous assignment or access to Top Secret, critical sensitive positions, SCI, Presidential Support Activities, COSMIC Top Secret, LAA, PRP, IT-1 duties or SIOP-ESL, the SSBI must be updated every how many years by a PR? (Page 6-6)
Five
333
14. The investigative basis for Secret or Confidential clearance eligibility is a favorably completed NACLC or what else? (Page 6-6)
ANACI
“Access National Agency Check with Inquiries.”
334
15. The authority to take action to deny acceptance or retention in the Navy and Marine Corps, except for loyalty reasons, is vested in the what along with the CMC? (Page 6-7)
CHNAVPERS
335
16. A previously conducted PSI valid for security clearance purposes may sufice for appointment or commissioning purposes. A new investigation is required upon reentry of officers and enlisted members if there has been a break in active service greater than how many months?
24
336
17. The investigative basis for assignment to a designated Special-Sensitive1T-DAA position is a favorably completed and adjudicated SSBI, SSBI-PR, or PPR, in accordance with what? (Page 6-8)
DCID 6/4
Director of Central Intelligence Directive 6/4
337
18. The investigative basis for assignment to a designated Non-Critical Sensitive/AT-II position is a favorably completed and adjudicated ANACI for civilians or what for military/industry employees? (Page 6- 8)
NACLC
NAC National Agency Check
NAC with Local Agency Check and Credit
338
19. What is the investigative basis for assignment to a Non-Sensitive/1T- II? (Page 6-8)
NACI
339
20. An ANACI or SSBI is required for reappointment to a federal government sensitive position if there has been a break in service greater than how many months? (Page 6-8)
24
340
21. The authority to deny appointment or terminate employment of civilian personnel for loyalty reasons is vested solely in the what? (Page 6-8)
SECNAV
341
22. What is the minimum requirement for civilian summer hires in all designated non-critical sensitive positions including summer hires, intermittent and seasonal appointees, or work/study and cooperative education program employees? Page 6-9)
ANACI
Access National Agency Check with Inquiries
342
23. Investigative requirements for DON contractor personnel requiring access to classified information are managed under the what? (Page 6- 10)
National Industrial Security Program (NISP)
343
24. Requests for investigation of contractor personnel for security clearance eligibility are processed by the OPM and adjudicated by what? (Page 6-10)
Defense Industrial Security Clearance Office (DISCO)
344
25. What is the adjudicative authority for all DON contractor personnel requiring SCI access eligibility? (Page 6-10)
DON CAF
Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility.
345
26. Contractor employees who require access to DON controlled/restricted areas, NOT involving sensitive information or IT equipment and not involving access to classified information will be processed under what DON Program? (Page 6-11)
Facility Access Determination (FAD)
346
27. The designated security manager of a command must have a favorably adjudicated SSBI or SSBI-PR completed within the past how many years? (Page 6-11)
Five
347
28. NAF employees assigned to positions of trust within DoD will be the subject of a favorably adjudicated NACI completed no greater than how many months prior to appointment? (Page 6-12)
24
348
29. Employees assigned to IT-DAA designated positions require a favorably adjudicated SSBI or SSBI-PR to what standards? (Page 6-12)
DCID 6/4
349
30. Personnel operating a vehicle or providing security to a vehicle transporting Category I, II or Confidential AA&E require a favorably adjudicated NACLC or what else? (Page 6-13)
ANACI
350
31. What instruction provides the standards of individual reliability required for personnel performing duties involving nuclear weapons and components? (Page 6-13)
SECNAVINST 5510.35A
351
32. What establishes, to the extent possible, uniform and consistent personnel security investigative requirements? (Page 6-14)
Executive Order 12968
352
33. The investigative requirement for access to SCI is a favorably adjudicated what? (Page 6-15)
SSBI
353
34. Access to SIOP-ESI requires a Top Secret security clearance eligibility based on a favorably adjudicated SSBI. The SSBI need not have been completed within the past five years to grant access to SIOP- ESI, providing a new SSBI or SSBI-PR is initiated within how many days? (Page 6-15)
30
Single Integrated Operational Plan - Extremely Sensitive Information
354
35. What instruction prescribes the policies and procedures for the nomination, screening, selection, and continued evaluation of DON military and civilian personnel and contractor employees assigned to or used in PSA? Personal Security Actions (Page 6-15)
SECNAVINST 5312.12B
355
36. Continued assignment to a NATO COSMIC billet requires SSBI-PR every how many years? (Page 6-16)
Five
356
37. What is the federal government standard automated request tool for personnel security investigations (PSI)? (Page 6-20)
E-Qip
357
38. Within DoD, e-QIP will only be accessed through what? (Page 6-20)
JPAS
358
39. What is DoD's electronic PSI request tool developed to support Defense Security Service (DSS) investigation request processing has been authorized for use by OPM in the interim, while awaiting e-Qip deployment? (Page 6-20)
Electronic Personnel Security Questionnaire (EPSQ)
359
40. What **form** is the currently approved method of requesting PSI products from OPM to support determinations of eligibility for assignment to sensitive national security positions or access to classified national security information? (Page 6-20)
Standard Form 86
360
41. What is required to prove or disprove allegations concerning an individual on whom adverse information has been developed and received by the DON CAF subsequent to a favorable security eligibility determination? (Page 6-22)
RSI
In the context of DON CAF (Department of the Navy Central Adjudication Facility), “RSI” often refers to “Request for Security Investigation.”
