Lecture 7 Flashcards
(181 cards)
1
Q
Supercoiling is important for DNA structure because ________.
(A) It holds together the antiparallel strands of DNA in the double helix
(B) It provides energy for transcription
(C) It condenses the DNA so that it can fit inside the cell
(D) It prevents RNA from pairing with DNA in the double helix
(E) None of the above
A
(C) It condenses the DNA so that it can fit inside the cell
2
Q
Genes that encoded for polymerases, gyrases, ribosomal proteins, and other proteins
essential to replication, transcription, and translation are present on ________.
(A) Chromosomes
(B) Plasmids
(C) Chromosomes and plasmids
(D) Neither chromosomes nor plasmids
(E) None of the above
A
(A) Chromosomes
3
Q
In Bacteria, a chromosome can be distinguished from a plasmid, because a chromosome
is a genetic element that ________.
(A) Is circular
(B) Is linear
(C) Encodes for essential functional genes
(D) Encodes for non-essential (“luxury”) genes
(E) None of the above
A
(C) Encodes for essential functional genes
4
Q
________ is an essential enzyme in DNA replication that unwinds the double-stranded
DNA, creating a ________ and exposing single-stranded DNA templates.
(A) DNA ligase / replication fork
(B) DNA gyrase / transcription bubble
(C) DNA helicase / replication fork
(D) DNA polymerase / transcription bubble
(E) None of the above
A
(C) DNA helicase / replication fork
5
Q
During DNA replication, the enzyme ________ synthesizes short strands of RNA
(primers) that serve as a starting point for DNA elongation.
(A) Primase
(B) Polymerase
(C) Gyrase
(D) Helicase
(E) None of the above
A
(A) Primase
check this
6
Q
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a method of DNA replication in vitro that uses
______ instead of the enzyme ______ to denature double-stranded DNA and expose
single-stranded DNA templates.
(A) Heat / DNA helicase
(B) Primers / DNA helicase
(C) Heat / DNA polymerase
(D) Primers / DNA polymerase
E) None of the above
A
(A) Heat / DNA helicase
7
Q
During the ________ step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the reaction mixture is
heated to 72ºC to allow the binding of the ________.
(A) Extension / DNA polymerase
(B) Extension / primers
(C) Annealing / DNA polymerase
(D) Annealing / primers
(E) None of the above
A
(A) Extension / DNA polymerase
8
Q
During the ________ step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the reaction mixture is
cooled to 55ºC to allow the binding of ________.
(A) Denaturing / primers
(B) Annealing / DNA polymerase
(C) Annealing / primers
(D) Extension / DNA polymerase
(E) None of the above
A
(C) Annealing / primers
9
Q
The specificity of PCR amplification is determined by which ingredient in the reaction
mixture?
(A) DNA helicase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) Nucleotides
(D) Primers
(E) None of the above
A
(D) Primers
10
Q
________ result from hydrogen bonds that form between nucleotides in the SAME strand
of an RNA molecule.
(A) Primary structures
(B) Secondary structures
(C) Tertiary structures
(D) Quaternary structures
(E) None of the above
A
(B) Secondary structures
11
Q
In the process of transcription, promoters are specific sequences of ________ that are
recognized by ________.
(A) DNA / DNA polymerase
(B) RNA / DNA polymerase
(C) DNA / sigma factors
(D) RNA / ribosomes
(E) None of the above
A
(C) DNA / sigma factors
12
Q
The structure of RNA polymerase in Archaea is ______.
(A) More similar to Eukaryotes than to other Prokaryotes (Bacteria)
(B) More similar to other Prokaryotes (Bacteria) than to Eukaryotes
(C) Simpler (fewer subunits) than bacterial RNA polymerase
(D) Simpler (fewer subunits) than eukaryotic RNA polymerase
(E) None of the above
A
(A) More similar to Eukaryotes than to other Prokaryotes (Bacteria)
13
Q
Many pharmaceutical drugs specifically inhibit transcription in Bacteria but not Archaea.
Why would drugs that inhibit transcription only affect Bacteria and not Archaea even
though they are both prokaryotes?
(A) Bacteria lack a nucleus
(B) Archaea lack operons
(C) Archaea have ribosomes that are more similar to Eukaryotes than Bacteria
(D) Archaea have RNA polymerases that are more similar to Eukaryotes than Bacteria
(E) None of the above
A
(D) Archaea have RNA polymerases that are more similar to Eukaryotes than Bacteria
14
Q
Transfer RNA molecules ________.
(A) Function to transfer ribonucleotides to RNA polymerase during transcription
(B) Function to transfer the correct amino acids to the ribosome during translation
(C) Contain codons that bind to ribosomes during translation
(D) Are only present in the nucleus or eukaryotes
(E) None of the above
A
(C) Contain codons that bind to ribosomes during translation
15
Q
The codon on the ________ matches with the anticodon on the ________ to direct the
addition of the correct amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain.
