Lecture 16 Hemostasis Testing Flashcards

1
Q

For proper collection concerns, what happens if the tourniquet is on for greater than 1 minute?

A

Hemoconcentration and increased fibrinolytic activity.

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2
Q

How can repeated probing looking for a vein affect coagulation test results?

A

Tissue fluid from repeated probing will decrease coagulation results as TF3 is responsible for activating extrinsic and intrinsic pathways.

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3
Q

Why is it needed to draw a discard tube in “request lines”?

A

Lines to administer medication and that can be used to draw blood often contain heparin to prevent clotting and will elevate coagulation results. Therefore a discard tube is needed to be drawn to remove heparin + blood in the lines prior to collection of blood.

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4
Q

What is important in the order of draw for coagulation testing?

A

No chance of Heparin contamination.

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5
Q

Why are hemolyzed samples not acceptable for coagulation testing?

A

Hemolysis leads to increase of phospholipids which then accelerates coagulation process leading to decreased coagulation times.

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6
Q

Why are icteric or lipemic samples not acceptable for coagulation testing?

A

Icteric or lipemic samples can alter times in instruments using photometric methods.

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7
Q

Why are 3.2% Sodium Citrate tubes preferred for coagulation studies?

A
  1. Chelates calcium so sample will not clot and consume clotting factors.
  2. Best preserves labile factors V and VIII.
  3. Best for platelet function tests.
  4. Most sensitive to the effects of heparin anticoagulation therapy.
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8
Q

Why is 3.8% Sodium Citrate tubes not recommended for coagulation studies?

A

Chelates too much of the calcium.

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9
Q

Why is it important to fully fill the sodium citrate tube for coagulation studies?

A

If not in proper ratio of blood to anticoagulant, excess anticoagulant will react with reagent calcium and produces elevated results.

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10
Q

What effect will having a Hct > 0.55 such as in polycythemia do to coagulation test results?

A

Falsely increase times.

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11
Q

What is done to correct of a high Hct > 0.55 for coagulation testing?

A

Need to adjust anticoagulant.
1. Remove anticoagulant, used formula to calculate proper volume of Na Citrate.
2. (0.00185)(vol. of whole blood)(100%-Hct) = req’d anticoagulant in mL.
3. Remove excess anticoagulant (0.5 mL - required) and recollect blood in the modified tube.

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12
Q

Why is it important to ensure that specimens for coagulation testing remained capped?

A

Uncapping samples adversely affects factors by increasing pH and falsely increasing PT and APTT times.

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13
Q

At want temperature should samples be stored at and why?

A

Samples should be stored at room temp (18-24C) as refrigeration will activate Factor VII, destroy platelet activity by activation and cause precipitation of large vWF multimers.

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14
Q

What would happen if the coagulation blood sample was stored above 24C?

A

Heat causes deterioration of labile factors V and VIII, falsely increasing results.

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15
Q

What is the time frame from collection to testing for PT/INR testing?

A

24 hours

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16
Q

What is the time frame from collection to testing for APTT testing and why? and what can they not contain?

A

Can be uncentrifuged or centrifuged samples, but must be tested within 4 hours from time of collection to reduce deterioration of labile factors V and VIII.

Cannot contain unfractioned heparin (UFH)

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17
Q

If APTT samples contain UFH, how should they be processed?

A

Samples containing UFH must be centrifuged within 1 hr from time of collection and tested within 4 hrs. Plasma may remain on packed cells.

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18
Q

Why do samples containing UFH need to centrifuged within 1 hr from collection?

A

Centrifugation within 1 hr is performed to reduce the effect of heparin neutralization by platelet granule Platelet Factor 4 (PF4) by stopping platelet contact with RBCs.

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19
Q

Why is it critical to centrifuge samples? What should the plasma platelet count be?

A

Samples should be spun at a speed and for a time to remove RBCs and platelets (this removes excess phospholipids that can affect coagulation results;
Plasma platelet count should be <10x10^9/L.

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20
Q

What is done if sample cannot be processed within the required time frame?

A
  1. Sample must be centrifuged within 1 hr of collection.
  2. Transfer sample avoiding buffy coat (platelets) with plastic pipette into plastic tube. Do not use glass as this will activate the intrinsic system.
  3. Sample is sealed, frozen and can be stored for 2 weeks at -20C or longer periods at -70C.
  4. Thaw frozen sample rapidly before testing at 37C to prevent deterioration of factors, mixed and tested within 1 hr.
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21
Q

What are methods for validating laboratory coagulation results?

