jipmer 2013 paper Flashcards
(275 cards)
1
Q
giant a wave s seen in
A
pulmonary ht , tricuspid stenosis , right atrial myxoma
2
Q
tricuspid regurgitation
A
reversal of x descent and accentuated v-y descent
3
Q
accentuated a-x descent
A
constrictive pericarditis , cardiac tamponade , restrictive cardiomyopathy
4
Q
accentuated v y descent
A
constrictive pericarditis , tricuspid regurgitation
5
Q
exercise stress test is stopped when
A
st depression >2 mm or fall in systolic BP > 10 mm hg
6
Q
exercise stress test ci
A
when there s rest angina within 48 hrs, sever AS , Severe PHT, active infective endocarditis
7
Q
when in MI can stress test be done
A
when it s heart rate controlled and after 6 days of MI
8
Q
senstivity of exercise stress test
A
75%
9
Q
loeys-dietz syndrome
A
mutation in TGF b receptor leads to abnormalities in elastin and collagen 1 and 3 and rupture fairly easily
10
Q
all connective tissue disorders cause
A
dilatation of ascending aorta
11
Q
mc condition ass with anuerysms of the ascending aorta
A
hypertension
12
Q
arteries spared in atherosclerosis
A
upper limb , mesenteric and internal mammary arteries
13
Q
most common predisposing factor for aortic dissection
A
hypertension
14
Q
ischemia modified albumin test s
A
more sensitive than d dimer test for PE
15
Q
indications for IVC filter
A
active bleeding and recurrent venous thrombosis
16
Q
other ECG findings in PE
A
T wave inversion inv in V1-4 , slow R wave progression
17
Q
acute stage of UC can be associated with which cvs condition
A
Pulmonary embolism
18
Q
functional residual capacity in restrictive lung disease
A
increased
19
Q
drugs causing ARDS
A
heroin , barbiturates , thiazides
20
Q
rbc wbc count, specific gravity to say plueral effusion is exudate
A
> 10000 , > 1000 , >1.12
21
Q
anti cancer drugs causing exudative plueral effusion
A
procarbazine and dazatinib
22
Q
examples of plueral exudate
A
hemothorax , chylothorax , ovarian hyperstimualtion
23
Q
urinothorax , myxoedema lead to what type of plueral effusion
A
transudate
24
Q
opthal manifestations in thalamic hemorrhage
A
vertical gaze palsy , miosis , no light reflex , eye downward and inward , retraction nystagmus
25
high carotenoid ingestion ;: CSF
xanthochromia
26
causes for dropped head
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis , hyperparathyroidism , polymyositis , myasthenia gravis
27
mc tumour ass with production of cushings syndrome
carcinoid tumour lung
28
not seen in SLE
uveitis , parotid enlargement , joint deformity , lung cavitations
29
mc pulmonary manifestation of RA
pulmonary nodules
30
multicentric reticular histiocytosis
destructive symmetric polyarthritis inv DIP
31
skin kesions in multicentric reticular histiocytosis
multiple nodules at the base of the nail :: coral bead appearance
32
x - ray finding in above condition
loss of bone dispropotionate to the cartilage loss similar to gout
33
aldolase enzyme and gout
its deficiency can cause gout
34
serum uric acid levels and gout
> 7 predispose to gout
35
martels or g sign seen in
gout
36
factors predisposing to gout
excessive ethanol , steroid withdrawal , uncontrolled diuretics or aspirin ,mi , stroke , surgery , trauma
37
psuedo gout commonly involves which jt
knee
38
microbe ass with kawasaki disease
staph aureus
39
mc causes of metabolic alkolosis
diuretic use , gastric secretion loss
40
LOS tone increased by
antacids , domperidone , pgf2 , metaclopromide , cholinergics , supine posrue
41
most important factor contributing to high intraluminal pressure in LOS
intra abdominal pressure
42
surveillance in baretts eosophagus
every 2 yrs with biopsy endoscopically
43
neoadjuvant chemotherapy in oesophageal ca
