LATG Motherload Flashcards

1
Q

This fungal infection leads to fatal wasting disease in xenopus laevis. Caused by bacteria Batrachochytrium bendrobatidis. Thickens skin and decreases ability to regulate.

A

Chytridiomycosis

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2
Q

This systemic mycosis is rarely clinical. Can be opportunistic in immunosurpressed animals, causing fatalities.

A

Pneumocytis species

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3
Q

This is a opportunistic yeast in NHP’s

A

Candida albicans and cryptococcus

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4
Q

This can lead to cryptococcal meningitis in guinea pigs.

A

Cryptococus

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5
Q

This is a mold that can cause systemic / lung infections in rabbits, which are somettimes fatal.

A

Aspergillus

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6
Q

This is most commonly caused in lab animal by encephalitzoan cuniculi. It is both zoonotic and opportunistic.

A

Microsporidosis

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7
Q

Can cause lethargy, tremors and paralysis in rabbits. While subclinical in guinea pigs, mice and squirrels.
(Shed in urine if subclinical in rabbits).

A

Microsporidosis

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8
Q

A common pathogen in zebra fish.

A

pseudoloma neurophilia

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9
Q

An infestation is a parasite____of the body.

A

Outside

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10
Q

Flagellates, cilliates, apicomplexans and ameobas are _____ which are __cellular.

A

protozoa, unicellular.

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11
Q

Protozoa have 2 stages, which are:

A

trophozoite and cyst.

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12
Q

Causes zoonotic dysentary

A

entamoeba histolytica

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13
Q

Giardia and trichomonas are both:

A

flagellates

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14
Q

Important cilliate in research that infects NHPs, humans and pigs.

A

Balantidium Coli

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15
Q

Cone shaped intracellular parasite that makes spores outside hosts body.

A

Apicomplexans

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16
Q

This word means ‘worm like”. Includes trematodes, cestodes, nematodes, acanthocephalids and hiradeans.

A

Helmiths

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17
Q

Fluke category. Flat, with oral and ventral suckers. Aquatic snail life cycle. Liver fluke.

A

Trematodes

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18
Q

tapeworms are in this category. Diplidium caninum most common (esp. cats and dogs). Make Hydatid cysts.

A

Cestodes

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19
Q

Whip worms, ascarids, pinworms, hookworms, filaria, leeches, thorny-headed worms are in this category.

A

Nematode, roundworms

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20
Q

These two groups are part of Nematode group as well as their own groups.

A

Leeches and thorny-headed worms

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21
Q

Swine whipworm, no eggs, cysts in muscle.

A

Trichuris spiralis. Causes diarrhea

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22
Q

Toxocara canis, toxocara cati, toxocaris leonima. Commonly seen laboratory parasite.

A

ascarids

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23
Q

Can cross the canine placenta and affect fetuses.

A

toxocara canis

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24
Q

NHP’s, rodents and horses can be affected by this parasite. Fecal-oral transmission. Syphacis spp. and aspicularis.

A

pinworms

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25
Q

Teeth hook onto the hosts intestines and feed on blood. larvae penetrate skin/oral mucosa. Prenatal exposure through dams milk.

A

Hookworms

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26
Q

Hookworm common in cats/dogs

A

Ancyclostoma

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27
Q

Hookworm common in Old world Monkeys

A

Oesophagostoma

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28
Q

Hookworm common in Horses

A

Strongyles

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29
Q

Roundworms that produce tiny larvae instead of eggs. Spread by mosquitoes and blood sucking insects.

A

Filaria

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30
Q

This Filaria causes dog heartworm

A

Dirofilaria immitis

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31
Q

This group has an intermediate host in a roach or beetle.

A

Acanthocephalid

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32
Q

Leeches are:

A

annelid

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33
Q

This leech is found in the nostrils of rheus monkeys.

A

Dinobdella

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34
Q

Examples of arthropods

A

arachnids, insects, pentastomids

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35
Q

Spiders, scorpians, ticks and mites are all:

A

arachnids

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36
Q

Arachnids all have:

A

4 pairs of legs, lifecycle: egg, larvae, nymph, adult.

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37
Q

Acariasis is:

A

an infestation of mites or ticks

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38
Q

This lung mite effects Old World macaques and leaves small nodules on the tissue.

A

Pneumonyssus simicola

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39
Q

Psoroptes coniculi

A

rabbit ear mite

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40
Q

3 pairs of legs/ sometimes wings

A

insects

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41
Q

There are 2 types of lice. What are they and what is different about their appearance?

A

Sucking and chewing. Sucking have a narrow head while chewing have a wide head.

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42
Q

What do all lice have in common?

A

Both are flat, with short antennae and no wings.

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43
Q

Pediculosis is

A

a lice infection

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44
Q

All lice are ___ ___ and spread through ___ ___.

A

species specific, direct contact

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45
Q

Polyplax serrata is a:

A

typical mouse louse

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46
Q

This worm is zoonotic, with a tongue shaped anterior. Sometimes referred to as the tongue-worm.

A

Pentastomids

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47
Q

Pentastomids effect what areas of the body?

A

Skin, subcutaneous tissue of reptiles, respiratory tract.

