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Elementary Microbiology > Lab Quiz 2 > Flashcards

Lab Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

refers to the information about the metabolism of bacteria

A

Biologic Characters

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2
Q

the chemical reactions that occur within all living organisms

A

metabolism

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3
Q

proteins that catalyze biological reactions

A

enzymes

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4
Q

the majority of enzyme which function inside a cell

A

endoenzymes

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5
Q

many bacteria make these enzymes, which are released from the cell to catalyze reactions outside the cell

A

exoenzymes

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6
Q

chemical reactions that release energy from the decomposition of complex organic molecules

A

catabolism

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7
Q

organic molecules that contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in the ration (CH2O)n

A

carbohydrates

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8
Q

simple sugars containing 3-7 carbons

A

monosaccharides

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9
Q

composed of 2-20 monosaccharide molecules

A

oligosaccharides

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10
Q

the most common oligosaccharide

A

disaccharides

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11
Q

consist of 20 or more monosaccharide molecules

A

polysaccharides

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12
Q

Exoenzymes are mainly _________ that leave the cell and break down, by the addition of water, large substrates into smaller components, which can then be transported into the cell.

A

hydrolytic enzymes

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13
Q

hydrolyzes the polysaccharide starch into smaller carbohydrates

A

amylase

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14
Q

a monosaccharide that can be released by hydrolysis

A

glucose

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15
Q

chemical reaction that requires the presence of molecular oxygen

A

oxidative catabolism

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16
Q

The presence of an _____ is determined by looking for a change in the substrate outside a bacterial colony.

A

exoenzyme

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17
Q

chemical reaction that does not require oxygen but may occur in its presence

A

fermentative catabolism

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18
Q

nutrient semisolid agar deep containing a high concentration of carbohydrate and a low concentration of peptone

A

OF medium

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19
Q

In OF medium, the ____ will support the growth of bacteria that don’t use the carbohydrate.

A

peptone

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20
Q

OF medium contains the indicator ______, which turns _____ in the presence of acids, indicating _____ of the carbohydrate.

A

OF medium contains the indicator bromthymol blue, which turns yellow in the presence of acids, indicating catabolism of the carbohydrate.

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21
Q

________, caused by he use of the peptone and not of carbohydrate, are indicated by a dark blue color due to ________ production.

A

Alkaline conditions, caused by the used of peptone and not of carbohydrate, are indicated by a dark blue color due to ammonia production.

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22
Q

If the carbohydrate is metabolized in both tubes, _____ has occurred.

A

If the carbohydrate is metabolized in both tubes, fermentation has occurred.

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23
Q

Many carbohydrates– including monosaccharides such as _____, disaccharides such as _____, and polysaccharides such as _____ – can be fermented.

A

glucose, sucrose, startch

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24
Q

used to detect acid and gas production from carbohydrates

A

fermentation tube

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25
Q

fermentation that results in acid production will turn the indicator ____ (pH of ___ or below)

A

yellow, 6.8

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26
Q

during prolonged incubation periods (>24 hrs) many bacteria will begin growing _____ on the peptone after exhausting the carbohydrate supplied, causing ____ of the indicator and turning it red because of _____ production.

A

oxidatively, neutralization, ammonia

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27
Q

used to distinguish organisms that produce large amounts of acid from glucose and organisms that produce the neutral product acetoin

A

MRVP broth

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28
Q

MRVP medium in a glucose-supplemented nutrient broth used for what two test?

A

methyl red (MR) test and Voges-Proskauer (V-P) test

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29
Q

If an organism produces a large amount of organic acid from glucose, the medium will remain ___ when methyl red is added in a _____ MR test, indicating that the pH is ______.

A

red, positive, below 4.4

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30
Q

Methyl red is ______ between pH 4.4 and 6.0

A

orange-red

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31
Q

If _____ products are produced, methyl red will turn yellow, indicating a pH _____.

A

neutral, above 6.0

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32
Q

The production of _____ is detected by the addition of potassium hydroxide and alpha-maphthol.

A

acetoin

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33
Q

If acetoin is present the upper part of the medium will turn ____; a negative V-P test will turn the medium _______.

A

red, light brown

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34
Q

Bacteria with the enzyme _____ can break down _____ to from pyruvate, which can be reduced in fermentation.

A

citratelyase, citrate

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35
Q

The indicator ______ changes to blue when the medium is alkalized, indicating a _____ citrate utilization test.

A

bromthymol blue, positive

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36
Q

large organic molecules

A

proteins

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37
Q

subunits that make up a protein

A

amino acids

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38
Q

Amino acids bond together by _____ forming a small chain (_____) or a larger molecule (______).