cisplatin
44
drug which increases the risk in baretts oesophagus
bisphosphonates
45
how much % of oesophageal narrowing occured before dysphagia
60%
46
caeliac or supraclavicular node involvement in oesophagus
indicates metastasis
47
radiotherapy in oesophageal ca
upper 1/3 rd or post cricoid growth
48
most common benign small bowel tumours
adenoma
49
most common symptomatic benign small bowel tumours
leiomyomas
50
benign small bowel tumors most commonly present as
incidental finding
51
most common cause of intusussuception in adults
small bowel benign tumours
52
the layer responsible for strength of intestinal anastomosis
submucosa
53
whirl pattern on CT scan
volvulus
54
gastric volvulus in children
mesentricoaxial or vertical
55
mc cause of large bowel obstruction in pregnancy
caecal vovulus
56
paul miculicz procedure
sigmoid colectomy for volvulus
57
hla association in chrons disease , UC
hla dr 1 , hla dqw5 :::::: hla dr 2 , dr103
58
appendicectomy and IBD
appendicectomy inc CD but protects against UC
59
earliest lesions in CD
apthoid ulcers
60
recurrence after surgery and antibiotics
recurrence more and not responsive in CD , opp in UC
61
extraintestinal features more in UC
pyoderma gangrenosum , osteoporotic fractures , PSC
62
extraintestinal features equal in UC and CD
sacroilietis , uveitis
63
collar button ulcers occur in
UC
64
Earliest radiological feature in UC
fine mucosal granularity
65
other serological markers in CD
anti e.coli OMPc , anti I2 , anti flagellin
66
GRAVES disease
primary thyrotoxicosis so cardiac symptoms rare
67
in graves when does hyperthyroidism occur
same time as goitre
68
medullary ca thyroid - % familial
only 10-20%
69
hurthle cell ca secretes
thyroglobulin
70
recurrence rate after incisional hernia repair
25-50%
71
laproscopic usg
to detect superficial liver and peritoneal metastasis
72
colovesical fistula mc cause
diverticular disease
73
colovesical fistula
most commonly presents as pnuematuria
74
follicular ca thyroid
macroscopically capsulated microscopically invasive , multiple foci seldom seen
75
curling ulcer at what % of burns
35%
76
shone complex
parachute mv , subaortic stenosis , COA
77
vein of markowski
drains into vein of galen
78
absent distal femoral epiphysis at birth
congenital hypothyroidism
79
urine iodine levels in i2 def in goitre
low
80
is there goitre in thyroid dysgenesis
no
81
non immune fetal hydrops and placenat size
thickened , >6cm
82
non immune fetal hydrops mc cause
cvs anomolies
83
barlows disease
scurvy
84
which radiological sign confirms scurvy
metaphyseal lucency under the while line of frenkel
85
13 th day after fertilization
villi formation
86
22-23 days
fetoplacental circulation and fetal heart
87
10-12 weeks
swallowing
88
11 weeks
fetal breathing movements
89
12 weeks
urine formation
90
mentovertical engaging diameter presenting part
brow
91
submentovertical submentobregmatic
face
92
anthropoid pelvis
all ap diameters long , transverse diameters short
93
platypoid pelvis is opp
of anthropoid , all ap diameters are short
94
rachitic pelvis
reniform inlet
95
osteomalacia pelvis
triradiate pelvis
96
naegles pelvis
arrested dev of one ala of sacrum
97
roberts pelvis
arrested dev of both ala of sacrum
98
fetal serum and Amniotic fluid AFP levels in first trimester pregnancy
reaches peak by 13 weeks ,
99
maternal serum AFP levels
reaches peak by 32 weeks
100
barts test / ketterings test
other name for triple test
101
papp a in downs
reduced levels , done in first trimester
102
for early detection of downs most specific and sensitive
b hcg , ms afp
103
double marker test
b hcg and papp a
104
maternal hypoglycemia
increased fetal movements
105