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48
Q

Ivermectin

A

antiparasitic medication

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49
Q

Why should you be cautious using antibiotics to treat Diarrhea?

A

Only use broad spectrum. This is to not disturb local/appropriate intestinal flora.

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50
Q

Other name for a hairball.

A

Trichobezoar

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51
Q

This animal cannot get rid of a hairball because they cannot vomit.

A

Rabbit

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52
Q

Highly contagious in mouse colonies, though most outbreaks are subclinical. Can cause severe diarrhea and infant death, as well as contaminate inplantable tumors and cell lines.

A

Mouse Hepatitis Virus (MHV)

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53
Q

How to remove MHV from colony.

A

Cesarean or embryo transfer rederivation to save valuable lines/strains.

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54
Q

GI disease that is always subclinical. Difficult to get rid of due to resistance to disinfectants. Embryo rederivation to re-establish colony.

A

Mouse Parvovirus MPV

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55
Q

Presents in infant mouse 1st two weeks of life. Watery yellow stool. Adults show no clinical signs.

A

Epizootic Diarrhea of Infant Mice (EDIM)

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56
Q

Most wide-spread mouse viral infection. Spread fecal-oral. Can be clinical/subclinical in immunodeficient mice. Can cause hunching, pneumonia, hepatitis and menigitis.

A

Mouse Norovirus (MNV)

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57
Q

Ususally subclinical, though rectal prolapse and rough hair coats can occur. Eggs are hard to remove from the environment. Chlorine dioxide, ethylene oxide fumigation and dry heat can work.

A

Pinworms

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58
Q

These pinworms can be located using a tape test, because eggs are deposited on the perineum.

A

Syphacia spp.

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59
Q

These pinworms need a fecal flotation to be detected because eggs are deposited in the colon.

A

Aspicularis Tetrapetra

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60
Q

Medicated rodent feed can be used to treat mouse colonies infected with pinworms. What is the feed medicated with?

A

Fenbendazole

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61
Q

This bacteria can be found in mice and rats. Causes intestinal inflamation and hepatic neoplasia.

A

Helicobacter spp. (primarily helicobacter hebaticus)

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62
Q

This type of helicobacter spp. Causes IBD in SCID mice.

A

Helicobacter bilius.

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63
Q

What is a good way to get rid of helicobacter in a colony?

A

fostering pups to helicobacter-free mom

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64
Q

How is Helicobacter spread and detected?

A

fecal-oral and PCR

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65
Q

Corynebacterium bovis is:

A

a bacterium that causes scaly skin in athymic mice. Highly virulent with low mortality. Cannot be reduced in microisolator or class II biosafety cabinets

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66
Q

Scaly skin in mice is also called:

A

Hyperkeratotic dermatitis

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67
Q

new/rarely seen respiratory tract disease in rats. Causes head tilt and can easily become endemic. More likely to die if stressed.

A

Mycoplasmosis pulmonis

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68
Q

Caused by P. Calinic in rats, P. muina in mice and P.oryctolagi in rabbits

A

Pneumocytosis

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69
Q

Inflammation in lungs, in 8-12 wk old rats. Adult rats have no signs. Increased death during anesthesia. Treatment is usually unsuccessful.

A

Pneumocytosis

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70
Q

Idiopathic Ulcerative Dermatitis (IUD)

A

Can be mistaken for fight wound. Shoulders and back of c57/b6

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71
Q

Highly contagious carona virus of rats. Affects lacrimal, salivary, and harderian glands. May be subclinical. Decrease in appetite, may lose weight or fail to grow. Eye lesions , may die during anesthesia.

A

Sialodacryoadentitis Virus (SDAV)

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72
Q

Zoonotic disease that is most dangerous to human fetuses. Usually subclinical in hamsters and mice. Virus shed in tears and urine, with virus staying in kidneys for months. Infected colony should be euthanized.

A

Lymphacytic Choriomeningitis Virus

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73
Q

Caused by Clostridium piliforme, zoonotic in all mammals. Diarrhea or subclinical. Confirm with PCR or serum or feces. Anti sporal sterilant needed.

A

Tyzzers Disease.

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74
Q

Nasal Dermatitis / Sore Nose

A

Gerbils, Increase secretion of Harderian glands. Caused by stress/overcrowding and increased humidity. Poryphin irritates skin and predisposis to staphlococcal bacteria.

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75
Q

Can cause death in Guinea pigs, associated with Bordetella bronchiseptica and streptococcal pneumonia. Anorexia, ruffled fur, dyspnea and nasal discharge.

A

Bacterial pneumonia

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76
Q

Because rabbits can be subclinical carriers of this disease, they are not housed with Guinea pigs.

A

Bacterial pneumonia

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77
Q

Pododermatits or___ most commonly effects guinea pigs and rabbits. May also lead to staphylococcus aureus infection

A

Bumblefoot

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78
Q

Rabbits can be asymptomatic or have nasal discharge, head tilt or ear infection. Abscesses in multiple organs.

A

Pasteurellosis/ Pasterella multocida.

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79
Q

Fatal viral infection in ferrets that is also common in dogs. Nasal and ocular discharge, fever, inappetance, photophobia. May be followed by ataxia, tremors and paralysis.