(A) mRNA / tRNA
(B) tRNA / mRNA
(C) DNA / mRNA
(D) tRNA / rRNA
(E) None of the above
A
(A) mRNA / tRNA
16
Q
Translation is terminated by ________ that recognize the stop codon and release the
newly synthesized protein.
(A) Inverted repeats
(B) Molecular chaperones
(C) Release factors
(D) Ribosome-release sequences
(E) None of the above
A
(C) Release factors
17
Q
You are studying the expression of a bacterial gene coding for a new protein. By
randomly mutating the DNA sequence directly upstream of the start codon of the gene,
you create a mutant that produces the SAME amount of mRNA, but very FEW proteins.
You conclude that the DNA sequence that you mutated is MOST likely a ________.
(A) Promoter region
(B) Ribosome-binding site
(C) Transcription termination sequence
(D) Non-coding DNA region
(E) None of the above
A
(A) Promoter region
18
Q
________ is a mechanism by which bacteria assess population density, producing internal
signal molecules called autoinducers.
(A) Autophosphorylation
(B) Response regulation
(C) Signal transduction
(D) Quorum sensing
(E) None of the above
A
(D) Quorum sensing
19
Q
Aliivibrio fischeri is a symbiotic bacterium whose bioluminescence is controlled by
quorum sensing. During a growth curve of A. fischeri, when would you expect to see the
strongest bioluminescence?
(A) Lag phase
(B) Early to middle log phase
(C) Late log to early stationary phase
(D) Death phase
(E) None of the above
A
(B) Early to middle log phase
20
Q
A triplet of bases on an mRNA molecule is known as a(n) ________.
(A) Amino acid
(B) Anticodon
(C) Codon
(D) Ribosome-binding sequence
(E) None of the above
A
(C) Codon
21
Q
alpha-helices and beta-sheets are formed by hydrogen bonds between amino acids and are
examples of ________ structure in proteins.
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Quaternary
(E) None of the above
A
(B) Secondary
22
Q
Which type of protein would exhibit the MOST stability?
(A) A protein with more alpha-helices than beta-sheets
(B) A protein with more beta-sheets than alpha-helices
(C) A protein with equal amounts of beta-sheets and alpha-helices
(D) A protein with only beta-sheets
(E) None of the above
A
(A) A protein with more α-helices than β-sheets
23
Q
Hydrophobic interactions and disulfide bonds aid in the formation of ________ structure
in proteins.
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Quaternary
(E) None of the above
A
(C) Tertiary
24
Q
________ assist in the proper folding of newly synthesized and partially denatured proteins, ensuring proper protein structure and function.
(A) tRNA
(B) Ribosomes
(C) Release factors
(D) Molecular chaperones
(E) None of the above
A
D) Molecular chaperones
25
A mutation that restores the function of gene is called a ______ mutation.
reversion
26
mutations that result from inaccurate base pairing by DNA polymerase during DNA replication are called ____ mutations.
spontaneous
27
______ are chemical mutagens that inserts themselves between the base pairs of DNA and cause _____ mutations
intercalating agents/ frame shift
28
the ames test detects chemical mutagens by using ____ bacteria to quantify reversion mutations
auxotrophic
29
horizontally transmitted DNA can be inserted into bacterial chromosomes by _____
homologous recombinations
30
the uptake of DNA released from a cell ("naked" DNA) is called _____, while the transfer of DNA with direct cell-to-cell contact is called _____.
transformation/ conjugation
31
the uptake of naked DNA from the environment can be dangerous for bacterial cells. one mechanism to ensure the naked DNA from related cells is acquired is ______
Induced competency, where cells only uptake DNA when population density is high
32
The F (Fertility) plasmid contains a set of genes that encode for _______ proteins that are essential conjugative transfer of DNA
Pili
33
______ is the enzyme that mediates the transfer of transposable elements
transposase
34
insertion sequences differ from transposons because they _____.
contain a single gene that codes for transposase
35
when packaged in the vision, the complete complex of nucleic acid and protein is known as the _____.
nucleocapsid
36
animals are most commonly infected by ______ viruses
enveloped
37
for bacteriophages and animal viruses ______ is the step in the viral life cycle that determines host cell or tissue specificity
attachment
38
viral proteins are categorized as early, middle and late. late proteins typically necessary for ______.
production of viral capsid
39
a virus that kills its host cell is said to be _____
lytic (virulent)
40
The attachment stage of viral infection is nearly impossible to prevent because
viruses target surface receptors that cells require to survive
41
bacteria produce restriction endonucleases to destroy viral DNA that enters the cell. These enzymes only digest viral DNA because the ______ DNA is ______.