single measurement which best reflects fetal nutrition
us - abdominal circumference
106
doc for chlamydiae in pregnancy
erythromycin
107
hellin rule
mathematical frequency of multiple births
108
lambda or twin peak sign
dichorionic twins
109
t sign
monochorionic twins
110
least chance for cord prolapse is for
frank breech
111
commonest cause for cord prolapse
transverse lie
112
pretreatment b hcg levels serum before treatment of mole poor prognosis
serum hcg level >50,000 miu/ml
113
time by which b hcg falls to normal post mole rx
4-6 weeks
114
shone complex
parachute mv , subaortic stenosis , COA
115
vein of markowski
drains into vein of galen
116
absent distal femoral epiphysis at birth
congenital hypothyroidism
117
urine iodine levels in i2 def in goitre
low
118
is there goitre in thyroid dysgenesis
no
119
non immune fetal hydrops and placenat size
thickened , >6cm
120
non immune fetal hydrops mc cause
cvs anomolies
121
barlows disease
scurvy
122
which radiological sign confirms scurvy
metaphyseal lucency under the while line of frenkel
123
13 th day after fertilization
villi formation
124
22-23 days
fetoplacental circulation and fetal heart
125
10-12 weeks
swallowing
126
11 weeks
fetal breathing movements
127
12 weeks
urine formation
128
mentovertical engaging diameter presenting part
brow
129
submentovertical submentobregmatic
face
130
anthropoid pelvis
all ap diameters long , transverse diameters short
131
platypoid pelvis is opp
of anthropoid , all ap diameters are short
132
rachitic pelvis
reniform inlet
133
osteomalacia pelvis
triradiate pelvis
134
naegles pelvis
arrested dev of one ala of sacrum
135
roberts pelvis
arrested dev of both ala of sacrum
136
fetal serum and Amniotic fluid AFP levels in first trimester pregnancy
reaches peak by 13 weeks ,
137
maternal serum AFP levels
reaches peak by 32 weeks
138
barts test / ketterings test
other name for triple test
139
papp a in downs
reduced levels , done in first trimester
140
for early detection of downs most specific and sensitive
b hcg , ms afp
141
double marker test
b hcg and papp a
142
maternal hypoglycemia
increased fetal movements
143
single measurement which best reflects fetal nutrition
us - abdominal circumference
144
doc for chlamydiae in pregnancy
erythromycin
145
hellin rule
mathematical frequency of multiple births
146
lambda or twin peak sign
dichorionic twins
147
t sign
monochorionic twins
148
least chance for cord prolapse is for
frank breech
149
commonest cause for cord prolapse
transverse lie
150
pretreatment b hcg levels serum before treatment of mole poor prognosis
serum hcg level >50,000 miu/ml
151
time by which b hcg falls to normal post mole rx
4-6 weeks
152
pg e2 predominates in the
proliferative phase
153
pgf2
luteal phase
154
swiss cheese pattern of the endometrium is seen in
metropathia hemorrhagia
155
duphaston
given for medical management of DUB , does not suppress ovulation
156
contraindications to TCRE
uterine size > 12 weeks , adenomyosis , uterine malignancy , genital infection
157
tcre removes how much of the endometrium
5 mm
158
RITEA
66 DEGREE C
159
MICROWAVE
9.2GHZ , 80 .c for 3 min
160
cerozette advantages
75 ug desogestrol , stringent time complication not necessary , no androgenic effects , no effect on carbohydrate or lipid metabolism , binds to progesterone receptors
161
most common cause of death in complications related to ca cervix
uremia
162
simpsons pain
endometrial ca
163
cystoscopy of endometrial ca
snow hill pattern , von epethelial islets
164
mc germ cell tumour
mature teratoma
165
mc malignant GCT
DYSGERMINOMA
166
largest benign ovarian tumour
mucinous cystadenoma
167
mc benign tumour ovary
dermoid cyst
168
