Lesson 202 VFR Departures Overview Flashcards
(183 cards)
1
Q
What is the enabling objective EO 202.1?
A
Issue taxi clearance to VFR departure.
2
Q
What must a pilot do at a controlled airport before taxiing for takeoff?
A
Contact ATC the ground controller.
3
Q
What should pilots state upon initial contact with ATC for departure?
A
Their intentions such as destination and requested altitude.
4
Q
What frequency should taxi authorization be requested on?
A
The ground control frequency.
5
Q
What should pilots do where no Clearance Delivery frequency is available?
A
The IFR clearance will normally be relayed by ground control before or after taxi authorization has been issued.
6
Q
What must pilots inform the tower of if no flight plan has been filed?
A
The nature of the flight on initial contact such as local VFR or proceeding VFR to destination.
7
Q
What does the ground control provide in response to a pilot’s request for taxi?
A
Runway number wind in magnetic degrees and knots altimeter four-digit group taxi route and any other relevant information.
8
Q
Under what circumstances may a taxiing aircraft taxi onto an active runway?
A
Only when specifically authorized to do so.
9
Q
What is expected of a pilot upon receipt of a normal taxi authorization?
A
To proceed to the taxi-holding position for the runway assigned for takeoff.
10
Q
What should pilots do if they have not received specific authorization to cross a runway?
A
Hold short and request authorization to cross the runway.
11
Q
What does the term ‘holding short’ signify in communications?
A
It is considered a location and does not require a readback.
12
Q
What should a ground controller do upon receiving a request from a pilot?
A
Quickly review the FDEs in the planned panel to check whether an FDE already exists.
13
Q
How does the system determine the aircraft type when creating an FDE?
A
The aircraft type will automatically populate if it’s in the database; if not it must be entered manually.
14
Q
What is the purpose of the MATS Tower Appendix Forms and Reports Statistics?
A
To record only aircraft events that are controlled by the tower or are not already recorded in another category.
15
Q
What type of data should be recorded for aircraft events according to MATS?
A
- Initial takeoff
- touch-and-go stop-and-go
- simulated approach without landing
- low approach
- pullup missed approach
- overflight and
- final landing.
16
Q
What should be included in the Comments field during data entry?
A
The unabbreviated aircraft registration mark explanations given by the pilot or useful information as directed in unit procedures.
17
Q
What is the default position of the ground controller for creating a departure FDE?
A
It will default to creating a departure blue FDE.
18
Q
What is necessary for recording an aircraft’s identification?
A
The identification must be recorded in full without the leading C on Canadian aircraft.
19
Q
What must a pilot ensure regarding altitude based on flight direction?
A
An aircraft must fly at an odd or even number of thousands of feet based on flight direction as per CARs.
20
Q
What should a pilot do if the requested altitude is not appropriate for their flight direction?
A
The controller is responsible for advising the pilot that the requested altitude is not appropriate.
21
Q
When must the type of aircraft be recorded in the FDE?
A
The TYPE field is mandatory.
22
Q
What is the purpose of the notepad in the FDE?
A
To fill in quick notes with critical details for a departure.
23
Q
What information must be included in the FDE’s notepad?
A
Direction of flight special intentions (if any) and requested altitude.
24
Q
What should be considered when determining the requested altitude for a flight?
A
The Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) specify altitude according to flight direction.
25
What is the purpose of a published VFR route?
To standardize the routes of VFR aircraft that are departing from an airport.
26
What is the purpose of VFR routes?
VFR routes make the pilots and controllers' jobs easier since arrival and departure routes may be separated laterally and/or vertically in the vicinity of the airport.
27
How should a VFR waypoint be identified in communications with pilots?
Identify a VFR waypoint by its full name not by its identifier.
28
What is mandatory for a VFR flight?
A destination is mandatory.
29
What does the use of location indicators air traffic designators suffixes and abbreviations do for the controller?
Reduce the workload of the controller allowing them to create Flight Data Entries (FDEs) more quickly.
30
What should be memorized before starting simulation regarding the vicinity of March?
Memorize the location indicators or indicator symbols as they help focus on the main task of controlling aircraft.
31
What is the code used if the destination has no location code?
ZZZZ is used instead.
32
What should the Site Remarks indicate?