361
42. What is the investigative service provider for all DoD PSIs? (Page 6- 22)
OPM
Office of Personnel Management
362
43. What must be completed on each first-term enlistee to support a military suitability determination? (Page 6-24)
NACLC
National Agency Check with Local Agency Check and Credit Check
363
1. What applies uniform, consistent, and cost-effective policies and procedures to the classification, safeguarding, transmission and destruction of classified information? (Page 1-1)
Information Security Program (ISP)
364
2. Who bears executive responsibility for the security of the Nation, which includes the authority to classify information for the protection of the national defense and foreign relations of the U.S.? (Page 1-2)
President of the United States (POTUS)
365
3. What provides **overall policy guidance** on **information security**? (Page 1-2)
National Security Council (NSC)
366
4. Who as the chairman of the National Foreign Intelligence Board (NFIB), issues instructions in the form of DCI directives or policy statements affecting intelligence policies and activities? (Page 1-2)
Director of Central Intelligence (DCI)
367
5. What is the primary internal security agency of the U.S. Government? Page 1-2)
Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
368
6. Who is the investigative component of the DON and is the sole liaison with the FBI on internal security matters? (Page 1-3)
Director, Naval Criminal Investigative Service (DIRNCIS)
369
7. Who is the Department of Defense (DoD) senior official charged by the Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) with responsibility for developing policies and procedures governing information and personnel security, including atomic energy policy programs? (Page 1-3)
Under Secretary of Defense (Intelligence) (USD)(I)
370
8. Who is designated as the senior official responsible for administering the portion of the DoD ISP pertaining to Special Access Programs (SAP), the National Disclosure Policy (NDP), Foreign Government Information (FGI) (including North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) information), and security arrangements for **international Programs**? (Page 1-3)
Under Secretary of Defense for Policy (USDP)
371
9. What provides centralized coordination and direction for signals intelligence and communications security for the U.S. Government? (Page 1-3)
National Security Agency (NSA)
372
10. The authority to lower any COMSEC security standards within the DoD rests with the what? (Page 1-3)
SECDEF
373
11. What is responsible for the direction and control of SCI programs established by DOD components? (Page 1-3)
Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
374
12. Who is responsible to the SECNAV for establishing, directing, and overseeing an effective DON ISP, and for implementing and complying with all directives issued by higher authority ? (Page 1-4)
CNO
375
13. What is responsible for investigative, *law enforcement*, physical security, technical surveillance countermeasures, and counterintelligence (CI) policy and programs within the DON? (Page 1-5)
DIRNCIS
376
14. Who is responsible to the ASN ( The Assistant Secretary of the Navy)(RD&A) (Research, Development and Acquisition) for implementing policies and managing DON participation in *international efforts* concerning RD&A? (Page 1-5)
Director, Navy International Programs Office (Navy IPO)
377
15. Who is a Senior Official of the Intelligence Community (SOIC) and administers the SCI (Sensitive Compartmented Information) program for the Navy, including non-Service DON entities? (Page 1-5)
Director of Naval Intelligence (DNI)
378
16. Who is a Senior Official of the *Intelligence Community* (SOIC) and administers the SCI program for the Marine Corps? (Page 1-5)
Director of Intelligence of the Marine Corps
379
17. Who is responsible for DON policies and implementation of the DoD Information Assurance (IA) program? (Page 1-6)
Department of the Navy, Chief Information Officer (CIO)
380
18. Who is responsible for implementing the DON CIO policies within the DON? (Page 1-6)
Naval Network Warfare Command (NAVNETWARCOM)s mission is to execute, under C10F Operational Control, tactical-level C2 of Navy networks and to leverage
Joint space capabilities for Navy and Joint operations.
NAVNETWARCOM operates and defends the Navys portion of the
DoDIN (Department of Defense Information Networks), current Information Condition (INFOCON) level, and issues tasking orders and guidance to the Fleet in the form of Communications Tasking Orders (CTOs) and Naval Telecommunications Directives (NTDs).