A

Canine Distemper

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80
Q

Ferrets should be given the ferret vaccine and not the canine vaccine for which disease.

A

Canine distemper

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81
Q

Chronic wasting due to parvovirus. Weight loss, lethargy, tremors, paralysis. Major immunological changes.

A

Aleutian disease

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82
Q

tumors in inlet cells of pancreas. Hypoglycemia, coma, death. Perdnisone and high protein diets, corn syrup in acute cases. Tumors can be removed, but nodules can occur.

A

insulinomas

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83
Q

Increase of estrogen in female ferrets from not breeding. Decrease in erythrocytes/anemia. Terminate estrus w/ gonadotropine hormone or ovariohysterectomy.

A

Aplastic anemia

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84
Q

Kennel cough or _____ ______which is usually mild and/or self-limiting. Can be caused by: Bordatella bronchioseptica, canine adenovirus, parainfluenza, canine herpes virus. Causes dry cough and oral discharge. 15-20 days. Vaccinate.

A

Infectious Tracheabronchitis

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85
Q

Acute intestinal disease that effects the very old and very young. Body temperature can increase to 41 degrees Celcius. WBC decreases. Rapidly detect virus in feces.

A

Canine parvo

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86
Q

Otits Externa is caused by:

A

Mites,(otodectus cynotis)

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87
Q

Heartworm is caused by what parasite?

A

Dirofilaria immitis

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88
Q

After 6-9 months, dogs with heartworm will have adult worms in which chamber?

A

Right atrium and pulmonary artery.

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89
Q

Frequent, painful, difficult urination, hemauria and straining. Uroliths. Males contract this more frequently. Increase Water, decrease pH.

A

Feline Lower Urinary Tract Disease (FLUTD).

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90
Q

In Cats, Otitis Externa is caused by:

A

Mites, or notoederes cati, or malassezia pachydermatis

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91
Q

Feline Respiratory Disease is usually complicated by a secondary bacterial infection. It can be caused by what two viruses? Both of which can be vaccinated for.

A

Feline Viral Rhinotrachitis (FVR) and Feline Calicivirus (FCV).

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92
Q

This disease notably has an interdermal tuberculin test in the eyelid. Slow progression by Mycobacterium tuberculosis or Mycrobacterium bovi. OWM (macaques) are more susceptible than NWM. Usually contracted from humans. Caught through inhalation.

A

Tuberculosis

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93
Q

This viral infection can be caught by NHP from humans. Rash and upper respiratory signs. Pneumonia, meningitis, abortion of fetus. Humans can be vaccinated from this disease.

A

Measles

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94
Q

OWM (macaques) are often carriers. Usually asymptomatic, though oral leisons or ulcers can occur. Zoonotic and fatal to humans. Can be passed through cuts/bites/blood/urine. Antiviral drugs are available.

A

B virus

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95
Q

Simian retrovirus is latent and persistent. Can suppress____ _____and produce ____. Possibly fatal. Use PCR of serum or feces to detect.

A

Immune system, tumors

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96
Q

Ricketsial disease caused by coxiella burnetti. Passed through body fluids, placenta,aerosal. Human sysmptoms are ususally mild and easily confused with influenza. But may lead to bacterial endocarditis (fatal). Found mostly in sheep, but also cattle, goats, cats and humans.

A

Q fever

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97
Q

This disease has 3 names. poxvirus. Sheeps and goats primarily, but zoonotic. Endemic in sheep herds.

A

Orf/sore mouth/ cotnagious ecthyma

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98
Q

Bacterial infection involving pasterella multicidocida.
Sheep and goats primarily. Can Cause septicemia. Respiratory disease and mastitis. Opportunistic bacteria. Can happen as 2ndary infection.

A

Pasteurellosis

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99
Q

Cessation or reduction in motility in ruminant stomach. Associated w/ grain-heavy diet or sudden diet change, which changes ph in rumen. Signs: lack of rumen sounds, inappetence, diarrhea. Treat w/ warm saline & electrolytes. Extreme cases: canalization, wash out rumen w/ warm saline and reestablish microflora.

A

Stasis

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100
Q

Caused by acid erosion of stomach mucosa. Due to stress or feed-induced hyperacidity. Listless, anorexic, dark/bloody stool

A

Gastric ulcers (swine)

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101
Q

Build up of gasses. Reticulum or rumen. Can make incision to relieve pressure.

A

Bloat

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102
Q

Endemic and multifactorial. Acute and limited influenza, swine fever, porcine circovirus disease (PCVD). Persistant: atropic rhinitis, mycoplasma pneumonia. Minimize housing density, increase ventilation, temperature control, SPF animals, quarantine new animals.

A

Respiratory disease

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103
Q

caused by low water intake. Lactating sows are susceptible. Increased thirst and constipation, oblivious to surroundings, seizures, death. Slowly re-introduce water to decrease chance of brain swelling.

A

Salt toxicity/hypernatremia

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104
Q

Abortion, still birth, fatal respiratory disease in piglets. Disease can cross placental barrier. Subclinical in adults. Vaccinate.

A

Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome Virus (PRRSV)

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105
Q

Porcine Circovirus (PCV 2)

A

Wasting, poor growth, diarrhea, jaundice, anemia, immunological defects. Aerosal, fecal-oral, contact.