The pilots' intentions or direction of flight.
33
What is the critical action for ground controllers before advancing the strip to the airport controller?
Ensure the Flight Data Entry (FDE) is complete.
34
What is the purpose of a transponder?
It takes a surveillance target and allows us to link the target to a specific aircraft.
35
What does a Mode C transponder provide?
Accurate altitude information which is essential in air traffic control.
36
What must pilots comply with regarding transponder instructions?
Pilots must comply with instructions from air traffic control (ATC) regarding the use of transponders until they receive other instructions or until the aircraft has landed.
37
What is the preferred code assignment for aircraft?
Assign an aircraft a discrete code in preference to a non-discrete code.
38
What non-discrete code do VFR aircraft below 12500 ASL use?
1200
39
What is the non-discrete code for gliders?
1202
40
What are the non-discrete codes for IFR and CVFR aircraft?
HLA 2000 for IFR and LLA 1000 for CVFR.
41
What must be done when issuing a transponder code during high workload phases like departure and arrival?
Avoid issuing code changes during these phases of flight.
42
What are some conditions under which ATC may authorize an aircraft not equipped with a functioning transponder to operate in transponder-required airspace?
Approval can be subject to conditions such as altitude restrictions and/or airspace limitations deemed required to maintain safety.
43
During taxi what must transponders normally be set to?
Transponders must normally be set to STANDBY during taxi and to ON or NORMAL just before takeoff.
44
What should a ground controller know before issuing taxi instructions?
Which aircraft is requesting taxi and where it is located on the airport.
45
What is the order of items in a taxi departure clearance?
1. Aircraft identification
2. Unit identification
3. Runway information
4. Wind information
5. Altimeter information
6. Movement instructions
7. Supplementary information.
46
Why might increased taxi intervals be required for aircraft taxiing behind jet aircraft?
Wake Turbulence
47
What does 'HOLDING SHORT' indicate during communication transfer?
It indicates a location and is not considered a restriction thus does not require a readback.
48
What is the significance of using 'RUNWAY' followed by the runway number when identifying a runway?
It clarifies the runway by specifying the word RUNWAY followed by the number using separate digits.
49
What must controllers do if the local wind data indicates a direction and speed?
Issue the local wind direction and speed from the direct-reading instrument.
50
When extracting wind data from METAR or automated observations what must be issued?
Time wind direction and speed.
51
What must be indicated if the altimeter is older than an hour?
Indicate the time it was issued.
52
What can be included in taxi instructions beyond the standard items?
Traffic airport conditions and RVR data can be included.
53
When should the communication control be transferred from the ground controller to the airport controller?
As an aircraft moves to the departure runway.
54
What should the pilot do if they do not need the full length of the runway for takeoff?
They may request an intersection departure.
55
What must the ground controller obtain before authorizing an intersection departure?
Approval from the airport controller.
56
What happens if the airport controller refuses an intersection departure request?
The ground controller will inform the pilot of the refusal and the reason.
57
In what scenario must the ground controller suggest departure from an intersection?
When the pilot does not request it especially in a runway configuration without a taxiway going to the threshold.
58
What must be done if a pilot decides to use the full length of a runway with no taxiway to the threshold?
The pilot must backtrack.
59
What can the ground controller access for the intended runway for departure?
The ground controller can access a drop-down menu of taxiways for the intended runway for departure as well as the remaining runway length by clicking on the intersection popup in IWP.
60
What is the process to indicate a departure from an intersection after a runway is selected?
1. After a runway is selected for departure tap the RWY control on a departure FDE. 2. The RWY popup opens. 3. Tap the Intersection INT control. 4. The Intersection popup opens showing the associated runway distances for each intersection. 5. Tap the intersection to be used for departure.
61
What should a ground controller do if a request for an intersection departure is clearly not feasible?
It is encouraged for the ground controller to unilaterally refuse a bad intersection request without coordinating with the airport controller.
62
Define an oblique angle in aviation terms.
An oblique angle is any angle that is not 90 degrees.
63
What are oblique taxiway departures?
Oblique taxiway departures are procedures implemented to reduce runway incursions and are limited in that the flight crew must be able to see the threshold of the active runway and final approach of the active runway.
64
Under what circumstances can oblique angle intersections be used to access the active runway?
