Lecture Exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Where is the heart located?
A
mediastinum
2
Q
What is the valve labeled A?
A
Aortic Semilunar Valve
3
Q
What is the valve labeled B?
A
Right Atrioventricular Valve
4
Q
What is the valve labeled C?
A
Pulmonary Semilunar Valve
5
Q
What is the valve labeled D?
A
Left Atrioventricular Valve
6
Q
What does the right side of the heart do?
A
Receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs
7
Q
What does the left side of the heart do?
A
Receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the body.
8
Q
Where does the pulmonary trunk transport from?
A
The right ventricle
9
Q
Where do the vena cavae deposit their blood?
A
Right atrium
10
Q
Where do the pulmonary veins deposit blood into?
A
The left atrium
11
Q
What are the layers of the pericardium?
A
Fibrous pericardium
Parietal serous pericardium
Pericardial cavity
Visceral pericardium
12
Q
What is this person experiencing?
A
Pericardial effusion
Left pleural effusion
Evidence of right heart failure
Pericarditis
13
Q
What are the layers of the heart wall?
A
Epicardium
Myocardium
Endocardium
14
Q
What are these symptoms of?
Chest pain
- A rapid or abnormal heartbeat (arrhythmia)
- Shortness of breath, at rest or during physical activity
- Fluid retention with swelling of your legs, ankles and feet
- Fatigue
- Other signs and symptoms you’d have with a viral infection, such as a headache, body aches, joint pain, fever, a sore throat or diarrhea
A
Myocarditis
15
Q
What tissue type makes up the fibrous skeleton of the heart, and what are its functions?
A
Dense Irregular Connective Tissue
– Forms the foundation for which the heart valves attach
– Serves as a point of insertion for cardiac muscle bundles
– Prevents overstretching of the heart valves
– Acts as an electrical insulator
16
Q
What is the function of atrioventricular valves?
A
Prevent backflow from the ventricles into the atria
17
Q
What is the function of semilunar valves?
A
Prevent backflow from the arteries into the ventricles
18
Q
What usually involves AV valves and often results in valve replacement surgery?
A
Severe Endocarditis
19
Q
What are these symptoms of?
– Thoracic pain caused by a fleeting deficiency in blood delivery to the myocardium
– Cells are weakened
A
Angina Pectoris
20
Q
What are these symptoms of?
– Prolonged coronary blockage
– Areas of cell death are repaired with noncontractile scar tissue
A
Myocardial Infarction
21
Q
What are the defining factors of cardiac muscle tissue?
A
- T tubules are wide but less numerous; SR is simpler than in skeletal muscle
- Numerous large mitochondria (25– 35% of cell volume)
- Desmosomes prevent cells from separating during contraction
- Gap junctions allow ions to pass; electrically couples adjacent cells
22
Q
What are the defining factors of cardiac muscle contraction?
A
- Some cardiac muscle cells are self excitatory
- Gap junctions in cardiac muscle tie it together so the depolarization wave travels from cell to cell
- Refractory period lasts 250ms
23
Q
What is the SA node?
A
Sinoatrial node, pacemaker
24
Q
What causes the depolarization, plateau, and repolarization?
A
Depolarization: Na+ inflow
Plateau: Ca2+ inflow and K+ outflow
Repolarization: K+ outflow
25
What are the major homeostatic imbalances of the intrinsic conduction system?
Arrythmia (Bradycardia and Tachycardia)
Uncoordinated atrial and ventricular contractions
Fibrillation: rapid, irregular contractions that are useless for pumping blood
26
What do autonomic centers modify in the heart?
Heart Rate and Force of Contraction
27
What do parasympathetic axons modify in the heart?
Reduces heart rate through the release of ACh
28
What neurotransmitter increases the heart rate through G-protein signaling?
Norepinephrine
29
How do you calculate stroke volume?
Stroke Volume = End diastolic Volume - End Systolic Volume
30
How do you calculate Cardiac Output?
Cardiac Output(mL/min) = Stroke Volume(mL/beat) x Heart Rate(beats/min)
31
What structures are present for fetal circulation, and what do they turn into later in life?
Ductus Arteriosus - Ligamentum Arteriosum
Foramen Ovalle - Fossa Ovalle
Ductus Venosus - Ligamentum Venosum
Umbillical Vein - Round ligament of liver
Umbillical Arteries - Medial umbillical ligaments
32
What is the name of the congenital heart defect where the foramen ovalle fails to close?
Patent foramen ovalle
33
What is the name of the congenital heart defect where there is a narrow segment of the aorta?
Coarctation of the aorta
34
What is the name of the congenital heart defect where the ductus arteriosis remains open?
Patent ductus arteriosus
35
What is the name of the congenital heart defect where there is an interventricular septum defect, enlarged right ventricle, stenosed pulmonary semilunar valve, and the aorta emerges from both right and left ventricles?
Tetralogy of Fallot
36
What regulated the flow of blood through capillary beds?
Precapillary sphincters
37
What are the types of capillaries, and where are they located?
Continuous: Skin, muscles, brain
Fenestrated: small intestines, endocrine glands, kidneys
Sinusoidal: liver, bone marrow, spleen
38
What is bulk flow in capillaries regulated by?
Net filtration pressure
39
What is blood resistence affected by, and what does it affect?
By: blood viscosity, vessel length, vessel radius
Also affected by atherosclerosis
Affects: total blood flow
40
During exercise, which organs receive increased blood flow?
Brain, heart, skin, muscles
41
What is hypovolumic shock?
Failure of CV system to deliver enough O2 and nutrients to meet cellular metabolic needs
42
What are these symptoms of?