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106
Q

Opportunistic bacteria on skin surface. Enter broken skin. Septicemia, fever arthritis, death. Antibiotics, topical antiseptic.

A

Staphylococcus Hyicus (swine)

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107
Q

Systemic bacterial infection in joints. Sudden swollen joints sensitive to touch, lameness. Antibiotics.

A

Joint disease (swine)

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108
Q

Metabolic disease of skeletal muscle. Genetic, particular breeds are predisposed. Triggered by halogenated anesthetic, neuromuscular blockers, stress , exercise. Increease temperature, muscle rigidity and rapid heart rate. Fatal unless treated early. Screen swine for genetic disposition.

A

Malignant Hyperthermia (swine)

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109
Q

Bacterial septicemia in frogs. Sudden temperature change, increase in population density, dietary change, stress. Bacteria aeromonas hydrophilia. Lack of movement, skin hemorrhage (central around legs). Erosion around toes, feet, jaws. Bacteriocidal antibiotics.

A

Red leg

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110
Q

Pseudocapillaroides xenopi nemotode found in xenopus laevis skin. Can be subclinical. Parasite overload leads to decreased egg production, dry/rough skin, skin hemorrhage, inappetance, death. Anthelnintics/levanisole to treat.

A

Cutaneous Capillariasis

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111
Q

Fungus Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis. Xenopus can affect wild population.Can cause thickening of skin, which makes hydration, respiration, thermoregulation, and osmotic pressure control difficult. Loss of righting, loss of flight reflexes, convulsions, death. PCR/itroconozole antifungal medication.

A

Chytridiomycosis

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112
Q

Distention of body cavity by fluid. Bacterial infection of Aeromonas hydrophilia. Float on top pf tank, can treat with antibiotics, but usually fatal.

A

Hard bloat/dropsy (frog)

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113
Q

Metabolic disorder of liver and kidneys. Bath in epsen salt water.

A

Soft bloat/edema (frog)

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114
Q

opportunistic Flavobacterium Columnare. Poor water quality, overfeeding, stress. Skin discoloration, erosive lesions. Bath in chlorumine T at 6-15ppm.

A

Bacterial Gill disease/Fin Rot

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115
Q

4 types, subclinical to death. Emaciation, skin ulcerations, nodules in abdominal cavity. Resistant to antibiotics as well as bleach and quanternary ammonium used to clean tanks. Remove sick/dead fish as is spread by canabalism of dead fish. Zoonotic, can cause non-healing granulomas on human skin.

A

Mycobacteriosis

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116
Q

Flagellate Piscenoodinium pillulare. skin and gills. Opportunistic with stress. Velvity film, gold/rust color on Skin. Flashlight can be used to see clearer. Labored breathing and irritated skin. Atabrine and sea salt.

A

Velvet disease

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117
Q

Most common in freshwater fish in captivity. Fungal parasite Pseudoloma neurophilia. spinal curvature and emaciation. Funafillion (antifungal). Expose tank to UV light sterilization before recirculation. Bleach embryos and remove sick/emaciated fish to remove parasite.

A

Microsporidiosis

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118
Q

Nematode Pseudocapillaria tomentosa. Gut endoparasite causes wasting disease. Can cause internal cancer. Anthelnitics can remove parasite from fish and water. SPF suppliers.

A

Intestinal Capillariasis

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119
Q

Skin nodules. Ciliate protozoa Ichthyophthirius multifiliis. Infests epithelium and gills. Excessive mucus., white spots, lethargic. Repeated formulin bath of 1:5000.

A

Ich/white spot disease

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120
Q

Caused by supersaturation of dissolved air in water system. Excess air absorbed in gills, then bubbles form in blood and body. Sudden death of multiple fish may be only sign. Gill Hemorrhage, open mouth respiration (gaping) pertruding eyes w or w/o bubbles. Eliminate source of super saturation of air.

A

Gas Bubble Disease

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121
Q

Fish excrete amonia in waste directly into tank water. In established tank, bacteria breaks down to nitrates which are harmless. The bacteria species necessary for this take 4-8 weeks to grow large enough in number. Large numbers of fish in a new tank increase the risk of ammonia poisoning. To avoid, seed new tank with small amount of fish and increase number slowly over several weeks.

A

New Tank Syndrome

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122
Q

Most endoparasites can be detected with what?

A

Fecal test

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123
Q

This is the least accurate type of fecal test due to small sample size.

A

Fecal smear

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124
Q

This is the primary method of identifying protozoan parasites of the GI.

A

Direct smear

125
Q

This test involves fecal matter plus zinc sulfate/magnesium sulfate and sugar. Centrifuge tube or let sit. Put slide on top of meniscus. Parasite eggs will float to the top.

A

Fecal flotation

126
Q

For flukes and lungworm. Fecal sample in cheesecloth and immerse in warm water inside funnel. Larvae (nematode) settle at bottom where sample is collected to examine under microscope.

A

Fecal Sedimentation (Baernam method)

127
Q

Tape tests or PCR of fecal samples are used as:

A

Pinworm detection.