host/ methylated
42
the function of the CRISPR ( clustered, regularly interspaced, short, palindromic repeats) system is to ______.
recognize and destroy viral nucleic acids in the cells
43
infections proteins are called _____ and "replicate" by______
prions/ misfiling proteins upon contact
44
in which areas of the human body is the resident micro biome not found
internal organs
45
antimicrobial compounds naturally found on human skin include
peptides
46
bacterial biofilms grow on tooth surfaces are called _______. When these biofilms include lactic acid bacteria, acidic by-products of their fermentation break down tooth enamel, causing ______.
dental plaque / dental caries
47
few microorganisms can survive in the human stomach due to its _____
low pH
48
the consequences of disrupting the resident GI micro biome of the human body include_____
diarrhea
impaired vitamin synthesis
enhanced pathogen colonization
49
the presence of lactic acid bacteria in the vaginal micro biome is ______ because they ______
beneficial, decrease pH and prevent the growth of infectious bacteria
50
pathogenesis is ______
the process by which microorganisms cause disease
51
the decrease or loss of virulence in a pathogen is called ______
attenuation
52
______ are toxic glycolipids attached to the outer membrane of some pathogen cells.
endotoxins
53
diphtheria toxin is an example of a _____ toxin, a two- subunit protein that binds to host cell surface receptors and transfers across the cytoplasmic membrane to inhibit internal host cell functioning
AB
54
a disease that is present in low number and restricted areas of the world is called _____.
endemic
55
A(n) ______ is a disease that primarily infects animals but can be transmitted to humans.
zoonosis
56
the onset of a given epidemic is indicated by a sharp rise in the number of cases reported daily over a brief interval. this indicates that the mode of transmission occurs ______.
by a common source
57
disease _______ is measured by the total number of new and existing disease cases within a population over a period of time, a record of disease burden
prevalence
58
the basic reproduction number (R0) for a strain of brodetella pertussis is 16. this means that____
16 secondary cases would be expected from an infected individual
59
disease can be controlled through immunizations even if the percentage of the population that is immunized is less than 100% because _____.
of heard immunity
60
overtime, the relationship between a pathogen and a native susceptible population tends towards ______.
a balance between host and pathogen such that both are maintained
61
____ defines the accuracy of detection for pathogen cells ( or product) in a diagnostic test>
specificity
62
a disadvantage when using molecular methods in diagnostic microbiology is ______
the genome of the pathogen must be characterized
63
_____, periodic reports on the susceptibility of clinically isolated organism s to the antibiotics in current local use, are particularly valuable for tracking the emergence of new antibiotic-resistance strains of pathogens.
antibiograms
64
An acidophilic, facultative aerobe is a bacterium that would grow BEST in an _____ environment.
Oxygen-rich, acidic
65
The decimal reduction times of bacteria ________ with increasing temperature.
Decrease
66
You have discovered a new antimicrobial agent against bacteria. When you add the new chemical to a bacterial culture in exponential (log) growth phase, the live cell count remains constant and the total cell count remains constant. You classify the new antimicrobial agent as ______.
Bacteriostatic
67
Antiseptics (germicides), such as iodine, are distinguished from other antimicrobial agents because they ______.
Can be used on living tissues without harm
68
______ is the most important feature of an effective antimicrobial drug.
Selective toxicity
69
______ are a class of broad spectrum antibiotics (e.g. erythromycin) that inhibit microbial growth by inhibiting protein synthesis.
Macrolides
70
A bacterium producing beta-lactamase to degrade penicillin before it compromises the cell wall is an example of drug resistance by ______.
Inactivation
71
The search for new antimicrobial drugs includes ______, the introduction of viruses that attack specific pathogens into the human body.
Bacteriophage therapy
72
Regulatory proteins ______.
Are homodimeric
Bind to specific DNA sites
Regulate transcription
73
______ is a mechanism by which bacteria assess population density, producing internal signal molecules called autoinducers.
Quorom sensing
74
How is the activity of a riboswitch controlled?
By metabolite binding that changes mRNA secondary structure
75
The major technical advancement achieved with second (“next”) generation DNA sequencing compared to the Sanger method is that ________.
Massively parallel sequence processing is possible
76
Clustered virulence genes that are transmitted horizontally among microorganisms are called _______.
Pathogenicity islands
77
When solutions of host cells and viral particles are mixed and spread on an agar plate, ______ form where viruses lyse the host cells.
plaques
78
______ is the process of viral particles exiting a host cell without lysing the cell, causing persistent infections in animal hosts.
Budding
79
The function of the CRISPR (Clustered, Regularly Interspaced, Short, Palindromic Repeats) system in bacterial cells is to ________.
