Lecture 6 Part 1 Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

A
  • amplifies nucleic acids and allows us to quantify them so we can detect it
  • specific sequences within DNA molecules can be identified by copying or amplifying the sequence of interest using:
  1. primers
  2. DNA polymerase
  3. dNTPS- deoxynucleotides
  4. thermal cycling - a series of temperature cycles
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2
Q

primers

A

short segments of complimentary DNA that base-pair with the template DNA upstream of the region of interest and serve as recruitment sites for the polymerase

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3
Q

PCR steps

A
  • melting : heat up sample to separate DNA strands
  • annealing : cool down sample to allow primers to base part to complementary DNA template
  • extension: heat up sample so that DNA polymerase extends primer and creates new strand of DNA
  • exponential amplification: process is repeated, and the region of interest is amplified (each time we amplify we double the material )
  • up to 40 cycles
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4
Q

Endpoint - PCR

A
  • used to detect and quantified amplified sequences done by PCR
  • amplified DNA is placed into gel near the cathode of an electrical field
  • b/c of electrical charges DNA moves and migrates through the gel to anode and separates by size
  • the bands can be visualized with ethidium bromide, which causes DNA to fluoresce
  • good to identify presence vs. absence sequence
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5
Q

gene expression experiments typically measure ____ rather than RNA

A

cDNA = complimentary DNA

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6
Q

reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR)

A

-measures fluoresce and amplification in real time

PCR —> cDNA —> + master mix + primers —> real time qPCR machine

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7
Q

Real time quantitative PCR

A
  • PCR product is measure at each cycle
  • PCR product is measured via fluorescent dyes that yield increasing fluorescent signal in direct proportion to the number of PCR product molecules (amplicons) generated
  • fluorescent reporters used in real time PCR include double-stranded DNA (dsDNA)
  • binding dyes or dye molecules attached to PCR primers or probes that hybridize with PCR product during amplification
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8
Q

how does real-time quantitative PCR work?

A
  • a probe specific to the gene of interest is labeled with a reporter dye and a quencher dye
  • when incorporated to PC product, the reporter is released
  • primer and probe work together so that we wont see the probe light until after extension occurs and the reporter is rereleased
  • every time an amplicon/ PCR occurs we get a fluorescent indicator light signaling it occur
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9
Q

why is it called Real- Time?

A
  • 0 -40 : Every time we go through a cycle fluorescence indicators increase making it visible around cycle 14
  • There is fluorescence in all the samples

○ However if there is more DNA in sample = see fluorescence sooner

• Lower cycle values = more starting material

-Higher cycle values = lower starting material

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10
Q

cycle threshold Value (Ct)

A
  • the number cycles needed to reach a certain level of fluorescence
  • the more copies of mRNA present, the lower the Ct
  • early fluorescence means that they had high expression
  • late fluorescence means lower expression
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11
Q

housekeeping genes (control)

A
  • used to account for technical variation
  • pick a gene we don’t think should be change
  • a negative control
  • have no reason to believe that it should be more expressed or less expressed and use it to measure thee relative difference
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12
Q

microarray

A
  • thousands of primers/ probes hybridize to complementary sequences in sample thus allowing parallel analysis for gene expression and gene discovery
  • single experiment can provide information on thousands of genes simultaneously
  • using hundreds of primers and then picking a few of those to see whether they are involved in whatever it is I am interested in
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13
Q

sequencing techniques

A

-actual sequences present in samples are “read”

  • base pair resolution
  • highly sensitive
  • expensive

-actually allows you to assess the sequences that are present by reading the resolution and aligning it to a

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14
Q

T or F: DNA methylation does not interfere with complimentary base pairing

A

true

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15
Q

Mapping DNA Methylation 3 methods

A
  • selective digestion of unmethylated DNA using restriction enzymes
  • CONVERSION OF UNMETHYLATED CYTOSINE BY SODIUM BISULFITE TREATMENT
  • selectively enriching locations containing methylation using 5mc antibodies
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16
Q

chemical conversion of unmethylated cytosine

A
  • bisulfite treatment introduces specific changes in the DNA sequence depending non the methylation status of individual cytosine residues
  • treatment of DNA with bisulfite converts cytosine residues to uracil, but leaves 5-methylcytosine residues unaffected
  • treat cytosine with bisulfite —> methylated cytosine stays but unmethylated cytosine changes to uracil
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17
Q

Histones are what?