128
Q

A skin scrape can be used to find:

A

ectoparasites

129
Q

Automatic cell counters/ automated hematology analyzer are used for which test?

A

CBC/hemogram

130
Q

Red blood cells are typically expressed in what units?

A

Millions of cells per microliter.ex: 10.2 X 10^6uL

131
Q

PCV or packed cell volume is another name for what?

A

Hematocrit

132
Q

This parasite found in dogs can sometimes be seen in a hematocrit tube.

A

Dirofilaria immitis/ heartworms

133
Q

Unlike RBCs, White blood cells are counted in what units?

A

Thousands per microliter. 4.2 X 10^3uL.

134
Q

These cells are usually found btwn 50,000-100,000 per uL. Less is an indication of hemorrage. These cells also increase with surgery or stress.

A

Platelets/thrombocytes.

135
Q

At what angle do you hold the slide in your hand when doing a blood smear?

A

30 degrees.

136
Q

This test helps with white blood cell differentiationn. Percent of white blood cell types.

A

Leukogram

137
Q

On A leukogram N:L is what?

A

Ratio of neutrophils to lymphocyte. appropriate ratio varies by species.

138
Q

Heterophils (45-75%) are the same as what in some animal species? And increase with bacterial infection or tissue damage.

A

Neutrophils

139
Q

Monocytes are found at what percentage of the blood?

A

3-5%

140
Q

Neutropenia, or low neutrophil count is indicitive of what?

A

viral disease

141
Q

Bands are normally found at what percent?

A

1-3%

142
Q

What are a high number of bands a sign of?

A

Neutrophils are fighting an infection

143
Q

Lymphocytes are usually found at what percent?

A

25-40%

144
Q

What is a high percentage of lymphocytes indicitive of?

A

infection or leukemia. (low number can be a range of reasons)

145
Q

Eosinophils are usually seen at what percent?

A

2-5%

146
Q

An increase of eosinophils is a sign of what?

A

allergic reaction, parasitic worms or flukes.

147
Q

Basophils have __granuals and are seen at __percent.

A

blue, one

148
Q

Basophils are part of what response?

A

Initiate inflammatory response.

149
Q

Platelets are derived from what cell?

A

Megakaryocytes

150
Q

Serum chemistry is the same as

A

Clinical chemistry

151
Q

Serology is:

A

the study of serum for the presence of antibodies.

152
Q

What is seroconversion?

A

The presence of an antibody, confirming antigen exposure has occured.

153
Q

What tests can be used on a serum titer?

A

ELISA or immunofluresence.

154
Q

Muscle injury, resulting in myoglobin in the urine is called what?

A

Myoglobinuria

155
Q

Specific gravity is measured with what instrument?

A

Refractometer

156
Q

How many decimal places are said when using refractometry measurements?

A

3

157
Q

Do fungi or bacteria take longer to grow on media?

A

Fungi

158
Q

This disease agent cannot be grown on media.

A

Viruses

159
Q

When viruses need to be harvest, how are they grown?

A

In tissue, Embryonated chicken eggs, cell culture or serum. (easier to do PCR).

160
Q

What is histopathology?

A

Microscopic evaluation of tissues for changes in structure.

161
Q

1) fix tissue w/ 10% neutral buffered formalin. 2) amount of preservative is 20x tissue mass by volume. Tissues left overnight. 3) tissue cut smaller and immersed in paraffin. 4) paraffin cut in 5 micron sections w/ blade called: microtome. 5) if samples heat-sensitive may be fixed with paraformaldehyde and sucrose.

A

Steps for histopathology

162
Q

What is a mocrotome

A

Blade used for cutting paraffin

163
Q

What is gadolinium?

A

Contrast medium used to target tumors and blood vessels. (In mri)

164
Q

X-rays __ wavelength allows them to penetrate tissues.

A

Short

165
Q

X-rays produce what type of radiation?

A

Ionizing radiation

166
Q

Faxitron is what?

A

A vertical x-ry cabinet.

167
Q

Fluroscopy is a “___ __” radiograph in __ __. Used in ___.

A

Moving picture, real-time, angiography

168
Q

Fluroscopy ____the amount of radiation exposure.

A

Increases

169
Q

Computed Tonography is also known as what?

A

Ct scan or cat scan

170
Q

X-ray film replaced w/ detector that puts image on screen. Beam rotates 360 degrees and produces 100 slice images per rotation.

A

CAT Scan

171
Q

This is a smaller CT used for smaller animals that has higher resolution.

A

Micro CT

172
Q

Positive Emission Tonography and Single Photon Emission Computed Tonography are known as what?

A

PET and SPET.

173
Q

Radioactive isotiopes to visualize biological processes. Blood flow, cell membrane transport, metabolism, chemical synthesis. Radioactive C, O, N or fluorine can be attached to imaging agents. (Such as glucose).

A

PET/Spect

174
Q

The difference between a PET and SPET is:

A

The isotopes used

175
Q

Thermography is:

A

Measuring infared radiation in 900-400 nanometers.

176
Q

H2O and lipids have magnetic fields that “align” atoms with magnetic field present and ‘go back’ w/o magnetic field. When h2o and lipids return to original position, a radio frequency is emitted and captured by what?