Recognize and destroy viral nucleic acids in the cell
80
1. You discover a new microbe that can be classified as a halophile. What environment would this microbe thrive in?
(A) Inside of a glacier
(B) In a solution highly saturated with sugar
(C) A hydrothermal vent
(D) A brine pool in the ocean
(E) A highly acidic sulfur pool
D
81
Paul Ehrlich is credited for the concept “Magic Bullet.” Which of the following describes this concept?
(A) Drugs designed to target and/or kill pathogens
(B) Drugs designed to improve human health
(C) Drugs designed to target pathogens without causing collateral damage to human health
(D) Drugs designed to cause collateral damage to human health
(E) None of the above
C
82
3. As you increase the temperature of heat sterilization, decimal reduction time ______.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Stays the same
(D) Temperature and decimal reduction time are not related
(E) None of the above
B
83
4. You are working in a lab and realize you must sterilize your equipment. You however do not have enough time to use other methods and decide to only sterilize the surface of your instruments using ________.
(A) Filter Sterilization
(B) Ionizing Radiation
(C) UV Radiation
(D) Autoclave
(E) None of the above
C
84
5. The sterilization method that would be best for a solid object that is heat sensitive is _________.
(A) UV radiation
(B) Autoclave
(C) Ionizing radiation
(D) Depth filters
(E) None of the above
C
85
9. Sulfa drugs can be categorized as ______ microbial agents.
(A) Bacteriostatic
(B) Bacteriolytic
(C) Bacteriocidal
(D) Virilytic
(E) None of the above
A
85
7. You are trying to clean heat sensitive equipment in the lab. The chemical antimicrobial agent that would be best for this job is ______.
(A) Disinfectant
(B) Antiseptics
(C) Germicides
(D) Sterilants
(E) None of the above
D
86
6. The antimicrobial agents that bind to ribosomes to stop growth are called ______.
(A) Bacteriostatic
(B) Bacteriolytic
(C) Bacteriocidal
(D) A and B
(E) None of the above
A
87
8. ______ antibiotics interfere with the cell wall to prevent peptidoglycan synthesis.
(A) Sulfa
(B) Macrolides
(C) Quinolones
(D) B-lactam
(E) None of the above
D
88
10. The efflux mechanism causes antibiotic resistance by______.
(A) Preventing the antibiotic from entering the cell
(B) Changing the target that the antibiotic is looking for
(C) Breaking down antibiotics using an enzyme
(D) Spitting out the antibiotic from the cell before it takes effect.
(E) None of the above
D
89
11. In low concentrations, antibiotics can also function as______.
(A) Signaling molecules
(B) Food sources
(C) A way to increase replication rate
(D) A and B
(E) None of the above
D
90
12. ______ are a synthetic drug that interferes with folic acid production.
(A) Quinolones
(B) Isoniazid
(C) Sulfa drugs
(D) A and C
(E) None of the above
C
91
13. You are developing a new product that will be used to disinfect human skin before surgery. What type of antimicrobial agent would you classify this product as?
(A) An antiseptic
(B) A sterilant
(C) A disinfectant
(D) An antifungal
(E) None of the above
A
92
14. This drug interferes with folic acid and effects Gram + and Gram – bacteria.
(A) Sulfa Drugs
(B) Quinolones drugs
(C) Isoniazid
(D) Antibiotics
(E) None of the above
A
93
15. You just discovered a new drug, and you noticed that this new drug kills bacteria causing the decrease in visible and total cell count to decrease. Which type of drug did you discover?
(A) Bacteriostatic
(B) Bacteriocidal
(C) Bacteriolytic
(D) Sulfa drugs
(E) None of the above
C
94
16. Which of these synthetic drugs interferes with DNA gyrase?
(A) Isoniazid
(B) Sulfa Drugs
(C) Penicillin
(D) Quinolones
(E) None of the above
D
95
17. The treating of surface wounds on a person’s skin would best be done with...
(A) disinfectants
(B) antiseptics
(C) sterilants
(D) exposure to temperatures in excess of 100C
B
96
18. You are working in a hospital and are trying to keep everything as clean as possible. To clean the surgical tools, it is best you use _____. For your hands, it is best you use _____. For the occupied beds of the patient facility, it is best you use _____.