* Clammy, cool, pale skin
* Tachycardia
* Weak, rapid pulse
* Sweating
* Hypotension (SBP \<90 mmHg)
* Altered mental status
* Decreased urinary output
* Thirst
* Acidosis
Shock
43
What is the threshold of hypotension?
Systolic pressure below 100mmHg
44
What are these symptoms of?
temporary low BP and dizziness when suddenly rising from a sitting or reclining position
Orthostatic hypotension
45
What are these symptoms of?
Hint of poor nutrition and warning sign for Addison’s disease or hypothyroidism
Chronic hypotension
46
What are these symptoms of?
important sign of circulatory shock
Acute hypotension
47
How does aging affect the heart?
– Loss of compliance of the aorta
– Reduction in cardiac muscle fiber size
– Progressive loss of cardiac muscular strength
– Decline in maximum heart rate
– Increased systolic blood pressure
48
What does primary hypertension cause?
Heart failure, vascular disease, renal failure, and stroke
49
What disease do these disorders cause?
kidney disease, arteriosclerosis, and endocrine disorders such as hyperthyroidism and Cushing’s syndrome
Secondary Hypertension
50
What kinds of medications are used to treat hypertension?
Diuretics
• Angiotensin- converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
• Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
• Renin inhibitors
• Beta-blockers
• Alpha-blockers
• Alpha-agonists
• Calcium channel blockers
• Combination medications
51
What are the three functions of the lymphatic system?
1. Drains excess interstitial fluid
2. Transports dietary lipids absorbed by the GI tract
3. Carries out immune responses
52
How are lymph capillaries and blood capillaries different?
Lymphatic Capillaries have a greater permeability and larger diameter than blood capillaries
53
What are lacteals?
Specialized lymph capillaries present in intestinal mucosa – Absorb digested fat and deliver fatty lymph (chyle) to the blood
54
What is this homeostatic imbalance?
Lymphedema
55
What is innate immunity vs. adaptive immunity?
Innate immunity is an immediate response, nonspecific
Adaptive immunity is specialized
56
What primary germ layer to lymph organs arise from?
Mesoderm (except thymus)
Thymus arises from the endoderm, specifically from the pharynx
57
What do innate immune cells respond to first?
Tissue injury and potential pathogens, they eliminate diseased cells, pathogens and induce inflammation
58
How do cells communicate during immune responses?
Soluable mechanisms
Cell to Cell contact
59
What is a PAMP?
Pathogen Associated Molecular Pattern
60
What is a TLR?
Toll Like Receptors
61
Where do lymphocytes develop and mature, activate, and persist in memory?
Development and Maturation: Red bone marrow and Thymus
* Activation and effector responses: Secondary Lymphoid organs
* Memory: secondary lymphoid organs
62
Where do B cells and T cells develop?
Primary Lymphatic organs
63
What three things must occur during B cell maturation?
1. B cells that recognize self-antigens are deleted (negative selection) to prevent autoimmune disease
2. The right cytokine signals help them to live (co-stimulation)
3. Lack of the right cytokine signals results in anergy or inactivation of B cells (to prevent autoimmune disease)
All of these occur in the red bone marrow
64
Where do T cells develop?
Thymus
65
What are the functions of secondary lymphoid organs?
1. Filter lymph—macrophages destroy microorganisms and debris
2. Immune system— lymphocytes are activated and mount an attack against antigens
3. Store memory lymphocytes that quickly become activated when they see their appropriate antigen
4. T cells and B cells often work together
66
What makes IgG unique?
Used for passive immunity, crosses placenta
67
What makes IgM unique?
First produced antibody, only antibody produced in the fetus
68
What makes IgA unique?
Associated with mucosal membranes, helps protect against local respiratory or GI infections
69
What makes IgD unique?
Identifies when immature B lymphocytes may be ready for activation
70
What makes IgE unique?
Causes release of products from basophils and mast cells, attracts eiosinophils
71
What is the function of tonsils?
Trap digestive and respiratory pathogens
72
What are these qualities of?
– Clusters of lymphoid follicles
– In the wall of the distal portion of the small intestine
– Similar structures are also found in the appendix
– Destroy bacteria, preventing them from breaching the intestinal wall
– Generate “memory” lymphocytes
Peyer’s patches
73
What are the four types of organ transplants?
– Autografts: from one body site to another in the same person
– Isografts: between identical twins
– Allografts: between individuals who are not identical twins
– Xenografts: from another animal species
74
What is SCID and how is it treated?
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
Treated with bone marrow transplants
75
What is the function of the plurae?
Lubrication and surface tension
76
What is inflammation of the pleura called?
Pleurisy
77
What are the differences between the larynx and the pharynx?
Pharynx
1. Passageway for food and air
2. Resonating chamber for speech sounds
3. Houses tonsils
Larynx
1. Provides a patent airway
2. Routes air and food into proper channels
3. Voice production
78
What is the opening between the pharynx and larynx?
Glottis
79
What are these qualities of?
– Detergent-like lipid and protein complex produced by type II alveolar cells
– Reduces surface tension of alveolar fluid and discourages alveolar collapse
– Insufficient quantity in premature infants causes infant respiratory distress syndrome
Surfactant
80
Does fetal or adult hemoglobin have a higher affinity for oxygen?
Fetal
81
What allow conscious control of respiration that may be needed to avoid inhaling noxious gases or water?
Cortical influences
82
What monitor levels of O 2 and CO 2 and provide input to the respiratory center?
Chemoreceptors
83
What is a slight increase in PCO 2 (and thus H+)?
Hypercapnia
84
What is Oxygen deficiency at the tissue level caused by a low PO2 in arterial blood due to high altitude, airway obstruction or fluid in the lungs?
Hypoxia