A

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

177
Q

With MRI, brightness ___ with intensity from tissue.

A

Increases

178
Q

A fluorescent probe is called what?

A

Fluorophore

179
Q

Creates colored images based off of UV light exposure. Good technique for infection or tumor growth. Imaging and cleavage used.

A

Fluorophore

180
Q

Animals should be fed a chlorophyll free diet if planning to undergo these 2 procedures, because chlorophyll can interrupt signal.

A

Fluoroscopy or bioluminescence

181
Q

Bioluminescence uses what to oxidize and produce signals?

A

Luciferase

182
Q

This provides the scientific rationale behind prescribing a particular drug.

A

Pharmacology

183
Q

In pharmacology, the “4 hows” are:

A

How much, how long, how often and howgiven

184
Q

A drugs action can lead to 1 of 3 things:

A

Efficacy, toxicity, or no effect

185
Q

Pharmacokinetics studies ADME, which stands for:

A

Absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion

186
Q

In ADME, absorption refers to:

A

Compound going into the bloodstream

187
Q

Dosing routes from fastest to slowest absorption:

A

IV, IP, IM, SQ, PO

188
Q

Administration delivers drug directly into bloodstream. Peak concentration is immediate.

A

IV

189
Q

Administration goes to peritoneum, then capillaries, then bloodstream.

A

IP

190
Q

Administration goes to tissues then to bloodstream.

A

IM AND SQ

191
Q

Stomach then small intestine then bloodstream

A

PO

192
Q

Controlled release medications (sustained or extended) control what?

A

Rate of absorption and last longer.

193
Q

Examples of controlled release:

A

Transdermal patches, osmotic pumps, liposomes, capsules.

194
Q

Distribution

A

Chemical properties and physiological condition control distribution of drug. Tissues with high concentration of blood flow receive higher concentrationof drug.

195
Q

Tissues that recieve higher concentration of blood:

A

Brain kidney lungs heart liver

196
Q

Molecules that are a result of the breakdown of a drug are called:

A

Metabolites

197
Q

2 major organs that break down drug into metabolites:

A

1) liver, 2) kidney

198
Q

Rodents have __ metabolic rates than larger animals.

A

Faster

199
Q

Analgesic buprenorphine in a mouse lasts ___ and in a dog lasts ___.

A

3-4hrs, 6-8hrs

200
Q

Morphine causes a manic excitement phase in this species, while it creates depression in others.

A

Cats

201
Q

Cats are morse susceptible to this toxicity than other animals.

A

Acetaminophen toxicity

202
Q

Drugs injected into reptiles may be metabolized differently…..

A

In the cranial and causal halves.

203
Q

Drugs may behave differently when injected into reptiles, depending on body location because:

A

The renal portal system drains the caudal half of the body to the kidneys.

204
Q

In some species of ___ venous blood goes straight to the liver.

A

Reptiles

205
Q

Drug admin can be affected by:

A

Sex hormones and pregnancy.

206
Q

These animals have an issue with metabolizing compounds due to age:

A

Fetuses, neonates, older animals

207
Q

Drug interactions:

A

Additive, potentiation, synergism, antagonism

208
Q

Additive (drug interaction)

A

Drug effect increases with addition of drug. Basis for multimodal drug therapy.

209
Q

Potentiation

A

Increase of 1st drug effect with addition of 2nd drug. 2nd drug has little effect on its own.

210
Q

Synergism ( drug interaction)

A

Addition of a 2nd drug increase effect well beyond what either drug can do on its own.

211
Q

Antagonism

A

Think antidotes given, one drug interfered with the effect of other.

212
Q

Safety of a drug is its/

A

Therapeutic index

213
Q

Ratio comparing effective dose to toxic dose.

A

Therapeutic index: LD50/ED50

214
Q

LD50

A

Lethal dose in 1/2 population

215
Q

ED50

A

Effective dose in 1/2 population

216
Q

Dose rate

A

Quantity of drug per weight (ex:mg/kg)

217
Q

Dose

A

What is administered

218
Q

Trade name=

A

Proprietary name

219
Q

FDA regulates drugs available on the market. What branch of the FDA does the same for animal medications?

A

Center of Veterinary Medicine

220
Q

This schedule drug has the highest level for addiction

A

1

221
Q

If approved by FDA. A drug is considered pharmaceutical grade. What organizations state that pharmaceutical grade drugs must be used when available?

A

OLAW and USDA

222
Q

When can an expired drug be used?

A

Acute study where the animal is anesthetized and will be euthanized w/o recovery.

223
Q

This drug carries drugs across intact skin:

A

Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)

224
Q

Antibiotics come in 3 categories

A

Gram +, gram -, broadspectrum

225
Q

‘Sulfer drugs’.?Either sufradiazine w/ trimethopram or sulfadimethoxine. broad spectrum. Used in immunosuppressed mice drinking water to prevent pneumocystis.

A

Sulfonomides

226
Q

Broad spectrum. Multiple species. Treats E. Coli, salmonella shisilla. enrofloracin is commonly used, usually diluted if given via injection.

A

Fluoroquinolone

227
Q

Neomycin, gentamicin, kanamycin. Gram -. Possible ear and kidney toxicity.

