laboratory tests

Question 1

The usual schedule for antepartum health care visits is every….

Answer 1

4 weeks for the first 28 to 32 weeks,
every 2 weeks from 32 to 36 weeks
every week from 36 to 40 weeks

Question 2

it is performed to determine the woman’s blood type in the ABO antigen
system

Answer 2

ABO typing

Question 3

is done to determine the woman’s blood type in the rhesus antigen system.

Answer 3

Rh typing

Question 4

Rh positive indicates…?

Answer 4

the presence of the antigen

Question 5

Rh negative indicates..?

Answer 5

The absence of
the antigen.

Question 6

If the client is Rh negative and has a negative anti body screen, she will…?

Answer 6

need repeat
antibody screens and should receive Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) at 28 weeks of
gestation.

Question 7

If the client has a negative titer (less than 1:8)…?

Answer 7

indicating susceptibility to the rubella virus,
she should receive the appropriate immunization postpartum

Question 8

The client must be using effective birth control at the time of the immunization and must be
counseled not to become pregnant for 1 to 3 months after immunization

Answer 8

Rubella titer

Question 9

inquire about sensitivity to eggs

Answer 9

Rubella titer

Question 10

Rubella vaccine is not given during pregnancy because

Answer 10

the live attenuated virus may crossthe placenta and present a risk to the developing fetus.

Question 11

decline during gestation as
a result of increased plasma volume

Answer 11

Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels

Question 12

A decrease in the hemoglobin level to less than _____
hematocrit level to less than ____
it indicates ____

Answer 12

10 g/dL (100
mmol/L)

30%

anemia

Question 13

done during the initial prenatal examination to screen for
cervical neoplasia

Answer 13

Papanicolaou’s smear

Question 14

The HCP may prefer to perform this skin test after birth

Answer 14

Tuberculin skin test

Question 14

Screening is indicated for clients at risk for sickle cell disease.

A positive test may indicate a need for ___________

Answer 14

Sickle Cell screening

further screening

Question 15

A positive skin test indicates the need for a chest radiograph (using an abdominal
lead shield) to rule out active disease; in a pregnant client, chest radiography
would not be performed until after 20 weeks of gestation (after the fetal organs
are formed).

Answer 15

Tuberculin skin test

Question 16

Testing for ___________ is recommended for all women
because of the prevalence of the disease in the general population.
Hepatitis B vaccine is not contraindicated during pregnancy

Answer 16

hepatitis antigens

Question 17

A urine specimen for glucose and protein determinations should be obtained at________

Answer 17

antepartum visit

Question 18

______ is a common result of decreased renal threshold that occurs during
pregnancy

Answer 18

Glycosuria

Question 19

If glycosuria persists, it may indicate ______

Answer 19

diabetes

Question 20

White blood cells in the urine may indicate _____

Answer 20

infection

Question 21

______ may result from insufficient food intake or vomiting.

Answer 21

Ketonuria

Question 22

Levels of 2 + to 4 + protein in the urine may indicate ________

Answer 22

infection or preeclampsia.

Question 23

Outlines and identifies fetal and maternal structures

Answer 23

Ultrasonography

Question 24

Assists in confirming gestational age and estimated date of delivery and evaluating amniotic fluid volume (amniotic fluid index), which is done via special measurements

Answer 24

Ultrasonography

Question 25

Can be used to determine the presence of premature dilation of the cervix (incompetent cervix). A transvaginal ultrasound is used during the first trimester to check the length of the cervix

Answer 25

ultrasonography

Question 26

if an abdominal ultrasound is being performed, the woman may need to _______

Answer 26

drink water to fill the bladder before the procedure to obtain a better image of the fetus.

Question 27

Noninvasive assessment of the fetus that includes fetal breathing movements, fetal move ments, fetal tone, amniotic fluid index, and fetal heart rate patterns via a nonstress test

Answer 27

Biophysical profile

Question 28

Noninvasive (ultrasonography) method of studying the blood flow in the fetus and placenta

Answer 28

Doppler blood flow analysis

Question 29

performed if fetal blood sampling is necessary; it involves insertion of a needle directly into the fetal umbilical vessel under ultrasound guidance.

Answer 29

Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling

Question 30

_______ is necessary for 1 hour after the PUBS, and a follow-up ultrasound to check for bleeding or hematoma formation is done 1 hour after the procedure.

Answer 30

Fetal heart rate monitoring

Question 31

Assesses the quantity of fetal serum proteins; abnormal protein levels are associated with open neural tube and abdominal wall defect

Answer 31

α-Fetoprotein screening

Question 32

Assists in screening for spina bifida and Down syndrome

Answer 32

α-Fetoprotein screening

Question 33

α-Fetoprotein level is determined by a maternal blood sample drawn between _______ gestation.

Answer 33

16 and 18 weeks of gestation.

Question 34

Can be used to detect abnormalities related to an inherited condition

Answer 34

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) genetic testing

Question 35

Assists in determining if the woman is at risk for having a fetus with ___________ .