(A) antiseptics like ethanol; liquid disinfectants; disinfectants via. an electrostatic spray
(B) ultraviolet radiation; liquid disinfectants; sterilants like formaldehyde
(C) ionizing radiation; antiseptics like iodine; ionizing radiation
(D) ionizing radiation; antiseptics like ethanol; ultraviolet radiation
(E) Stop what you are doing, all these options are horrible
E
97
19. If something is a bacteriocidal it is targeting ___ with the action of___.
(A) Bacteria, exploding cell
(B) Bacteria, killing cell
(C) Fungi, killing cell
(D) Virus, stop growing
(E) None of the above
F
98
20. Which filter traps microbes in a fiber network?
(A) Depth filters
(B) Membrane filters
(C) Nucleopore filters
(D) All of the above
A
99
21. Which of the following is an example of a synthetic drug that interferes with Mycolic Acid?
(A) Penicillin
(B) Erythromycin
(C) Isoniazid
(D) Quinolones
(E) Sulfa Drugs
C
100
22. Which of the following is/are method(s) of sterilization?
(A) Radiation
(B) Heat
(C) Filters
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
D
101
23. An antimicrobial agent that stops the growth of a bacteria would be classified as ______.
(A) Fungicidal
(B) Bacteriolytic
(C) Fungistatic
(D) Bacteriostatic
(E) None of the above
D
102
24. A broad-spectrum antibiotic that interferes with the cell wall is considered?
(A) Bacteriolytic
(B) B-lactam
(C) Bactericidal
(D) Synthetic
(E) All of the above
A
103
25. You have been experimenting with your unknown bacteria and decided to run an antibiotic sensitivity test. You forgot to label your petri dishes, but you are now seeing the results and one of the antibiotics inhibited growth by inhibiting protein synthesis. If the following were the only antibiotic, you used which of the following antibiotics is the most likely to fit these results?
(A) Bacteriolytic
(B) B-lactam
(C) Macrolide
(D) Quinolones
(E) Sulfa drug
C
104
26. Which type of microbial growth control is safer and used for surface sterilization only?
(A) Ultraviolet Radiation
(B) Pasteurization
(C) Autoclave
(D) Ionizing Radiation
(E) None of the above
A
105
27. Which of the following antimicrobial agents would be used for washing your hands?
(A) Sterilants
(B) Disinfectants
(C) Formaldehyde
(D) Antiseptics
(E) Radiation
D
106
28. The chemical control mechanism that kills all microbial cells, but not the endospores is...
(A) Sterilants
(B) Disinfectants
(C) Antiseptics
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
B
107
Which of the following has NOT contributed to the increase in antibiotic resistance?
(A) Agricultural overuse of antibiotics
(B) Hygiene/sanitation
(C) Medical overuse of antibiotics
(D) Patient compliance
(E) All of the above have contributed to increased antibiotic resistance
E
108
30. What type of sterilization method is used to create Radicals using electromagnetic radiation, that can penetrate solids and liquids but is severely dangerous, and requires special equipment to operate?
(A) Ultraviolet Radiation
(B) Filter Sterilization
(C) Ionizing Radiation
(D) Heat Sterilization
(E) A and C
C
109
31. ______ affects the activity of a protein.
(A) Gene regulation
(B) Constitutive regulation
(C) Post-translational regulation
(D) Inducible regulation
(E) None of the above
C
110
32. Constitutive genes _______.
(A) Are always expressed
(B) Need to be turned on or off to be expressed
(C) Code for proteins that are easy to detect
(D) A and C
(E) None of the above
A
111
33. Gene regulation occurs _______.
(A) After translation
(B) Before transcription
(C) Between transcription and translation
(D) During transcription and translation.
(E) None of the above
D
112
34. The ______ is associated with both positive and negative control.
(A) Inducer
(B) Repressor
(C) Activator
(D) Corepressor
(E) None of the above
A
113
35. When regulatory proteins are bound to the DNA during negative control, _______.
(A) Transcription occurs
(B) RNA polymerase is blocked
(C) Transcription cannot occur
(D) B and C
(E) None of the above
D
114
36. In negative control when regulatory proteins are released from the DNA, transcription ____.
(A) Automatically occurs
(B) May occur, but not automatically
(C) Cannot occur
(D) Occurs at a faster rate than usual
(E) None of the above
B
115
37. When regulatory proteins are bound to the DNA during positive control, transcription _____.
(A) Does not occur
(B) Occurs automatically
(C) May occur but not automatically
(D) Occurs at a faster rate than usual.