A
  1. Instrument calibration.
  2. Quality control (internal and external)
  3. Recognition of erroneous results and follow-up.
  4. Delta checks
  5. Proper electronic/paper recording of results.
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22
Q

What are some preanalytical considerations to be aware of to avoid erroneous lab results?

A
  1. Tube properly filled.
  2. Signs of interference (hemolysis, lipemic, icteric, etc.)
  3. Check for clot in sample. Small clots may shorten times due to partial activation of factors while a fully clotted sample causes markedly elevated results.
  4. Phone for patient background (Liver disease, medication, heparin therapy, lupus inhibitor, antibiotics, etc.).
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23
Q

What follow-up can be done to avoid erroneous results?

A

Further testing (1:1 mixing studies, etc.)

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24
Q

What are some post analytical consideration after testing?

A
  1. Recognition of stat and critical results and proper phoning.
  2. Proper validation and release of records to wards.
  3. Proper storage of all samples and tested materials.
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25
Q

Why do we perform coagulation testing?

A
  1. To detect factor deficiencies in extrinsic and intrinsic pathways of coagulation.
  2. Monitor anticoagulant therapy for people with thrombotic conditions.
  3. Detect platelet qualitative defects.
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26
Q

What drug that is used as an anticoagulant therapy is also an active ingredient in rat poisin?

A

Warfarin

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27
Q

What are some brand names for Warfarin?

A

Coumadin and Jantoven.

Warfarin is the generic name.

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28
Q

Where does warfarin originate from?

A

Warfarin is part of a group of plant-based compounds called coumarins.

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29
Q

Why is heparin used for in patients?

A

To treat thrombotic conditions.

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30
Q

Why is the Prothrombin Time Test a one step test?

A

The PT reagent contains everything required to initiate and complete clotting in the extrinsic and common pathway.

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31
Q

What does the PT test measure?

A

Directly in measures the time for coagulation which is indicative of factors VII, X, II and I.

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32
Q

What is the RRC reference range for PT?

A

12.6 to 14.6 seconds

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33
Q

What is in the PT reagent?

A

Thromboplastin –> Lyophilized rabbit brain which provides Tissue Factor, phospholipids, and calcium.

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34
Q

What does INR stand for?

A

International normalization ratio.

Derived from the PT result.

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35
Q

Why is the INR calculated?

A
  1. Various PT reagents differ in sensitivity to changes in Vitamin K clotting factors even though plasma Warfarin concentration are the same. This made interpretation of patient’s anticoagulant status difficult.
  2. Different PT results occur with different reagent lot numbers methods, instrumentation and vary from lab to lab.
  3. INR was developed as a way to standardize results which would be consistent from lab to lab.
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36
Q

What is the formula for INR?

A

INR = (Patient PT / Mean PT for lab)^ISI

ISI value is from WHO testing for that manufacturer.

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37
Q

What is the reference range for INR?

A

0.9 to 1.1

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38
Q

What does ISI stand for?

A

International Sensitivity Index (ISI)

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39
Q

How is the ISI value derived?

A

ISI is measured by WHO in comparison to their reference reagent thromboplastin. When companies manufacture a new lot of PT reagent they send a sample of their reagent to WHO to determine this value.

ISI (WHO) = 1.0 (gold standard).

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40
Q

What does it mean if the ISI is greater than 1.0?

A

Reagents > 1.0 for ISI are less sensitive to factors depleted by Coumadin.

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41
Q

What is the implication of using ISI in the equation for INR?

A

Therapy can be monitored regardless of where analysis is being done providing consistent INR results from region to region and lab to lab.

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42
Q

What is the ideal ISI value?

A

PT reagent should ideally be close to ISI of 1.0 to be sensitive to detect small levels of factor depletion due to oral anticoagulant activity.

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43
Q

Can INR values be trusted early in Warfarin treatment? When can you trust them?

A

No, early in Warfarin treatment affected factors have different half lives.

After 3 days factor levels have stabilized, clinical management will be easier to achieve.

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44
Q

Are INR values affected by heparin?

A

No INR is not usually impacted by the presence of heparin, unless levels are really high.

Some reagents have a heparin neutralizer in them.

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45
Q

What is the mode of action in the PT test?

A

PT reagent added to patient citrated plasma (one step). Tissue factor, phospholipids, and calcium in the reagent start extrinsic pathway. TF complexes with VIIa = Extrinsic Tenase. Then X to Xa. Xa forms complex with Va, calcium and phospholipids to make Prothrombinase. II to IIa which acts on fibrinogen to form a fibrin –> clot.