381
19. Who as the designated SSO for the Commander, *NETWARCOM*, is responsible for signals intelligence activities and for administration of SCI programs within the DON *cryptologic community*? (Page 1-6)
NETWARCOM Security Directorate
382
20. Who administers the DON CMS program and acts as the central office of records for all DON CMS accounts? (Page 1-6)
Director, COMSEC Material System (DCMS)
383
21. Who administers the DON ISP (Information Security Program) within the U.S. Marine Corps? (Page 1-6)
Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC)
384
22. Who is responsible for implementation of CI and human intelligence programs and the ISP? Page 1-6)
CMC (Code ARS)
385
23. Who as Special Security Officer (SSO) for the U.S. Marine Corps, is responsible for guidance and implementation of SCI programs? (Page 1-6)
CMC (Code IOS)
386
24. What may be granted to accommodate a long-term or permanent inability to meet a specific requirement? (Page 1-7)
Exception
387
25. COMSEC information is governed by what reference? (Page 1-8)
EKMS-1
388
26. Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) is governed by what reference and other national, DoD and DON issuances? (Page 1-8)
DoD 5105.21-M-1
389
27. The Under Secretary of the Navy must formally approve the establishment of each SAP (Special Access Program) in coordination with the what? (Page 1-8)
Deputy SECDEF
390
28. SIOP and SIOP-ESI are governed by what reference which is issued by the CNO? (Page 1-8)
OPNAVINST S5511.35K
OPNAVINST S5511.35K, Policy for Safeguarding the Single
Integrated Operational Plan (SIOP)
Extremely Sensitive Information
391
29. Classified and unclassified NNPI (Naval Nuclear Propulsion Information) is governed by what reference? (Page 1-8)
NAVSEAINST 5511.32C
392
30. What is information received from one or more foreign governments or international organizations as classified or expected to be held in confidence? (Page 1-8)
FGI
393
31. NATO0 classified and unclassified information is governed by what reference? (Page 1-9)
USSAN 1-69
394
32. What is defined and governed by laws, international agreements, EOs, and regulations that address the identification, marking, protection, handling, transmission, transportation, and destruction? (Page 1-9)
Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI)
395
33. The National Industrial Security Program (NISP) was established by what reference to safeguard classified information released to industry in a manner that is equivalent to its protection within the executive branch? (Page 1-9)
Executive Order 12829
396
1. Which ranks will personnel automatically advance to without local action so long as they meet the minimum time in rate (TIR) requirements? (Page 1-3)
E2 and E3
397
2. What are the competitive examinations used as a part of that E4 through E7 advancement candidates take? (Page 1-3)
FMS
Final Multiple Score
398
3. What does advancement to E7, E8, and E9 require? (Page 1-5)
Selection board
399
4. Which advancement candidates are designated SBE Selection Board Eligible on the basis of their CO/OIC Commanding Officer Officer in Charge recommendation and their TIR Time in Rate eligibility? (Page 1-5)
E8 and E9
400
5. What convenes the annual selection boards? (Page 1-5)
Chief of Naval Personnel (CHNAVPERS)
401
6. How often are Special Boards normally held, or as required, to consider any member who was eligible but not properly considered by the last regular board? (Page 1-5)
Annually
402
7. How many months after the regular board convened do applicants have to submit a request for a special enlisted selection board to NAVPERSCOM? (Page 1-6)
9
403
8. What is the sole approval authority for convening special enlisted selection boards? (Page 1-6)
CHNAVPERS
404
9. Which selection board requires E6 personnel to pass the E7 advancement-in-rate examination prior to submitting a package? (Page 1-6)
LDO
405
10. Which instruction provides information on the selection of senior enlisted personnel for promotion to commissioned officer status? (Page 1-7)
OPNAVINST 1420.1A
406
11. What is responsible for developing, publishing, and distributing Navy-wide advancement-in-rate examinations for the purpose of testing and rank-ordering personnel who are qualified for advancement? (Page 1-10)
NETPDTC
Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center
407
12. No later than how many days prior to the first AEDC will NETPDTC publish a quarterly schedule with the exact dates of upcoming AEDCs? (Page 1-11)
120
408
13. How many subject matter expert SME's will usually be designated by NPDC to participate in the rating AEDC? (Page 1-11)
6
409
14. No later than how many days prior to the scheduled AEDC should SME nominations be received by NETPDTC? (Page 1-12)
45
410
15. Approximately how long prior to the commencement of the AEDC will NETPDTC provide accounting data and arrange lodging for the SME's? (Page 1-12)
2-weeks
411
16. How many years for most ratings are Topic/Sub-topic Subject/Sub- Subject Matrixes planned out? (Page 1-13)
2
412
1. What is the most important advancement eligibility requirement? (Page 2-2)
CO/OIC recommendation
413
2. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E1-E2? (Page 2-2)
9
414
3. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E2-E3? (Page 2-2)
9
415
4. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E3-E4? (Page 2-2)
6
416
5. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E4-E5? (Page 2-2)
12
417
6. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from ES-E6? (Page 2-2)
36
418
7. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E6-E7?