(E) None of the above
B
116
38. When there are high amounts of arginine in a cell, ______
(A) Arginine will act as a corepressor and bind to the repressor
(B) The arginine prevents the repressor from binding
(C) The repressor binds to the DNA and blocks transcription
(D) A and C
(E) None of the above
D
117
39. RNA polymerase recognizes the promoter region with the help of the _____.
(A) Inducer
(B) Repressor
(C) Activator proteins
(D) Corepressor
(E) None of the above
C
118
40. Autoinducers _______ in bacterial cells.
(A) Determine population density
(B) Detect signals
(C) Accept phosphates
(D) Block transcription
(E) None of the above
A
119
41. The purpose of the response regulatory protein is to _______.
(A) Detect signals
(B) Transfer phosphates
(C) Accept phosphates
(D) A and C
(E) None of the above
C
120
42. The RNA based regulation that prevents translation is called ______.
(A) Antisense RNA
(B) Attenuation
(C) Riboswitches
(D) A and C
(E) None of the above
D
121
43. When regions 3 and 4 bind during attenuation, ______
(A) Transcription is blocked
(B) Transcription proceeds
(C) Translation is blocked
(D) Translation proceeds
(E) None of the above
A
122
44. When regions 2 and 3 bind during riboswitches, ________.
(A) Transcription is blocked
(B) Transcription proceeds
(C) Translation is blocked
(D) Translation proceeds
(E) None of the above
C
123
45. Antisense RNA prevents translation by ________.
(A) Binding the Shine-Dalgarno
(B) Using sRNA to bind to mRNA, creating a double stranded region
(C) Creating a stem loop ahead of RNA polymerase
(D) A and B
(E) None of the above
B
124
46. In positive control, the ____ is located ____ the promoter.
(A) Operator, after
(B) Operator, before
(C) Activator-binding site, after
(D) Activator-binding site, before
(E) None of the above
D
125
47. In riboswitches, the secondary structures, Form 1 and Form 2, differ in all aspects listed except for ______.
(A) Regions bound
(B) Shine Delgardo bound or unbound
(C) Binding speed
(D) Activity of translation
(E) None of the above
C
126
48. Which mechanism of RNA-mediated gene regulation occurs after initiation of transcription but before its completion and is based on alternative secondary structures of mRNA?
(A) Antisense RNA
(B) Attenuation
(C) Riboswitches
(D) Regulatory proteins
(E) None of the above
B
127
49. In positive control, where is the DNA controlled?
(A) Operator
(B) Activator-Binding Site
(C) Promoter
(D) Ribosomal Binding Site
(E) None of the above
B
128
50. In negative control regulatory proteins, enzyme repression takes the form of _____, in which the presence of ____ leads to _____.
(A) a DNA-binding repressor, activator proteins; blocked RNA Polymerase
(B) a repressor & corepressor; abundant product; no additional synthesis
(C) a mRNA-binding repressor; an operator region; blocked translation
(D) a repressor & inducer; substrate; additional synthesis
(E) an activator & inducer; an inducer; transcription
B
129
51. Post-translational regulation increases/decreases the ____ of protein
(A) Type
(B) amount
(C) activity
(D) color
(E) None of the above
C
130
52. Which type of gene is used in gene expression that codes for proteins that are easy to detect and measure?
(A) Polymeric Genes
(B) Reporter Genes
(C) Complementary Genes
(D) Supplementary Genes
(E) None of the above
B
131
53. Which type of control for transcript regulation causes the repression of mRNA synthesis?
(A) Positive Control
(B) Negative Control
(C) Neutral Control
(D) Basic Control
(E) None of the above
B
132
54. What regulatory proteins are required for RNA-based regulation?
(A) Activator proteins
(B) Sensor kinase proteins
(C) Response proteins
(D) B and C
(E) None of the above
E
133
55. Which of the following is NOT true of regulatory proteins?
(A) Homodimeric structures
(B) Transform mRNA -> DNA
(C) Bind in major groove of DNA
(D) Interact with specific DNA sequences
(E) Start or stop transcription
B
134
56. You are studying antibiotic resistant bacteria in a lab. After sequencing the DNA of a sample, you notice that there is a point mutation. One of the base pairs is mismatched, causing a different amino acid to form. What effect of point mutations does this describe?
(A) Silent
(B) Missense
(C) Nonsense
(D) Back mutation
(E) None of the above
B
135
57. Which of the following is NOT true about point mutations?
(A) They can involve either transition or transversion mutations.
(B) The effects can sometimes be silent.
(C) They can involve either adding or deleting nucleotides.
(D) They can sometimes result in a stop codon being formed.
(E) None of the above are true.
C
136
58. Both chemical and intercalating mutagens can increase mutation rates; however, chemical mutagens cause ______ mutations while intercalating mutagens cause _______mutations.
(A) Point, Pyrimidine Dimer
(B) Frameshift, Point
(C) DNA break, Frameshift
(D) Point, Frameshift
(E) Frameshift, DNA break
D
137
59. ____ mutations involve the insertion or deletion of Nucleotides.