A

peptide bonds, peptide, polypeptide

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39
Q

Bacteria can hydrolyze the _____ or ______ to release amino acids

A

peptides, polypeptides

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40
Q

used primarily in anabolic reactions

A

amino acids

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41
Q

large protein molecules, such as _____, are hydrolyzed by _____, and the smaller products of hydrolysis are transported into the cell.

A

gelatin, exoenzymes

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42
Q

_______ dissolves in warm water (_____), solidifies (gels) when cooled below _____, and liquefies (sols) when heated to _____.

A

Nutrient gelatin, 50 C, 25 C, 25 C

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43
Q

exoenzyme that hydrolyzes gelatin

A

gelatinase

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44
Q

protein in milk

A

casein

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45
Q

consists of skim milk and the indicator litmus

A

litmus milk

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46
Q

Litmus milk medium is opaque due to ____ in colloidal suspension and the litmus is ____.

A

casein, blue

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47
Q

hydrolysis of the milk proteins

A

peptonization

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48
Q

Litmus milk is also used to detect _____, because litmus turns pink in the presence of acid.

A

lactose fermentation

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49
Q

Excessive amounts of acid will cause ______ of the milk

A

coagulation (curd formation)

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50
Q

_________ will result in an alkaline (purple) reaction of litmus milk.

A

catabolism of amino acids

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51
Q

Some bacteria can _____, causing the litmus indicator to turn white in the bottom of the tube.

A

reduce litmus

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52
Q

waste product of protein digestion and is excreted in the urine

A

urea

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53
Q

enzyme that liberates ammonia from urea

A

urease

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54
Q

contains peptone, glucose, urea, and phenol read. The pH of the prepared medium is 6.8 (phenol red turns yellow)

A

urea agar

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55
Q

During incubation in urea agar, bacteria possessing urease produce _____, which _____ the pH of the medium, turning the indicator _____ at pH ____

A

ammonia, raises, fuchsia, 8.4

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56
Q

After hydrolysis, the pH of urea agar is _____

A

high (basic)

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57
Q

After hydrolysis, gelatin will _____ at 22 C

A

liquefy

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58
Q

the removal of an amino group

A

deamination

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59
Q

removal of carbon dioxide from an amino acid

A

decarboxylation

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60
Q

enzymes that remove hydrogen sulfide H2S from the sulfur-containing amino acids: cysteine and methionine

A

desulfhydrases

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61
Q

performed by inoculating a bacterium into tryptone broth and detecting indole via the addition of dimethylaminobenzaldehyde (_____)

A

indole test, Kovacs reagent

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62
Q

a single culture medium in which motility, indole production, and ornithine decarboxylase activity can be determined

A

MIO

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63
Q

were developed as a means of separating members of the Enterobacteriaceae (enterics), particularly the coliforms, to determine whether water was contaminated with sewage

A

IMViC test

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64
Q

I in IMViC

A

indole production from tryptophan

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65
Q

M in IMViC

A

methyl red test for acid production from glucose

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66
Q

V in IMViC

A

Voges-Proskauer test for production of acetoin from glucose

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67
Q

C in IMViC

A

use of citrate as the sole carbon source

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68
Q

have been developed that provide a large number of results from one inoculation

A

rapid identification methods

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69
Q

generally, ___ kills microbes; ____ inhibits microbial growth

A

heat, cold

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70
Q

name the 5 optimal growth ranges

A

psychrophilic, psychrotrophic, mesophilic, thermophilic, and hyperthermophilic

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71
Q

0C-20C

A

psychrophilic

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72
Q

20C-30C

A

psychrotrophic

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73
Q

25C-40C

A

mesophilic

74
Q

45C-65C

A

thermophilic

75
Q

80C and higher

A

hyperthermophilic

76
Q

denatures enzymes, dehydrates microbes, and kills by oxidation effects

A

dry heat

77
Q

Standard application of dry heat in a hot-air oven is _____ for ___ hours.

A

170C, 2

78
Q

microorganisms that are more or less permanent in the body

A

normal microbiota

79
Q

microbes that are present in the body only for days or weeks

A

transient microbiota

80
Q

discovered the importance of handwashing in preventing disease and the incidence of puerperal fever

A

Ignaz Semmelweis

81
Q

Less _____ occurred in patients attended by midwives, who did not touch cadavers

A

puerperal sepsis

82
Q

single most important procedure for preventing healthcare-associated infections

A

handwashing

83
Q

3-5 minutes of scrubbing with an antimicrobial soap will remove _____

A

transient microbiota

84
Q

disease-producing microorganism

A

pathogen

85
Q

organism that harbors the pathogen

A

host

86
Q

can be spread either directly or indirectly from one host to another

A

communicable diseases

87
Q

cannot be transmitted from one host to another

A

noncommunicable diseases

88
Q

the science that deals with when and where diseases occur and how they are transmitted in the human population

A

epidemiology

89
Q

diseases that are constantly present in the population. give an example

A

endemic diseases; pneumonia

90
Q

When many people in a given area acquire the disease in a relatively short period of time

A

epidemic disease

91
Q

first reported patient in a disease outbreak

A

index case

92
Q

should include the typical symptoms of patients identified as cases in an outbreak investigation

A

case definition

93
Q

disease transmitted when microorganisms are carried on liquid drops from a cough or sneeze. example of direct contact.