36
419
8. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E7-E8? (Page 2-2)
36
420
9. How many months is the TIR requirement for advancing from E8-E9? (Page 2-2)
36
421
10. What publication defines the path of advancement? (Page 2-2)
NAVPERS 18068F
422
11. What form should be used to enter the actual designation date for rating conversions in the same paygrade? (Page 2-2)
NAVPERS 1070/604
423
12. Which MILPERSMAN article contains guidance on personnel designations other than those graduating from “A" school? (Page 2-2)
MILPERSMAN 1440-050
424
13. What contain procedures for establishing eligibility for entry into closed/open ratings with regards to Rating Entry for General Apprentices (REGA) and Career Reenlistment Objectives (CREO), and Enlisted Career Management Objectives (ECMO) ALNAVRESFORS for drilling Navy Reservists? (Page 2-2)
NAVADMINs
425
14. How long prior to selection board convening must personnel who are Selection Board Eligible submit for a change of rating in order to receive a review by the selection board in the new rating? (Page 2-3)
1 month
426
15. MILPERSMAN 1440-010 along with which other article contain the methods for changing from one path of advancement to another? (Page 2-3)
1160-090
427
16. What authority is required to participate in Navy-wide examinations for change in rating? (Page 2-3)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)
428
17. Which type of alien has been lawfully admitted to the U.S. for permanent residence under an immigration visa? (Page 2-4)
Immigrant alien
429
18. How many years is the naturalization residency requirement reduced down to after 3 years of honorable service in the U.S. Armed Forces? (Page 2-5)
3
430
19. Which MILPERSMAN article contains naturalization instructions for servicemembers? (Page 2-5)
MILPERSMAN 5352-010
431
20. Which type of aliens are defined as other than immigrant aliens? (Page 2-6)
Foreign nationals
432
21. Which valid certificate must all ACs possess? (Page 2-6)
FAA 7220-1
433
22. Which instruction contains PC (Note: PC's don't exist anymore so this would probably be LS's) rating entry requirements? (Page 2-6)
OPNAVINST 5112.6C
434
23. Reserve personnel in what status are NOT eligible for participation in a Navy-wide advancement examination? (Page 2-8)
Records Review
435
24. Except for Fleet Reservists recalled to active duty, E6, E7, and E8 members who have submitted formal written requests for transfer to the FLTRES are ineligible for further advancement consideration, unless the request is mandated by what? (Page 2-9)
HYT
High Year Tenure
436
25. Which mobilized personnel are not required to complete the LDP requirement for advancement due to the limited duration of active duty? (Page 2-11)
Individual Ready Reserve (IRR)
437
26. Which MILPERSMAN article designates that non-designated personnel who have an “A" school request approved are not authorized to participate in an advancement examination for any other rating? (Page 2-11)
MILPERSMAN 1440-050
438
27. Personnel in what paygrades that are ordered to a Class "A" school incorporating a lengthy course of instruction shall be converted in rating at an equal paygrade after successful completion of the basic or A-1 phase of that course of instruction? (Page 2-12)
E1 through E5
439
28. Which date is the advancement candidate's Service in Paygrade (SIPG) computed for advancement purposes? (Page 2-13)
TED
Terminal Eligibility Date
440
29. What does the Department of Defense (DOD) prescribe as the minimum active service a person must have to compete as a regular candidate for advancement? (Page 2-13)
TAFMS
Total Active Federal Military Service
441
30. What is the date from which an advancement candidate's total service in paygrade is considered to have commenced for the purpose of computing advancement eligibility for the next higher paygrade? (Page 2-15)
TIR
442
31. What is defined as those members not under a Navy contract at time of reentry to naval service or Navy Reservists attached to the IRR? (Page 2-15)
Break in service
443
32. A break in service of what duration for NAVETs returning to active duty or to Drilling Reserve in the same paygrade held at discharge, release, or transfer to the IRR will have an adjusted TIR date? (Page 2-15)
24 hours
444
33. Lost time exceeding how many days as a result of an unauthorized absence, sick-misconduct, misconduct, or confinement is not creditable in computing service in paygrade? (Page 2-18)
15
445
34. What paygrades (one paygrade only) do COs/OICS have the authority to reinstate members to anytime after reduction in rate, without referral to higher authority? (Page 2-19)
E2 or E3
446
35. What holds the only reinstatement authority to reinstate E4 through E6 paygrades? (Page 2-20)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)