Oblique angle intersections can only be used if there are no other options to access the active runway without having to taxi or backtrack onto an active runway.
65
What is the definition of backtrack in aviation?
Backtrack is the taxiing of an aircraft on a runway in use in a direction opposite to the landing or take-off direction.
66
What must a pilot do if they want to backtrack up the runway after entering at an intersection?
The pilot must inform the controller of these intentions and obtain clearance to complete this maneuver before entering the runway.
67
When should a controller instruct a pilot to change communication frequency?
A controller should instruct a pilot to change to or monitor a new frequency when specified in the communication transfer procedures.
68
What does the term 'CONTACT HOLDING SHORT' indicate?
The term 'CONTACT HOLDING SHORT' is used when the ground controller asks a pilot to contact the Tower while HOLDING SHORT of the runway.
69
What is the difference between 'CONTACT HOLDING SHORT' and 'HOLD SHORT'?
CONTACT HOLDING SHORT does not require a readback from the pilot whereas HOLD SHORT does require a readback to ensure the pilot understands and will follow the instruction.
70
What is the specified frequency at March for the tower?
The specified frequency at March is 118.2 tower frequency.
71
What information must be recorded before transferring control of an aircraft?
Identification type
requested altitude
destination point of zone exit and/or departure direction
departure runway departure intersection if applicable and language if applicable.
72
What is the primary rule regarding control transfer of an aircraft?
Control of an aircraft belongs to one specific controller at a time and an aircraft can never be under the control of two controllers simultaneously.
73
What should a controller do visually before issuing take-off clearance?
The controller must do a visual scan of the aircraft's location to confirm the entire runway final approach and departure path are clear of obstacles.
74
What must be ensured before an aircraft can begin its take-off roll?
The runway and the RPA must be free or will be free of all known obstacles including taxiing aircraft and ground traffic.
75
What happens if there is traffic in the RPA before a departure?
An aircraft cannot begin their take-off roll if there is traffic in the RPA and the pilot must be informed that a clearance cannot be issued.
76
What is successive departure separation?
Successive departure separation is the separation between two VFR departures following one after the other on the same runway.
77
What are the 1st
conditions that must be met before the second aircraft begins its take-off roll?
1. The first aircraft has departed and turned to clear the departure path.
78
2. The first aircraft has departed and reached a point on the departure path where it will not conflict with the second aircraft.
79
What are the two conclusions drawn regarding take-off clearance for the second aircraft?
1. We may issue take-off clearance to the second aircraft provided the appropriate runway separation will exist prior to its take-off roll.
80
2. We need only one separation standard to exist prior to the take-off roll.
81
What does EO 202.3 refer to?
EO 202.3 refers to the issuance of take-off clearance.
82
What are the steps the airport controller must take before issuing take-off clearance?
1. Scan IWP and ensure that the FDE is consistent with the visually observed position of the aircraft.
83
2. Scan final approach the full length of the runway including RPA and the departure path.
84
3. Scan both the aircraft's intended route and the entire control zone on SiT.
85
What is the instruction given by the airport controller when they cannot give take-off clearance immediately?
The controller can issue an instruction to LINE UP RUNWAY ID.
86
What is the importance of the entry point when instructing an aircraft to line up?
The entry point must be stated when an aircraft is authorized to enter the runway especially if it is at any location other than the threshold or including the threshold if another entry point is in use.
87
What does the term 'Backtrack' refer to in airport operations?
Backtrack refers to when an aircraft requires to taxi at normal speed turnaround and wait for departure clearance on the runway.
88
What must the airport controller do when an aircraft must backtrack from an intersection or taxiway?
State the entry point as follows: AT taxiway id intersection BACKTRACK runway id.
89
What should the airport controller do for departure efficiency?
Line up two or more aircraft for departure when an operational advantage exists.
90
What are the conditions that must be met to line up more than one aircraft for takeoff?
1. All aircraft are visible to the airport controller.
91
2. Specify the name of the runway intersection taxiway or threshold.
92
3. Issue a departure sequence number to all subsequent aircraft.
93
4. Provide traffic information to all subsequent aircraft in the departure sequence.
94
What is the definition of A-SMGCS?