46
Q

What causes increases in PT/INR?

A
  1. Factor deficiency (I, II, V, VII and X)
  2. Warfarin/Coumadin as it interferes with Vitamin K dependent factors II, VII, IX, and X.
  3. Factor VII has been early depleted due to short half life.
  4. Liver Disease
  5. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC).
  6. Vitamin K deficiency
  7. GI Disease.
  8. Antibiotics.
47
Q

What is a typical recommended therapeutic range for INR when using Oral Warfarin Anticoagulant therapy? for Mech heart values?

A

INR 2.0 to 3.0
For mech heart values INR 2.5 to 3.0 because they are high risk to clots.

48
Q

What can be done if patients INR is too high?

A
  1. Omit/alter warfarin for a few doses.
  2. Vitamin K administration.
  3. Transfusing fresh frozen plasma

Patient with too high of INR may bleed.

Elderly patients may forget they already took their morning Warfarin pill and take it again.

49
Q

What is APTT? What pathways does it measure?

A

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time Test

Measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation.

50
Q

What is the principle behind the APTT test?

A

APTT depends on the activation of Factor XII and XI by activators such as kaolin and celite.

In the presence of a negatively charged surface (phospholipids) and calcium the intrinsic system is activated resulting in conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

51
Q

What factors does the APTT test measure?

A

Test looks at factors 12, 11, 9, 8, 10, 5, 2 and 1.

52
Q

Describe the two steps in APTT?

A

Two step method with reagents added separately:
1. Activator is added and phospholipids.
2. CaCl2 is added which starts clotting.

53
Q

What can be used as an activator for the APTT test?

A

Silica, kaolin, ellagic acid, or celite to activate contact factors.

54
Q

What does CaCl2 do in the APTT test?

A

Replaces calcium that was removed by Sodium Citrate anticoagulant.

55
Q

What is the reference range for the APTT test?

A

25 - 35 seconds

56
Q

What can cause increases in the APTT?

A
  1. Presence of heparin for patients on Unfractionated Heparin (UFH) therapy.
  2. Factor deficiency (12, 11, 10, 9, 8, 5, 2 or fibrinogen (1)) <30% of normal concentration.
  3. Liver disease.
  4. Vitamin K deficiency.
  5. Lupus anticoagulant or other inhibitors.
57
Q

What factors does heparin inhibit?

A

Factors II, IX, X, XI, XII. This makes APTT the best for monitoring UFH therapy.

58
Q

What is heparin’s mode of action?

A

Heparin’s main mode of action is not by direct inhibition but rather through anti-thrombin which inhibits factors II, IX, X, XI, and XII. Heparin speeds up anti-thrombin (AT). Exposes more AT active sites so they can bind to the activated coagulation factors more efficiently and render them ineffective.

Heparin increases ATIII effect several thousand times (2-10,000 x’s)!

59
Q

What if there is an increase in both the PT/INR and APTT results? How do you narrow down the deficiency?

A

Investigate a deficiency in one of the factors in the common pathway X, V, II or I. Then could do single factor assays to determine what specific factor is deficient.

60
Q

What does the modified TT test do?

A

Modified Thrombin Time: Measures fibrinogen to fibrin clot reaction.

Purpose is to detect quantitative and/or qualitative fibrinogen defects.

61
Q

What is the reference range for modified TT?

A

< or = 21 seconds

62
Q

What conditions/situations result in increased modified TT?

A
  1. Hypofibrinogenemia
  2. Dysfibrinogenemia
  3. Heparin therapy
63
Q

How is a modified TT performed?

A
  1. First creating a calibration curve from a set of standards where the thrombin time is measured (1:5, 1:15, and 1:40 dilutions and further modified by using a high concentration of thrombin).
  2. Patient sample is run and result is read against the graph to establish a concentration value.
64
Q

What can prolonged APTT, INR, and Thrombin Time potentially indicate?

A

Fibrinogen Reaction abnormality

65
Q

What can prolonged APTT and INR but normal Thrombin time indicate?

A

Abnormality in factors X, II, and V.

66
Q

What can prolonged INR but normal APTT and Thrombin time indicate?

A

Abnormality in factors VII.

67
Q

What can prolonged APTT but normal INR and Thrombin time indicate?

A

Abnormality in Prekallikrein, HMWK, Factors XII, XI, IX, and VIII.

(12, 11, 9, and 8)

68
Q

What factor does INR, APTT, and Thrombin Test do not measure?

