Laz Paper 7 Flashcards

(31 cards)

1
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of G6PD deficiency?

A

X linked recessive

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2
Q

What is the difference in the clinical presentations of Crohn’s and Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Patients tend to be completely fine between episodes of UC but fail to thrive in Crohn’s

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3
Q

What finger sign is present in IBD?

A

Clubbing

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4
Q

How does TCA overdose present?

A
  • Confusion
  • Dry mouth
  • Tachycardia
  • Drowsiness
  • Nausea and vomiting
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5
Q

Why would a Hodgekin’s lymphoma patient have scratch marks?

A

It can cause pruritis

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6
Q

What are the examination findings of Bronchiectasis?

A
  • Rust coloured sputum (large volumes)
  • Bilateral course crackles
  • Clubbing
  • Wheeze
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7
Q

What are the dermal manifestations of TB?

A
  • Erythema nodosum
  • Lupus vulgaris
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8
Q

What are the cardiac causes of clubbing?

A
  • Congenital cyanotic heart disease
  • Atrial myxoma
  • Tetrology of Fallot
  • Subacute bacterial endocarditis
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9
Q

What is the management of ruptured oesophageal varices?

A
  1. Resus and supportive care
    1. Terlipressin
  2. Blood transfusion
  3. Prophylactic antibiotics
  4. Blatchford score before endoscopy
  5. Endoscopy + endoscopic band ligation
  6. Balloon tamponade
  7. TIPS
  8. Calcaulate Rockwell score

Beta blockers used to prophylactically reduce the risk of bleeding

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10
Q

Which feature is typical of a subdural haematoma?

A

Fluctuating consciousness (is generally not a very acute presentation)

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11
Q

What is the time frame of a subdural haematoma?

A
  • <72 hours acute
  • 3-20 days subacute
  • >3 weeks chronic
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12
Q

What is the diagnostic investigation for subdural haematoma?

A

CT head

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13
Q

Which murmur is infective endocarditis associated with?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation (IVDU)

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14
Q

What are the infective causes of pulmonary cavitating lesions?

A
  • Staph aureus
  • Klebsiella
  • TB
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15
Q

What are the non-infectious causes of pulmonary cavitating lesions?

A
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Wegner’s syndrome
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
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16
Q

Which infection is the most common cause of Guillan Barre syndrome?

A

Campylobacter Jejuni

17
Q

Which are the most common caustivie organisms of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A
  • E.coli
  • Klebsiella
18
Q

What is the classic triad of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A
  • Ascites
  • Abdominal pain
  • Fever
19
Q

What is the Keith-Wagener classification of hypertensive retinopathy?

A
  1. Silver wiring
  2. AV nipping
  3. Flame haemorrhages and cotton wool exudates
  4. Papilloedema
20
Q

What is carpel tunnel syndrome?

A

Compression of the median nerve leading to pain and numbness in the lateral aspect of the hand

21
Q

What type of anaemia is present in DIC?

A

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA)

22
Q

What is the immediate management of PE?

A

High flow O2 and IV LMWH

23
Q

Which LFTs indicate alcoholic hepatitis over non-alcoholic?

A

An AST:ALT ratio >2

24
Q

What is the antibiotic treatment of Haemophilus Influenzae?

A

Cefuroxime

Also used for Neisseria Meningitidis

25
What is the antbiotic management of hospital acquired pneumonias?
Tazobactam and Pipericillin
26
What are the four histological subtypes of malignant melanoma?
* Superficial spreading * Most common * From previously existing naevi * Nodular melanoma * Second most common * Vertical blue/ black growth * Acral lentiginous * Soles of the feet and palms * Brown flat macules * Lentigo maligna * Least common * Sun exposed skin
27
What is the classic presentation of hiatus hernia?
* Dysphagia * Painless regurgitation of food * GORD
28
What is the best investigation to confirm hiatus hernia?
Barium swallow
29
What is the most common surgical intervention for hiatus hernia?
Nissen fundoplication
30
What are the indications for dialysis in AKI?
* Refractory pulmonary oedema * Persistent hyperkalaemia * Severe metabolic acidosis * Uraemic complications
31
What is the management of tension pneumothorax?
Wide boar cannula 2nd ICS