A-SMGCS stands for Advanced Surface Movement Guidance and Control System which is a surface surveillance system used for the detection and display of aircraft aircraft under tow or a vehicle on or near the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome.
95
What is the MATS Tower Glossary definition for SMGCS?
SMGCS stands for Surface Movement Guidance and Control System which is a single-sensor surface surveillance system used for the detection and display of aircraft aircraft under tow or vehicles on or near the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome.
96
What should be included in take-off clearance if the runway has been temporarily shortened?
Include SHORTENED in the line up clearances: LINE UP runway id SHORTENED.
97
What is the take-off clearance format?
Issue a take-off clearance in the following form:
98
12 aircraft id unit id special information control instructions wind information FROM intersection or threshold CLEARED operation runway id SHORTENED.
99
When should the controller issue a turn instruction to a VFR aircraft?
The controller should issue a turn instruction at the same time as the take-off clearance.
100
What are the types of turn instructions that can be issued?
1. Left turn
101
2. Right turn
102
3. Straight-out Departure.
103
What does 'straight-out departure' mean?
Straight-out departure emphasizes that we are expecting the departure to fly generally on course to a destination roughly in line with the departure runway.
104
What are the altitude restriction forms that can be applied?
1. NOT ABOVE altitude
105
2. NOT BELOW altitude.
106
What must be done when an altitude restriction is issued or cancelled?
Whenever an altitude restriction is issued it must be marked in IWP. Conversely when it is cancelled IWP must be promptly updated.
107
What is the importance of observing and marking the departure time in IWP?
The exact time of the aircraft's departure becomes very important later especially with wake turbulence.
108
What indicates that readback is required in the HDGALT control?
The selected heading and altitude is displayed in the HDGALT control with a yellow background.
109
Is readback mandatory for IFR aircraft?
Yes readback is mandatory for IFR aircraft.
110
Do VFR aircraft require a readback for HDG or ALT?
No VFR aircraft do not require a readback for HDG or ALT.
111
What happens when a correct readback is received for HDGALT?
When a correct readback is received the yellow background is removed and the heading and altitude are displayed in green.
112
What wind speed requires re-issuing wind direction and speed information?
When the wind speed or gusts are 15 knots or more.
113
What should be indicated if the wind is gusting or its direction is variable?
Indicate whether the wind is gusting or if its direction is variable as needed.
114
Provide an example of wind information when gusting is present.
WIND TWO-SEVEN-ZERO AT FIFTEEN GUSTING TWENTY-FIVE.
115
What must a controller specify when clearing a pilot for takeoff from a taxiway or runway intersection?
The controller must specify either the name of the taxiway or the name of the runway intersection.
116
What is an 'immediate takeoff' as defined by ATC?
An expression used by ATC to indicate that the pilot is expected to taxi onto the runway and take off in one continuous movement.
117
When can take-off clearances include the term 'immediate' or 'immediately'?
To accelerate the flow of traffic for departure and obtain separation between arriving and departing aircraft.
118
What are the two forms an immediate take-off can take?
1. An aircraft holding short is expected to taxi onto the runway and takeoff in a continuous movement. 2. An aircraft already lined-up should depart without delay.
119
What should controllers consider when issuing an immediate take-off clearance?
Consider the aircraft operating characteristics and the effect that precipitation and surface conditions may have on the pilot's ability to comply.
120
What should be done if a pilot is unable to comply with an immediate take-off clearance?
Include alternate instructions such as 'HOLD SHORT runway id'.
121
What is required when cancelling or aborting a take-off clearance?
Use very specific phraseology and inform the pilot of the reason when appropriate.
122
What is the procedure if an aircraft has started its takeoff run and the controller initiates an abort?
The reason to abort departure must be related to safety and the controller must be aware that an aborted take-off can be dangerous.
123
What is an emergency procedure used by a pilot when continuing the takeoff would present a grave hazard?
Aborting a takeoff.
124
What should a controller do if they cannot ensure that the runway and the RPA are free of obstacles?
Cancel the previously issued take-off clearance.
125
What must be recorded in the system when an aircraft rotates and becomes airborne?
The departure time.
126
What does ATS surveillance include?
All methods of remotely sensing aircraft using certified electronic equipment including PSR SSR MLAT ADS-B.