(A) Point
(B) Substitution
(C) Frame Shift
(D) Transition
(E) None of the above
C
138
60. Which of the following is not a point mutation?
(A) silent
(B) missense
(C) insertions
(D) none of the above
C
139
61. Which of the following mutagens fall under the umbrella of chemical mutagens?
(A) Ultraviolet
(B) Lipid Base Analogs
(C) Mobile DNA
(D) Insertion Sequences
(E) none of the above
E
140
62. In gene transfer, transduction is defined by...
(A) Recipient cells taking up naked DNA
(B) F plasmid integration into chromosomes
(C) Bacteriophage injection of genome into host cells
(D) Direct gene transfer via. cell-to-cell contact
(E) Genes moving within or between DNA molecules
C
141
63. Which is not a type of horizontal gene transfer?
(A) Conjugation
(B) Transformation
(C) Transcription
(D) Transdermal
(E) All of the above are examples of gene transfer
D
142
64. Chemical modifiers in chemical mutagens cause _____
(A) Point mutations
(B) Frameshift mutations
(C) A change in structure of nucleotides
(D) A and C
(E) None of the above
D
143
65. What is NOT a step in the recombination mechanism?
(A) SSBs attach to donor DNA
(B) Heteroduplex Formation
(C) Donor DNA nicked
(D) Change from wild type to mutant type
(E) RecA protein binds
D
144
66. You are working at LabCorp to determine what chemical compounds are mutagenic and lead to either induced or spontaneous mutations in bacteria. After using the Ames Test, many colonies can be found surrounding the chemical tested. Based on the results, you can conclude that the chemical is a _________ that led to _________ mutations within the colonies?d
(A) Spontaneous/Induced
(B) Mutagen/Induced
(C) Intercalating Agent/Spontaneous
(D) Horizontal Transfer/Spontaneous
(E) None of the above
B
145
67. You are stduying a DNA sequence and find that a specific mutation was caused by an external agent. You cannot know at this point what exactly the type of mutagen was, but you do know that it is which of the following type of mutation
(A) Spontaneous mutation
(B) Induced mutation
(C) Intercalating agent
(D) Silent mutation
(E) None of the above
B
146
68. Which of the following are agents that increase mutation rate?
(A) Plasmids
(B) Mobile DNA
(C) Modifiers
(D) Mutagens
(E) None of the above
D
147
69. What is the effect of a missense point mutation?
(A) Same amino acid
(B) Stop codon
(C) Different amino acid
(D) Mutation of a mutation
(E) Adding nucleotides
C
148
70. Which type of gene transfer is the least directed?
(A) Transformation
(B) Transduction
(C) Conjugation
(D) Both transduction and Conjugation
(E) They are all equal in directness
B
149
71. All are correct in describing the Ames test except for______.
(A) The medium utilized contains increased histidine and nutrient levels
(B) Allows for ability to observe bacterial growth
(C) It utilizes auxotrophic mutants
(D) It is a bacterial assay to detect chemical changes
(E) None of the above
A
150
72. The two methods employed in second generation genome sequencing are ______ and _______.
(A) De Novo PCR, Emulsion PCR
(B) Emulsion PCR, Bridge PCR
(C) Illumina, Bridge
(D) SMRT PCR, Nanopore
(E) None of the above
B
151
73. ______ NOT require PCR amplification for sequencing.
(A) First Generation Sequencing
(B) Second Generation Sequencing
(C) Third Generation Sequencing
(D) Fourth Generation Sequencing
(E) All of the above use PCR for sequencing
C
152
74. ______ are characteristics of dideoxynucleotides.
(A) 3’-carbon OH replaced with H
(B) Terminates DNA replication
(C) Used to complete PCR
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
D
153
75. The _____ carbon in a deoxyribose sugar is changed from a OH to a _____ in “Sanger” Sequencing.
(A) 2’, H
(B) 2’, O
(C) 3’, H
(D) 1’, H
(E) 3’, O
C
154
76. A _______ genome means it is a complete sequence with no gaps, while a _________ genome is an incomplete sequence with gaps.
(A) Closed; Draft
(B) Draft; Closed
(C) Open; Closed
(D) Closed; Open
(E) None of the above
A
155
77. ______ is the main contributing factor of genome evolution.
(A) Gene Deletion
(B) Horizontal Gene Transfer
(C) Gene loss
(D) Gene Duplication
(E) None of the above
D
156
78. What is the main mechanism for new gene evolution?
(A) Gene duplication
(B) Gene deletion
(C) Horizontal gene transfer
(D) Vertical gene transfer
(E) None of the above
A
157
79. What is primary process driving gene evolution?
(a) Horizontal gene transfer
(b) Gene deletion
(c) Transposable elements
(d) Gene duplication
(e) None of the above
D
158
81. What processes are included in the “shotgun” approach?
(A) Fragmentation
(B) Sequencing
(C) Assembly
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
D
159
80. We sequence a genome using the “shotgun approach”. The three parts of genome construction include: Fragmentation, Sequencing, and ______.