A

droplet infection

94
Q

transmitted by contact with contaminated inanimate objects

A

fomites

95
Q

insects and other arthropods that carry pathogens

A

vectors

96
Q

insects carry a pathogen on their feet and may transfer the pathogen to a person’s food

A

mechanical transmission

97
Q

continual source of an infection

A

reservoir

98
Q

humans who harbor pathogens but who do not exhibit any signs of disease

A

carriers

99
Q

compiles data on the incidence of a disease and its method of transmission and tries to locate the source of infection to decrease the incidence

A

epidemiologist

100
Q

gives a visual display of the outbreak’s magnitude and time trend

A

epidemic curve

101
Q

infected persons who did not come in direct contact with the source, but was exposed by another host

A

secondary cases

102
Q

transfers heat energy to the microbial cell more efficiently than dry air, resulting in the denaturation of enzymes

A

moisture

103
Q

name the 3 moist heat methods

A

pasteurization, boiling, and autoclaving

104
Q

In _____, the temperature is maintained at 63 C for 30 minutes, or 72 C for 15 minutes to kill designated organisms that are pathogenic or cause spoilage

A

pasteurization

105
Q

______ (100 C) for 10 minutes will kill vegetative bacterial cells; however, it does not inactivate endospores

A

boiling

106
Q

most effective method of moist heat sterilization

A

autoclaving

107
Q

15 psi, at 121 C for 15 minutes. usually sufficient to kill endospores and render materials sterile

A

standard condition for autoclaving

108
Q

length of time required to kill all bacteria in a liquid culture at a given termperature

A

Thermal Death Time (TDT)

109
Q

the temperature required to kill all bacteria in a liquid culture in 10 inutes

A

Thermal Death Point (TDP)

110
Q

the time, in minutes, in which 90% of a population of bacteria at a given temperature will be killed

A

Decimal Reduction Time (DRT, or D value)

111
Q

in what ways does radiation differ?

A

in wavelength and energy

112
Q

x rays and gamma rays are forms of:

A

ionizing radiation

113
Q

principal effect is to ionize water into highly reactive free radicals that can break strands of DNA

A

ionizing radiation

114
Q

Some ______ wavelengths are essential for biochemical processes.

A

nonionizing

115
Q

nonionizing radiation between 15 and 400 nm

A

ultraviolet (UV)

116
Q

most lethal wavelengths are sometimes called ____, and are in the _____ range

A

biocidal, UVC

117
Q

range 200-290nm and wavelengths corresponding to the optimal absorption wavelengths of DNA

A

UVC

118
Q

____ wavelengths 290-320 nm can also cause damage to DNA

A

UVB

119
Q

____ wavelengths 320-400 nm are not as readily absorbed and are therefore less active on living organisms

A

UVA

120
Q

UV light induces _____ in DNA which results in a mutation

A

thyamine dimers

121
Q

repair mechanism where thyamine dimers are exposed to visible light, photolyases are activated; these enzymes split the dimers, restoring the DNA to its undamaged state

A

light repair, photoreactivation

122
Q

Another repair mechanism, _______, is independent of light. Dimers are removed by endonuclease, DNA polymerase replaces the nucleotides, and DNA ligase seals the sugar-phosphate backbone

A

dark repair

123
Q

types of light for highest energy to lowest

A

gamma rays, x rays, UV, visible light, infrared, microwaves, radiowaves

124
Q

visible light color form highest energy to lowest

A

violet, blue, green, yellow, orange, red

125
Q

wide variety of chemicals available for controlling the growth of microbes

A

antimicrobial agents

126
Q

chemical agents used on inanimate objects to lower the level of microbes on their surfaces

A

disinfectants

127
Q

chemicals used on living tissue to decrease the number of microbes

A

antiseptics

128
Q

result in bacterial death

A

bactericidal agents

129
Q

cause temporary inhibition of growth

A

bacteriostatic agents

130
Q

the standard method for measuring the effectiveness of a chemical agent

A

American Official Analytical Chemist’s use-dilution test

131
Q

which three strains of bacteria are typically used in the use-dilution test

A

salmonella enterica, staphylococcus aureus, and pseudomonas aeruginosa

132
Q

what is the use-dilution test limited to?