18
Q

proteins can be detected by what?

A
  • immunohistochemistry

- using antibodies to detect antigens (proteins) in tissues or cells

19
Q

immunohistochemical technique steps

A
  • isolating proteins in the cell/tissue of interest
  • treating the sample with an antibody that will specifically recognize the protein of interest
  • visualizing the antibody-protein complex to measure the protein of interest, Specific post-translational modifications of proteins can also be identified
20
Q

the technique commonly used to identify the presence or absence of a histone modification in cells/tissues is called?

A

western blotting

-used to quantify or measure a protein

21
Q

Western blot

A
  • separate proteins by size using electrophoresis
  • transfer proteins on to a membrane
  • incubate membrane in primary antibody detecting protein of interest
  • incubate in secondary antibody
  • imaging
22
Q

size-based separation of proteins

A

proteins will move in a different speed depending on how big they are

23
Q

western immunoblot

A
  • after proteins are separated on gel they must be transferred to a membrane where the protein of interest can be visualized
  • membrane is treated with an antibody that will bind to target protein and a secondary antibody that will bind allow visual detection of the protein
24
Q

western blot advantages

A
  • gold standard for looking at proteins
  • can detect multiple forms of protein
  • can determine size of detected protein
  • used when people want to know what’s the actual quantity
25
western blot disadvantages
- low spatial resolution - results can be inconsistent - causes the loss of some proteins/sample during process
26
T or F: to determine the critical enzymatic events we manipulate the brain
true
27
methods for manipulating the brain
- brain lesions - pharmacological agents - molecular techniques
28
what are some pharmacological agents
- receptor agonists/ antagonists | - HDAC inhibitor and DNMT inhibitor drugs
29
molecular techniques
- genetic engineering - transgenic mice - viral vector mediate gene transfer - in vitro luciferase assays
30
genetic engineering is used to direct what?
gene expression
31
Cre-Lox technology is used to what?
manipulate genetic material in order to fain experimental control over gene expression -used to control transcriptional
32
Cre-Lox steps
specific promoter ---> CRE recombinase ---> CRE controls the expression of a "floxed" gene ---> LOxP controls expression in gene X
33
transgenic mice pros
- can get very specific silencing of a specific gene - new approaches allow more control over where and when gene is turned on/off -non invasive control of gene expression
34
transgenic mice cons
-technology has been traditionally optimized for only mice
35
Cre-Lox system relies on two components to function ?
- a site specific recombinase called CRE | - DNA sequence called LoxP
36
LoxP sites can be oriented in such a way that Cre recombinase can cause ?
- the deletion of a genetic segment | - the expression of a genetic segment
37
viral vector mediate gene transfer
- used to affect a specific sequence - control over where and when a gene is expressed or silenced - genetically engineered viruses can be used to introduce DNA inside specific populations of cells - can be introduced into a specific brain region at a specific window of development - vectors expressing Creativity are often used with mouse models carrying a "floxed" gene -vectors often coexpress a reporter such as green fluorescent protein to determine which regions are transfected by vector
38
luciferase reporter assay
- in vitro (cells in a dish) - the transcriptional activity of a genetically engineered construct can be monitored using light (firefly luciferase enzyme gene) - involves cloning your DNA sequence of interest upstream from the luciferase gene in viral expression vector -produces an easy to light signal whenever transcription has occurred
39
chromatin immunoprecipitation goal
to isolate DNA bound to a specific protein of interest
40
ChIP is frequently used to determine
- transcription factor binding to promoter (which genes does a transcription factor regulate ) - acetylation status of promoter regions using antibodies for acetylated an non-acetylated histones
41
ChIP steps
- use freehand or punch sample of tissue - sample is fixed, so that protein becomes cross-linked to DNA - an antibody is used to "pull down" chromatin - dissociate DNA from protein (reverse crosslink) - analyze DNA using either PCR for sequencing
42
which method uses an antibody to locate a particular protein and gets rids of everything but the DNA
ChIP