(A) Synthesis
(B) Alignment
(C) Assembly
(D) Transcriptomics
C
160
82. In first-generation sequencing (“Sanger”), dideoxynucelotides are used in PCR to replace ______ with ______ on the 3’-Carbon.
(A) OH; H
(B) O; OH
(C) H; OH
(D) OH; O
(E) None of the above
A
161
83. What is the difference between the Dideoxy analog and Normal deoxynucleotide.?
(A) Dideoxy analog has OH group
(B) Deoxynucleotide has OH group
(C) deoxynucleotide is missing only O group
(D) dideoxy analog missing only H group
(E) None of the above
B
162
84. ______ genomes occur more often in endosymbionts because they get a lot of things from their host so they don’t need as many genes within their genome.
(A) Small
(B) Large
(C) Meta
(D) Pan
(E) None of the above
C
163
The first step of the “shotgun” approach to sequencing a genome is _______.
(A) Assembly
(B) Sequencing
(C) Fragmentation
(D) None of the above
C
164
The ________ Genome = ________ Genes because there is little “junk” DNA.
(A) Larger, More
(B) Larger, Less
(C) Smaller, More
(D) Smaller, Less
A
165
87. Proteomics is:
(A) All genetic information in the cell.
(B) All genetic information in an environment
(C) Expressed genetic information
(D) Translated genetic information
D
166
88. Transcriptomics is:
(A) All genetic information in the cell.
(B) All genetic information in an environment
(C) Expressed genetic information
(D) Translated genetic information
C
167
89. Which of the following is the fastest method of DNA Sequencing?
(A) Second Generation Sequencing
(B) Sanger Method
(C) Nebulization
(D) Third Generation sequencing
(E) All of the above are equally fast
D
168
90. Which category encompasses microarrays, or gene chips, used to monitor the expression levels of individual genes, within the realm of studying total gene expression?
(A) Transcriptomics
(B) Metagenomics
(C) Translatomics
(D) Betagenomics
(E) None of the above
A
169
91. Which genetic roadblock earns the title of the bioinformatics ‘bottleneck’?
(A) Genome fragmentation frustration
(B) Genome sequencing standstill
(C) Genome sequencing snail pace
(D) Genome annotation aggravation
(E) None of the above
D
170
92. Since you learned about transcriptomics in microbiology lecture, you know you can use “this/these” type(s) of specific chip to detect which animals you are eating in an unknown dish that you are trying in a fancy restaurant.
(A) Phylochip
(B) FoodExpert ID
(C) Potato chip
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
B
171
93. What is a closed genome?
(A) A complete sequence
(B) When there is no gaps in the sequence
(C) A term involving De Novo Assembly
(D) The opposite of draft genome
(E) All of the above
E
172
94. Sanger sequencing sequences ______ reaction(s) at a time, whereas second generation sequencing sequences ________ reaction(s) at a time.
(A) One, one
(B) One, multiple
(C) Multiple, one
(D) None of the above
B
173
95. What is the correct order of genome construction?
(A) Assembly, Sequencing, Fragmentation
(B) Assembly, Fragmentation, Sequencing
(C) Fragmentation, Sequencing, Assembly
(D) Fragmentation, Assembly, Sequencing
(E) Sequencing, Fragmentation, Assembly
C
174
96. Which of the following is the correct explanation of proteomics?
(A) Pooled DNA from environmental samples
(B) Study of total gene expression
(C) Study of total protein production
(D) All of the above are correct explanations
(E) None of the above
C
175
97. Which technique is performed in a test tube?
(A) In vitro
(B) In silico
(C) In vivo
(D) In situ
(E) None of the above
A
176
98. Why do parasites typically have a small genome size?
(A) Because they live with a host cell
(B) Because they are small organisms
(C) They only require one gene
(D) They are free-living organisms
(E) None of the above
A
177
99. Genomics contain all the genetic information in _____, while metagenomics contain all the genetic information in _____.
(A) A nucleus, a cell
(B) A cell, an environment
(C) An environment, a cell
(D) The cell wall, a nucleus
(E) A ribosome, an environment
B
178
100. Although second generation sequencing and third generation sequencing are both ___ parallel, ___ generation sequencing is 100X faster.
(A) Massively // Third
(B) Singularly // Third
(C) Massively // Second
(D) Singularly // Second
(E) None of the above.
A
179
101. Which of the following would be considered genes that are essential for life
(A) DNA Replication genes
(B) Transcription
(C) Translation
(D) Both A and C
(E) A, B, and C
E
180
102. Which of the following was a part of the genome era and sequenced in 1995?
(A) First Archaeal Genome
(B) First Animal Genome
(C) First Bacterial Genome
(D) First Human Genome
(E) First Viral Genome
C