most common tumour of the ovary
serous cystadenoma
169
mc ovarian tumour to involve the opposite side
granulosa cell tumour
170
papillary cystadenoma becomes malignant in
50%
171
meigs syndrome
ovarian fibroma
172
psuedomeigs syndrome
thecoma , brunners , granulosa cell tumour
173
ovarian tumours ass with calcification
teratoma , gonadoblastoma , fibroma
174
coffee bean nuclei
granulosa cell tumour
175
bryants test , regiment badge sign
anterior dislocation
176
puttiplat , bristow procedure
done for anterior dislocation of shoulder
177
monteggia fracture dislocation nerve involved
posterior interosseus nerve
178
volkmann ischemic and lunate dislocation nerve involved
median nerve
179
phalen sign is seen in
carpel tunnel syndrome
180
siffer kart sign
blounts disease
181
local anaesthetics are
weak bases and become more potent with bicarbonate addition
182
prilocaine characteristics
safest , maximum methhemoglobinemia, most suitable for biers block
183
bupivacaine characteristics
most suited and best for isobaric , ci in iv regional anaesthesia
184
first synthetic la
procaine
185
la of choice in malignant hyperthermia
procaine
186
la ci in neonates and labour
mepivacaine
187
la whose intradural injection is ci as it can cause paraplegia
chlorprocaine
188
lowest potency la
procaine
189
shortest la
chlorprocaine
190
longest acting la
dibucaine
191
la ci for surface anaesthesia
procaine , benzocaine , mepivacaine
192
intermediate acting amides
lignocaine , mepivacaine , prilocaine
193
articaine
recently introduced aminoamide for dental and periodantal procedures
194
most commmon ecg finding with bupivacaine
idioventricular rythm and qrs broadening
195
differential blockade caused by which LA
bupivacaine
196
the concentration of adrenaline use along with lidocaine
1:200000
197
muscle relaxants with minimum histamine release , used in asthma
vecuronium
198
muscle relaxant of choice to inc BP
pancuronium
199
muscle relaxant with ganglion block
curare , galamine , trimethaphan , pancuronium
200
above what dose does succinyl choline cause biphasic block
500 ml
201
inc order of potency of inhalational anaesthetics , dec order of mac
DSEIM , before d N2O, before E ether , before M halothane
202
inc order of faster induction , recovery , dec order of blood gas partition coefficient
HEISDX , before h ether , before d N2O
203
density of xenon
5.887 g/dl
204
disadv of xenon
because of high density causes inc resistance should be used with caution in copd , morbidly obese , premature infants
205
ether adv
produces excellent muscle relaxation
206
drager barko test is used for
halothane
207
halothane and analgesia
no analgesia
208
best muscle relaxants
ether followed by halothane
209
order of CO production by inhalational anaesthetics
desflurane > enflurane> isoflurane >halothane =sevoflurane
210
inhalational agent of choice for controlled hypotension and hepatic disease
sevoflurane
211
halothane and enflurane - heart
derpressants cardiac
212
halothane and isoflurane - heart
sensitize to cathecolamines
213
which mineral levels to be measured during continous propofol infusion
zinc
214
diprivan
1 % formulation of propofol contains 10 %soya oil , 1.25% egg phosphatide and 2.25% glycerol
215
propofol infusion syndrome
> 4 mg/kg / hr for 48 hrs
216
iv anaesthetic with both analgesic ans anaesthetic activity
ketamine
217
drugs dec icp but inc iot
barbiturates , etomidate , cyclopropane
218
inhalational anaesthetics minimally metabolized
xenon fol by n2o followed by des
219
aoc for right to left shunt
ketamine
220
aoc for left to right shunt
isoflurane
221
aoc for electroconvulsive therapy
methohexitone
222
aoc for thyrotoxicosis
thiopentone
223