A

Aninoglycosides

228
Q

Gram +, procaine ___ and benziline together as injectable is common combination. Ampicillin and amoxicillin are part of family.

A

Penicillin

229
Q

Can be deadly in hamsters, guinea pigs, and with prolonged use, rabbits because gut flora in these animals is gram + as opposed to others which are gram -.

A

Penicillin

230
Q

Lack of gram + flora in gut can lead to ___ in hamsters, guinea pigs, rabbits.

A

Enterotorpenia

231
Q

Gram + bacteria that is resistant to penicillins

A

Cephalosporins

232
Q

Cefadroxil is a

A

Cephalosporin

233
Q

Metronidazole most commonly used. Can be used against bacteria, aneorbic bacteria, protozoa (amoeba, giardia, trichonomas).

A

Nitrinidazole

234
Q

Ketaconozole, itraconazole and anphotericin are all

A

Antifungals

235
Q

Oral, IP or topically. Diluted if injected. Can be used against nematode or mites/lice. In some species can cross blood/brain barrier, causing neurological effects. Can be fatal in some breeds of dogs.

A

Ivermectin

236
Q

Mainly nematodes, can be put in medical feed.

A

Fenbendazole

237
Q

Nematodes, safe across many species

A

Pyrantel panorate

238
Q

External insecticides. Produced by chrysantheum plants. Powder, spray or dip. Safe except for cats, amphibians and fish.

A

Pyrenthrins

239
Q

Treats mainly cats and dogs for tapeworms

A

Prazinquantel

240
Q

Produced naturally by adrenal glands. Also provide pain relief and an immunosupressive through leukocytes.

A

Steroidal anti-inflammatory/ Glucocorticoid.

241
Q

Dexamethasone, triamcinolone, prednisone.

A

Steroidal anti-inflammatory/ Glucocorticoid.

242
Q

Inhibits proataglandin production. Should not be given with steroids due to tendency to cause ulcers together.

A

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)

243
Q

Meloxicam, flunixin, carprofen, robenacoxib, hetoprofen

A

NSAIDS

244
Q

Biologics

A

vaccines, tissues, cells, microbes, gene therapies, blood

245
Q

Nocireceptor

A

nerves specifically for pain response

246
Q

Anesthesia Stage 1:

A

Voluntary movement: Initial administration to unconscious. Animal may become excited.

247
Q

Anesthesia Stage 2:

A

Delirium/Involuntary movement: Loss of consciousness, regular breathing pattern. Reflexes still present, should not intubate.

248
Q

Anesthesia Stage 3:

A

Surgical anesthesia: loss of reflexes and muscle relaxation. Can be intubated. 3 planes of anesthesia are here.

249
Q

Plane 1: (anesthesia)

A

Light plane: eyeball movement and skeletal muscle reflexes. Sufficiant for chemical immobilzation and nonpainful procedures.

250
Q

Plane 2: (anesthesia)

A

Medium plane: suitible for most surgical procedures. Respiration and pulse stable, no reflexes.

251
Q

Plane 3: (anesthesia)

A

Deep Plane: maybe required for some procedures. Respiration severely depressed. Animal breathes through diaphram, not ribcage. ventilator used to support breathing.

252
Q

Anesthesia Stage 4:

A

Extreme CNS depression: due to anesthetic overdose. CNS depression, respiratory and circulatory failure, death if not resuscitated.

253
Q

Anesthetic induction:

A

When anesthesia is 1st administered.

254
Q

Anesthetic maintinence:

A

keep animal in appropriate plane for procedure.

255
Q

anesthetic recovery:

A

animal is allowed to wake up.

256
Q

These animals do not need to be fasted before surgery because they cannot vomit.

A

Rodent and rabbits

257
Q

This rodent should be be fasted if they are going to be intubated, because of the food material in pharynx could enter tube.

A

Guinea pigs.

258
Q

This type of anesthesia should be given to affect.

A

Intravenous

259
Q

These drugs are used to block Acetylcholine to prevent decrease in heart rate and increase in saliva. Atropine and glycopyrolate are examples.

A

Anticholinergics

260
Q

Acepromazine, acetylpromizine and Chlorpromazine are examples. Reduce anxiety and cause muscular relaxation. Sedative affects are addictive. Can be used IP, IV, SC and IM. Full action 5-10min IP or IM. Full action 15-30 min SC. Cause dilation and hypotension, especially in enterenitis.

A

Phenothiazine tranquilizers

261
Q

Xylazine and dexmetatoidine are examples. sedatives with some analgesic properties. Decrease heart rate and blood pressure. Can be given all routes, but given slowly IV with reduced dose.

A

Alpha -2 Adrinergic agonist

262
Q

atripanezole (andtisedan)

A

is indicated for the reversal of the sedative and analgesic effects of dexmedetomidine (dexdomitor)

263
Q

yohibine is a reversal for:

A

xylazine

264
Q

diazepam and midazolam. Some tranquilizationand sedation. Usually used as muscle relaxers with ketamine (Which is dissociative). Diazepam is usually givenIV since causes pain IM. Routes IM and IV.

A

Benzodiazepine tranquilizer

265
Q

This is preffered in rabbits, since rabbits have atropinase that would break down atropine. Can be given IV, IM, SC.