127
What is the primary tool for airport controllers?
Visual observation out the window.
128
What is the maximum range normally displayed in ATS surveillance?
A maximum of 60 NM from left to right.
129
What is an ATS surveillance advisory?
Advice and information based on ATS surveillance observations.
130
What should be done if an aircraft is deviating from its assigned airspace?
Inform the pilot and assist them in returning to the assigned airspace if necessary.
131
What is the minimum lateral separation between two aircraft for the TCU?
3 NM.
132
What is ATS surveillance?
ATS surveillance refers to the separation spacing of aircraft in accordance with established minima based on information derived from ATS surveillance.
133
What is ATS surveillance control service?
ATS surveillance control service is an air traffic control service provided with information derived from ATS surveillance equipment sources.
134
What equipment is required for ATS surveillance service?
To provide the ATS surveillance service the controller must use certified equipment meaning the equipment must be approved by technologists as being operational.
135
How does ATS surveillance enhance control procedures?
ATS surveillance equipment and procedures supplement and enhance control procedures and equipment allowing for better spacing and traffic management.
136
What is the primary method of separation for airport traffic?
Except for the operation of a dedicated ATS surveillance position separation of airport traffic is primarily accomplished through visual scanning of the maneuvering area and airport vicinity.
137
What are the criteria for applying ATS surveillance control procedures?
ATS surveillance control procedures can be applied if: 1. The aircraft is identified. 2. The aircraft is in the TRA (Traffic Advisory Area). 3. The displayed ATS surveillance information is adequate.
138
What are the limitations of surveillance systems?
Due to the limitations of each surveillance system it is not always possible to identify traffic weather systems or other problems.
139
What happens when information comes only from secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?
When information comes only from SSR it is impossible to give traffic information about aircraft that are not equipped with a transponder and share other flight information like flocks of birds.
140
What is a transponder?
A transponder is a receiver and transmitter that generates a reply signal upon proper interrogation with the interrogation and reply being on different frequencies.
141
What is a mode C transponder?
A mode C transponder is a type of transponder with altitude-encoding capability.
142
What must ATC establish before providing ATS surveillance service?
ATC must establish identification of the aircraft through position reports identifying turns or transponders.
143
What must pilots be notified of during identification establishment?
Pilots must be notified whenever identification is established or lost with phrases such as 'IDENTIFIED' or 'IDENTIFICATION LOST'.
144
Does identification relieve pilots of collision avoidance responsibility?
No identification of their flight does not relieve pilots of the responsibility for collision avoidance or terrain obstacle clearance.
145
How many methods of identifying an aircraft are there according to the MATS Tower?
There are nine methods of identifying an aircraft.
146
What is one method of identifying an aircraft?
Identification by Handoff or Point-Out is one method of identifying an aircraft.
147
What is the definition of a handoff?
A handoff is the process of transferring the identification of an aircraft and radio communications for that aircraft to another sector or unit.
148
What is a point-out?
A point-out is the process of transferring the identification of an aircraft to another sector or unit without transferring communications or control of the aircraft.
149
What does the term 'Consistent Positions of PPS and Aircraft' refer to?
It refers to considering the aircraft identified when the position of the PPS (Precision Positioning System) is consistent with the visually observed position of the aircraft.
150
What must be observed for an Appropriate PPS Change to consider an aircraft identified?
Appropriate changes such as operating the aircraft's transponder Ident feature changing to a code that results in linkage or changing the transponder to standby must be observed.
151
In what situation is the aircraft position considered consistent on a situational display?
The aircraft's position is considered consistent when it is both within one mile of the departure end of the take-off runway and consistent with the time of takeoff and the route of flight.
152
What factors must apply when identifying an aircraft over a fix or a NAVAID?
The aircraft's track must be consistent with the route of flight or reported heading and the position of the fix or the NAVAID must be accurately indicated on the situational display.
153
What care must be taken when identifying an aircraft using a specified identifying turn?
It must be ensured that a position report indicates the aircraft is within ATS surveillance coverage and only one aircraft is observed to have performed the specified turn.
154
What can identify an aircraft in adjacent airspace?
Observation of its data tag ACID in adjacent airspace where ATS surveillance service is normally provided can identify an aircraft.