A

bactericidal compounds, it cannot evaluate bacteriostatic compounds

133
Q

metal rings are dipped into standardized cultures of test bacteria, removed, and dried. rings are next placed into solution of disinfectant, then transferred to a nutrient medium to permit growth of surviving bacteria

A

use-dilution test

134
Q

infecting an animal with pseudomonas aeruginosa protects them against what?

A

bacillus anthracis

135
Q

(against life), inhibition of a microbes

A

antibiosis

136
Q

a substance produced by a microorganism that inhibits other microorganisms

A

antibiotic

137
Q

produce nearly 70% of all antibiotis

A

streptomyces

138
Q

antimicrobial chemicals used internally, whether natural or synthetic

A

antimicrobial drugs

139
Q

disease-causing organism

A

pathogen

140
Q

petri plate with agar growth medium is inoculated uniformly. paper disks with various antimicrobial agents are placed on the surface of the agar. the agent diffuses from the paper disk, from an area of high concentration to lower. measured by zones of inhibition

A

disk-diffusion method

141
Q

standardized method for agar diffusion methods

A

Kirby-Bauer test

142
Q

agar used in Kirby-Bauer test that allows the antimicrobial agent to diffuse freely

A

Mueller-Hinton agar

143
Q

The ______ of an antibiotic is determined by testing for bacterial growth in dilutions of the antibiotic in nutrient broth.

A

minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

144
Q

eukaryotic cells that can be unicellular or multicellular, and obtain nutrients by absorbing dissolved organic material through their cell walls and plasma membranes.

A

fungi

145
Q

Fungi, with the exception of ____, are aerobic

A

yeasts

146
Q

generally grow better in more acidic conditions and tolerate higher osmotic pressure and lower moisture. larger than bacteria

A

fungi

147
Q

nonfilamentous, unicellular fungi that are typically spherical or oval in shape. frequently found on fruits and leaves as white powdery coating.

A

yeasts

148
Q

when buds fail to detach themselves in yeast, a short chain of cells forms

A

pseudohypha

149
Q

multicellular filamentous fungi

A

molds

150
Q

macroscopic mold colongy

A

thallus

151
Q

mass of strands that forms the thallus

A

mycelium

152
Q

each strand of a mold

A

hypha

153
Q

strands of mold that grow in or on the surface of the growth medium

A

vegetative hyphae

154
Q

aerial hyphae that originate from the vegetative hyphae

A

reproductive hyphae

155
Q

produced by reproductive hyphae

A

spores

156
Q

cross wall that separates individual mold cells

A

septum

157
Q

hyphae that contain a cross wall

A

septate hyphae

158
Q

hyphae that lack septa and are continuous mass of cytoplasm with multiple nuclei

A

coenocytic hyphae

159
Q

fungi are classified into phyla based on similarities in their ___

A

rRNA

160
Q

fungus-like algae

A

oomycota

161
Q

motile asexual spores formed by fungus-like algae

A

zoospores

162
Q

members of phylum are saprophytic molds that have coenocytic hyphae

A

zygomycota

163
Q

obtains its nutrients from dead organic matter, and usually do not cause disease

A

saprophyte

164
Q

zygomycota spore sac

A

sporangium

165
Q

zygomycota asexual spores formed inside the spore sac

A

sporangiospores

166
Q

zygomycota sexual spores formed by the fusion of two cells

A

zygospores

167
Q

include molds with septate hyphae and some yeasts. called sac fungi

A

ascomycota

168
Q

ascomycota sexual spores

A

ascospores

169
Q

ascomycota spore sac

A

ascus

170
Q

saprophytic molds (penicillin, aspergillus) usually produce _____ asexually

A

conidiospores

171
Q

include the fleshy fungi, or mushrooms

A

basidiomycota

172
Q

basidiomycota sexual spores

A

basidiospores

173
Q

club-shaped stalk that produces sexual spores in basidiomycota

A

basidium

174
Q

majority of the fungi classified, few are pathogens

A

saprophytes

175
Q

selective medium commonly used to culture fungi, has low pH that inhibits growth of other organisms, and simple nutrients

A

sabouraud agar

176
Q

nutrients in sabouraud agar

A

glucose and peptone

177
Q

secreted by oil glands and inhibits bacterial growth

A

sebum

178
Q

most bacteria on the skin are _____ and _____

A

gram-positive, salt-tolerant

179
Q

selective media for salt-tolerant organisms

A

mannitol salt agar

180
Q

mannitol salt agar is differential in that mannitol-fermenting organisms will produce acid, turning the indicator in the medium _____

A

yellow

181
Q

enzyme that clots the fibrin in blood

A

coagulase

182
Q

which pathogen produces coagulase?

A

staphylococcus aureus

Elementary Microbiology (45 decks)

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