A

Glycopyrrolate.

266
Q

Classified by duration of action: long, intermediate, short and ultra-short. Only short and ultra-short used for anesthesia.

A

Barbituates

267
Q

Mostly just used with mice. Short term anesthetic and anelgesic. Several weeks after injection can cause intestinal ileus. Made fresh with each intended use, stored at 4 degrees C.

A

Tribromoethenol

268
Q

excessive muscular tone, respiratory depression mild, catalepsy, limited analgesic. Stimulates heart and increase blood pressure. All routes, but IM and SC painful.

A

Dissociative anesthetics.

269
Q

Controlled substances. ___ alone sometimes causes convulsions. Should be given with tranquilizer or sedative.

A

Ketamine, Tiletamine (comes with zolazepram)

270
Q

Commonly used anesthetic cocktails

A

xylazine /acepromazine, Telazol (tiletamine and zolazepram)

271
Q

Preserves respiratory and cardiovascular reflexes. 8 hrs of anesthesia with single dose. Reserved for terminal procedures.

A

Alpha-cholerase

272
Q

lasts 8-10 hrs. Minimal respiratory/cardiac effects. Carcinogenic (give in hood & proper ppe). Used in lengthy terminal procedures.

A

Urethane

273
Q

Often used as a paralytic agent. Can cause paralysis of respiratory muscles at high enough levels. ventilator/positive pressure ventilator can be used to assist breathing.

A

Neuromuscular blocks (pancuronium, vancuronium, succylcholine.

274
Q

This is available for fish, amphibian and aquatic animal anesthesia. Immersing animal in 5-50 mg/mL solution. Temperature of solution should be the same as water animal is in. Fish/animal recovers when placed in untreated water. At high levels used as euthanasia agent.

A

Tricane methansulfate./MS-222

275
Q

These are common local anelgesics.

A

Lidocaine, bubivicane

276
Q

This organization organized the color coding of gas tanks.

A

Compressed gas association (CGA)

277
Q

The color of gas cylinders is/is not regulated by the FDA and around the world?

A

Is not

278
Q

Is not a complete anesthetic. Has some analgesic and muscle relaxing properties. Enhances anesthetic gas experiences. Compressed liquid, not gas.

A

Nitrous oxcide.

279
Q

Rebreathing systems are used for ___ animals , while non-rebreathing systems are used for ___ animals.

A

large, small

280
Q

Covered chamber and open drop anesthetic systems are only used for:

A

rodents

281
Q

Flowmeters use these units

A

LPM: liters per minute

282
Q

WAGS

A

Waste anesthetic gas

283
Q

How often should vitals be checked on an anesthetized animal?

A

Every 5-10 minutes.

284
Q

You can check the femoral artery for a pulse on:

A

dogs, sheeps, pigs

285
Q

You can check the chest wall for a pulse on:

A

large rodents, rabbits, ferrets.

286
Q

The pedal reflex involves the:

A

foot

287
Q

what is the Laryngeal reflex?

A

Does animal cough when intubated?

288
Q

What is the papebral reflex?

A

Does the animal blink when touching corner of eye? (not good in roents)

289
Q

From Opium, analgesic, includes narcotics, are all controlled.

A

Opiods

290
Q

A type of opiod. Sedative and analgesic. decrease respiratory center. Causes dogs to defecate/vomit. may cause convulsions/tremors in cats and mice.

A

Morphine

291
Q

Type of opiod, less respiratory depression then morphine. More potent and longer duration than morphine.

A

Oxymorphone and hydromorphone.

292
Q

Fentanyl

A

opiod patch that can last 72+ hrs. IV,IM, patch. Patch can be changed every 3 days.

293
Q

Opiod. Long duration of action. IV,IM, SC. MIce 3-5hrs. Long duration 12hrs.

A

Buprenorphine

294
Q

Nalorphine and naloxine are:

A

opiod antagonists.

295
Q

Not controlled drugs. Meloxicam, flunixin, carprofen, rabenocoxib, ketoprofen

A

NSAIDs

296
Q

Suggested explanation for a problem or question to be studied.

A

Hypothesis

297
Q

Deals with collection, analysis and interpretation of data.

A

Statistics

298
Q

“Answers” the studies quest hypothetically

A

Experimental hypothesis

299
Q

Says nothing will happen

A

Null hypothesis

300
Q

Says something will happen. Opposite of null.

A

Alternative hypothesis

301
Q

Study results will either ____ or ____ the null and/or alternative hypothesis.

A

Accept, reject

302
Q

What is being manipulated by investigator.

A

Independent variable

303
Q

What is being measured on study

A

Dependent variable

304
Q

Unintentional variable on study

A

Nonexperimental variation

305
Q

Usually 0.95 or 95%. Confidence investigators have that any variables are due to experimental data. Animals needed to reach this confidence level is calculated.

A

Confidence level

306
Q

P-value

A

Probability outcome was by chance. Refers to the condition of the null hypothesis. Confidence level + p-value =100%

307
Q

Bell curve shows:

A

Natural distribution

308
Q

Measures the dispersion of data. +/- 1 SD.

A

Standard deviation