155
What is the significance of an ADS-B data tag for identification?
You may consider the aircraft identified when the flight identification element in an ADS-B data tag is recognized and is consistent with the aircraft's expected position.
156
What must be established before offering any ATS surveillance service?
Identification must be established before offering any ATS surveillance service.
157
What is the primary condition for applying ATS surveillance control procedures?
The aircraft must be identified.
158
What should be done once the aircraft has been identified?
Notify the pilot that the aircraft has been identified and that surveillance service is being offered.
159
What additional confirmation is required after identifying an aircraft?
Confirm the altitude of the aircraft.
160
How is the altitude validated after an aircraft is identified?
The controller validates the displayed altitude by comparing it to the altitude given by the pilot. The altitude readout is valid if these numbers are accurate within 200 feet.
161
At what times should altitude readouts be validated?
1. On initial contact 2. As soon as feasible if the readout is not displayed or cannot be validated on initial contact.
162
What phraseology should be used to request an aircraft's altitude?
REPORT YOUR ALTITUDE. SAY YOUR ALTITUDE. CONFIRM AT altitude.
163
What is the main condition for terminating surveillance service?
Surveillance service normally continues until the aircraft leaves surveillance coverage or leaves controlled airspace.
164
What should be communicated to the pilot when surveillance service is terminated?
Inform the pilot that surveillance service has been terminated.
165
What is required if ATS surveillance service is terminated after an approach clearance is issued?
You do not need to inform the pilot if ATS surveillance service is terminated after an approach clearance is issued or after the pilot cancels IFR.
166
When should VFR pilots monitor the tower frequency after departure?
It is recommended that a pilot of a departing aircraft monitor tower frequency until 10 NM from the control zone.
167
What should be ensured before changing frequency with an aircraft?
Ensure that there is no relevant information to transmit such as traffic on the surveillance display.
168
What phraseology is used when a VFR aircraft is leaving the control zone?
SURVEILLANCE SERVICE TERMINATED CHANGE TO ENROUTE FREQUENCY.
169
What must be done if a VFR aircraft requests to climb into Class C airspace?
The VFR aircraft must be switched to terminal frequency before entering Class C airspace.
170
What is the role of the airport controller in relation to VFR overflights entering Class C airspace?
Coordinate with the ACC for any VFR overflights that want to enter Class C airspace.
171
What is the altitude limit assigned to aircraft wishing to fly above in Class C airspace?
Assign an altitude of 3000 feet or below to any aircraft wishing to fly above 3000 feet.
172
In what situation might an aircraft request flight following from an IFR unit?
When operating in airspace with surveillance coverage a VFR aircraft may request flight following from the appropriate IFR unit even outside controlled airspace.
173
What is the main objective of the VFR Departures Basic Airport Control Course?
To issue taxi clearance to VFR departure apply runway separation issue a take-off clearance and apply ATS surveillance.
174
What is the valid difference between the altitude readout and the altitude reported by the aircraft?
An altitude readout is valid if the readout value does not differ by more than 200 feet from the altitude reported by the aircraft.
175
What should the airport controller ensure about aircraft in the control zone?
Ensure that all aircraft flying in the control zone are on the tower frequency.
176
What should a controller do if they see an unauthorized vehicle crossing the runway after issuing a take-off clearance?
The controller should use appropriate phraseology to instruct the pilots about the situation.
177
What is the procedure for a controller when changing to another controller's frequency?
An instruction to switch to a specific frequency is not required; the controller will advise the pilot they are leaving the zone and are released from tower frequency.
178
What are the two ways of creating a departure FDE in IWP?
1. [Answer not provided in the text.] 2. [Answer not provided in the text.]
179
Is a communication transfer the same as a control transfer?
No a communication transfer is not the same as a control transfer.
180
When must the wind be issued in a take-off clearance?
The wind must be issued in a take-off clearance whenever applicable; specific timing is not detailed in the text.
181
What must be included in a take-off clearance if more than one entry point on a single runway is used?
Details about each entry point must be included.
182
What methods are used to identify an aircraft as per the text?
Various identification methods are mentioned but specific methods are not detailed in the text.
183
What is the conclusion of the VFR Departures Basic Airport Control Course?
The next lesson will discuss arrivals in visual flight rules.