Answer 35

Down syndrome (trisomy 21), Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18), or Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

Question 36

This type of testing can be done as early as 7 weeks of gestation and a blood sample is used

Answer 36

DNA genetic testing

Question 37

Performed for the purpose of detecting genetic abnormalities; the HCP aspirates a small sample of chorionic villus tissue at _____ weeks of gestation.

Answer 37

Chorionic villus sampling 10 to 13

Question 38

Chorionic villus sampling interventions: The client may need to ___________ to aid in the visualization of the uterus for catheter insertion.

Answer 38

drink water to fill the bladder before the procedure

Question 39

Aspiration of amniotic fluid; best performed between ______ weeks of pregnancy because amniotic fluid volume is adequate and many via ble fetal cells are present in the fluid by this time

Answer 39

15 and 20 Amniocentesis

Question 40

Performed to determine genetic disorders, metabolic defects, and fetal lung maturity

Answer 40

Amniocentesis

Question 41

Risks of amniocentesis

Answer 41

a. Maternal hemorrhage b. Infection c. Rh isoimmunization d. Abruptio placentae e. Amniotic fluid emboli f. Premature rupture of the membranes

Question 42

Amniocentesis After chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis, instruct the client that if______ she must notify the HCP

Answer 42

chills, fever, bleeding, leakage of fluid at the needle insertion site, decreased fetal movement, uterine contractions, or cramping occurs,

Question 43

The client sits quietly or lies down on her side and counts fetal kicks as instructed. Instruct the client to notify the HCP if there are fewer than __________ periods or as instructed by the HCP

Answer 43

10 kicks in 2 consecutive 2-hour

Question 44

a microscopic slide test to deter mine the presence of amniotic fluid leakage

Answer 44

Fern Test

Question 45

strip is used to detect the presence of amniotic fluid in vaginal secretions

Answer 45

S. Nitrazine test

Question 46

Sampling of cervical and vaginal secretions for fetal fibronectin (a protein present in fetal tissues normally found in cervical and vaginal secretions until _______ of gestation and again at or near term)

Answer 46

16 to 20 weeks

Question 47

Positive results may indicate the onset of labor in ______- weeks; negative test results are more predictive that preterm labor will not beg

Answer 47

1 to 3 weeks

Question 48

Test is performed to assess placental function and oxygenation

Answer 48

Nonstress test

Question 49

Test determines fetal well-being.

Answer 49

nonstress test

Question 50

Test evaluates the fetal heart rate (FHR) response to fetal movement

Answer 50

nonstress test

Question 51

Nonstress test normal results

Answer 51

Results Reactive Nonstress Test (Normal, Negative) “Reactive” indicates a healthy fetus requires 2 or more FHR accelerations of at least 15 beats/ minute, lasting at least 15 seconds from the begin ning of the acceleration to the end, in association with fetal movement, during a 20-minute period.

Question 52

nonstress test abnormal

Answer 52

No accelerations or accelerations of less than 15 beats/ minute or lasting less than 15 seconds in duration occur during a 40-minute observation.

Question 54

Test assesses placental oxygenation and function.

Answer 54

Contraction Stress Test

Question 55

est determines fetal ability to tolerate labor and deter mines fetal well-being.

Answer 55

Contraction Stress Test

Question 56

Test is performed if nonstress test is abnormal

Answer 56

Contraction stress test

Question 57

Fetus is exposed to the stress of contractions to assess the adequacy of _____ under simulated labor conditions.

Answer 57

placental perfusion

Question 58

normal contraction stress test

Answer 58

Negative Contraction Stress Test (Normal) A negative result is represented by no late decelerations of the fetal heart rate (FHR

Question 59

Contraction Stress Test (Abnormal)

Answer 59

A positive result is represented by late decelerations of the FHR, with 50% or more of the contractions in the absence of hyperstimulation of the uterus

Question 60

equivocal result (contraction test) contains decelerations, but with less than ____ of the contractions, or uterine activity shows a ______.

Answer 60

50% hyperstimulated uterus

Question 61

An unsatisfactory result (contraction test) means that adequate uterine contractions cannot be achieved, or the FHR tracing is of insufficient quality for adequate interpretation

Question 62

Gonorrhea laboratory test

Answer 62

vaginal culture (during initial prenatal examination)

Question 63

syphilis laboratory test

Answer 63

culture of lesions (if present) during initial prenatal examination

Question 64

Condyloma acuminatum (human papillomavirus) laboratory test

Answer 64

Culture is indicated for clients with positive history or with active lesions

Question 65

chlamydia laboratory test

Answer 65

vaginal culture for all pregnant clients

Question 66

trichomoniasis laboratory test

Answer 66

normal saline wet smear

Question 67

genital herpes simplex virus laboratory test

Answer 67

culture is done of lesions (if present)

Question 68

HIV laboratory test

Answer 68

ELISA, Western blot, immunofluorescence assay (IFA)