A

Factor XIII required to produce a stable cross-linked fibrin clot.

69
Q

How do you screen for a deficiency in factor XIII?

A

Perform 5M urea or 1% monochloroacetic acid solubility test to screen for deficiency.

70
Q

What are coagulation inhibitors?

A

Group of antibody inhibitors causing significant reduction in factor levels, therefore increasing risk of bleeding.

71
Q

What is the most common specific factor inhibitor?

A

Factor VIII inhibitor is the most common, mortality rate of 20%.

72
Q

What condition is Factor VIII inhibitor found in?

A

Commonly in hemophiliacs that have received multiple factor replacements.

73
Q

What are some of the rarer specific factor inhibitors? What conditions are they associated with?

A

Factor inhibitors II, V, VII, X, XI, and XIII are rare and associated with rheumatoid arthritis, drugs, and malignancy.

74
Q

What inhibitor is associated with thrombosis due to activation of platelets in vivo?

A

The coagulation inhibitor to phospholipid surface called Lupus anticoagulant is against PF3 (platelet phospholipid). It is a non-specific inhibitor which interferes with in vitro phospholipid reactions causing elevated results specifically in APTT.

In vivo Lupus anticoagulants activate platelets causing thrombosis.

Rarely bleeding.

75
Q

What are mixing studies?

A

Differentiates factor deficiency from inhibitor. Used when there are elevated coagulation results.

Equal amounts of patient plasma and normal plasma are mixed together and tested. If results are corrected there must have been a factor deficiency (Corrected by normal plasma). If no correction it is an inhibitor that affected normal plasma too.

76
Q

What is required if the mixing studies show no correction in the coagulation results?

A

Follow-up testing required.

77
Q

What % of factors is required for normal plasma coagulation testing results?

A

Need >30% and <50% of all factors to form clot.

78
Q

How are mixing studies for detecting Factor VIII inhibitor different?

A

Factor VIII inhibitors may required 2 hr incubation at 37degc to realized inhibitory effect, therefore steps in the mixing study involve immediate testing and if correction occurs incubating the sample for 2 hrs to determine if factor VIII inhibitor is present.

See table on slide 35.

79
Q

What is molecular testing used for in diagnosing coagulation disorders?

A

Molecular testing is useful in detecting certain hereditary disorders, e.g. Factor V Leiden and Prothrombin Mutation are examples.

Molecular helps to pinpoint hemostatic defects.

80
Q

What is Factor V Leiden disease?

A

Activated Protein C Resistance. Increased risk of thrombosis. Test for single point mutation.
+/- 5% of patients with APC resistance are negative for Factor V Leiden.

81
Q

What is Prothrombin Mutation Test?

A

It is a G20210A gene defect that results in increased amounts of prothrombin (i.e. Factor II).

Increased risk of thrombosis.

82
Q

What is primary fibrinolysis?

A

Primary fibrinolysis is excess plasminogen activators caused by trauma or malignant cells with NO clot formation.

83
Q

What is secondary fibrinolysis?

A

Fibrinolysis with cross-linked clot formation. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC).

84
Q

What test is positive in secondary fibrinolysis?

A

D-Dimer.

D-Dimer is the end product of factor XIII cross-linked fibrin degradation products.

85
Q

What is a D-Dimer? How is it tested?

A

D-Dimer is a fragment from degradation of cross-linked fibrin. Specific for presence of intravascular fibrin formation.

A coated latex latex particle test.

86
Q

What is FDP/FSP? How is it tested?

A

Fibrinogen Degradation Products/Fibrinogen Split Products.

This test measures breakdown on non cross-linked fibrin and fibrinogen breakdown products. Elevated in states of primary and secondary fibrinolysis. Test consists of coated latex particles which contain antibodies to split products.

87
Q

Why are the D-Dimer and FDP/FSP tests important?

A

The tests are important as it is important to differentiate the conditions as they are treated differently.

88
Q

What are the difference in fibrinogen versus fibrin split products?

A

There are differences in end products for Fibrinogen and cross-linked fibrin when plasmin cleaves them. Cross-linked fibrin produces a D-dimer complex while Fibrinogen does not.

Cross-linked fibrin is more resistant to fibrinolysis and prone to producing clot based problems within the vasculature.

89
Q

What is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

Pathological process due to activation of the coagulation system. Leads to cross linked fibrin and thrombus formation with a tendency towards systemic hemorrhage as the factors are consumed.

90
Q

What is DIC the result of?