earliest radiological feature of AS
romana sign
224
radiological features of psoriatic arthritis
opera glass deformity , mouse ear appearance
225
joint not involved in psoriatic arthritis
first MCP of thumb
226
joints of wrist inv in hemochromatosis , psuedogout
MCP
227
calcification of menisci and hyaline cartilage
CPPD
228
osteonecrosis x ray finding
crescent sign , spotty calcification
229
gauchers disease x ray finding
erlenmayer flask deformity
230
walderstrom sign
non specific sign of hip effusion
231
licked candle stick appearance
atrophic nueropathic arthritis
232
apple core defromity , migrating mouse sign
synovio chondro metaplasia
233
osteopetrosis x ray appearance
bone in bone appearance , sandwich vertebra , rugger jersey spine
234
flowing cadle wax appearance
melorrhosteosis
235
hook shaped vertebral bodies , cut corner sign
mps 1 / hurler
236
central beaking of vertebra / ape like pelvis
mps 4 / morquio
237
steinberg sign
marfans
238
hyperparathyroidism features
rugger jersey spine / pepper pot skull / subperiosteal resorption of phalanges
239
histiocytosis x features
button hole sequestrum , floating tooth sign , hole with hole appearance
240
h shaped vertebrae , cup shaped ribs , curved telephone recievers,
thanotrophic dwarfism
241
cold lesion in bone scan is
purely lytic metastasis
242
which type of osteogenesis imperfecta has 100 % fractures in utero
type 2
243
which type of osteogenesis imperfecta has blue sclera
type 1
244
which type of OI has limb shortening and pulmonary ht
type 3
245
which type of OI has short trunk
type 2
246
which type of OI has no bleeding problems
type 4
247
hemangiomas of bone : appearance in bone scan
normal or decreased activity
248
superscan s produced by
metastatic prostatic cancer
249
drooping water lily sign
duplicated renal collecting systems
250
renal fascia sign
acute renal artery occlusion
251
rim crescent sign and soap bubble appearance
hydronephrosis
252
golf hole ureter
tb bladder
253
moth eaten appearance
tb kidney
254
fish hook bladder
BPH
255
sunburst nephrogram , patchy chaotic nephrogram
autosomal recessive polycystic kidney
256
medullary sponge kidney radiographic appearance
paintbrush / bouquet of flowers appearance
257
wind in sail /keyhole appearance
posterior urethral valve
258
edling sign
psuedoureterocoele
259
weigert meyer rule
insertion of upper pole is inferior and medial than lower pole in complete ureteric dilatation
260
earliest sign of inc ICT
Erosion of dorsal sella
261
chicken wire calcification
codmans tumour / chondroblastoma
262
geographical lytic skull / vertebra plana
eosinophilic granuloma/ hans schuller christian disease / histiocystosis
263
vertebra plana also seen in
ewings sasrcoma , metastasis , luekemia , tb , osteochondritis of vertebral body called calve's disease
264
ortho tumour x ray : whisps or flecks of calcification
chondroma
265
chondrosarcoma x ray appearance
mottled / punctuate calicification/ popcorn balls / endosteal scalloping , cortical expansion
266
most common bone affected in chondrosarcoma
pelvis
267
dysprosium isotope use
aggregated hydroxide for synovectomy treatment in arthritis
268
erbium
relieving arthritis pain in synovial joints
269
holmium
diagnosis and treatment of liver tumours
270
Gold standard for assessing myocardial viability
18 FDG pet
271
most common type of lichen planus
hypertrophic type
272
characteristic features of lichen planus
lacey mucosal pattern , scarring alopecia , max joseph histological cleft
273
left horn of sinus venosus
coronary sinus
274
right horn of sinus venosus
smooth part of right atrium
275
superior vena cava is formed from
right anterior cardinal vein and common cardinal vein