A

DIC is one of the Macroangiopathic Hemolytic Anemias and does not occur spontaneously. The result of activation of coagulation system from:
1. Endothelial cell injury.
2. Tissue injury
3. Red Cell or platelet injury.

91
Q

What conditions are cases of DIC seen in?

A
  1. Obstetrical cases -amniotic fluid is a potent procoagulant.
  2. Major surgery
  3. Hemolytic anemias - release of phospholipids from RBCs.
  4. Bacterial and viral infections. Damage to vascular endothelium.
  5. Malignancies release procoagulant substances.
  6. Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia - Granules release a potent thromboplastic like coagulation activator.
92
Q

What tests are typically done in the lab today for DIC?

A
  1. CBC to detect low Hgb and low platelets.
  2. INR and APTT which are elevated due to consumption of coagulation factors which can eventually lead to severe bleeding.
  3. Fibrinogen - typically low due to conversion of Fibrinogen to Fibrin 4.
  4. D-Dimer which identifies the presence of cross-linked fibrin.
93
Q

What is decreased in DIC?

A

Fibrinogen
Factor V and VIII
Plasminogen.

94
Q

What does protamine sulfate precipitation test for? Result in DIC?

A

Tests for soluble fibrin monomer complexes. Positive in DIC.

95
Q

How is the “Bleeding Time” test used?

A

If PT and APTT normal, could be platelet problem, identified with bleeding time.

Primarily used to measure platelet function. Can be used to measure some vascular function.

96
Q

How much time does it take for a standardized skin would to stop bleeding?

A

2 - 9 minutes.

97
Q

What count should be taken prior to performing bleeding time test?

A

Platelet count. <100 can give elevated results; <15 do NOT perform.

98
Q

What conditions results in bleeding time increases?

A
  1. Platelet function disorder.
  2. Vascular disorders
  3. Drugs (Aspirin) which inhibits platelet aggregation
  4. Thrombocytopenia (<100 x 10^9/L)
  5. Anemia
  6. Severe hypofibrinogenemia or afibrinogenemia
  7. Age of patient.
  8. Factor deficiencies (i.e. VIII or IX).
99
Q

What two platelet function disorder result in increases in bleeding time?

A

a) von Wildebrands Disease - most important, b) Bernard Soulier, Glanzmann Thrombasthenia

100
Q

How is a bleeding time test performed?

A

Performed by applying blood pressure cuff to patient’s arm at constant 40mmHg. Superficial incision is made on forearm with a device (i.e. Template B.T. Device) and wicking away excess blood every 30 secs until bleeding stops.

101
Q

What tests can be performed when bleeding time is abnormal but platelet count is normal?

A
  1. Glass Bead Retention Test
  2. Platelet Aggregation Testing.
  3. Platelet Factor 3 Availability.
  4. Platelet Factor 4 and Beta-thrombodulin.
102
Q

What is the glass bead retention test?

A

Measures platelet adhesion. Run sample through glass beads (replaces collagen in vivo that cause platelet adhesion). Measure pre and post platelet counts.

Post should have decreased #’s due to adhesion to glass beads.
>28% adhesion is normal.

103
Q

What is platelet aggregation testing?

A

Sample run through different aggregating agents. Platelet aggregation tests can be performed in special instruments using a variety of aggregating agents.

Platelet rich = turbid.

Platelets will aggregate to agents and allow more light to be measured.

104
Q

What are the various aggregating agents that can be used?

A

ADP
Epinephrine
Collagen
Thrombin
Arachidonic Acid (most sensitive to ASA)
Ristocetin

105
Q

What is Platelet Factor 3?

A

Phospholipid necessary for proper functioning of intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.

Only available when platelets are aggregated or lysed.

106
Q

When is PF3 decreased?

A

Decreased platelet aggregation corresponds to decreased PF3.

Decreased in acquired or congenital defects of platelet secretion or release.

107
Q

What comparison is done in Platelet Factor 3 testing?

A

Comparison of patient’s platelet rich plasma to normal plasma.

Confirm.

108
Q

Why is platelet factor 4 and beta-thrombodulin testing performed?

A

Test performed to detect possible storage pool disease or release defect in alpha granules.

109
Q

What is platelet factor 4 and beta-thrombodulin related to?

A

Released during platelet activation and can be used to detect quantitative or qualitative platelet granule defects.

Related to platelet secretion.
Released from platelet alpha-granules.

110
Q

What is used to measure platelet factor 4 and beta-thrombodulin?

A

Platelet rich plasma used to measure these two proteins.

RIA kits available.