Lesson 4 Flashcards
(188 cards)
1
Q
specimen should be collected from the __________ of infection
A
actual site
2
Q
in specimen collection, you need to _______ from adjacent tissues/skin
A
avoid contamination
3
Q
the quantity of specimen must be _____ in specimen collection
A
adequate
4
Q
observe __________ and use only _________ containers/tubes/syringes/swabs
A
aseptic technique
sterile
5
Q
in specimen collection, ______ transport of specimen to the laboratory is needed
A
prompt
6
Q
samples must be taken/collected prior to _____________
A
antibiotic administration
7
Q
in specimen collection, you need to consider the __________ and ________ of the disease
A
clinical history
physiology
8
Q
the time from collecting to plating the specimen should be kept in ___________
A
minimum
9
Q
the golden rule in specimen collection is?
A
proper labelling
10
Q
what are the specific sites for specimen collection?
A
- respiratory tract
- gastrointestinal tract
- urine
- blood
- cerebrospinal fluid
- wound culture and abscesses
11
Q
what is the specimen of choice for lower respiratory tract?
A
sputum
12
Q
specimen requirements for specimen collection in respiratory tract includes:
A
throat cultures
nasopharyngeal cultures
oral cavity
13
Q
the quality of sputum samplkes is determined by the minimum number of ______________ and ______________ per low power field
A
squamous epithelial cells
polymorphonuclear leukocytes
14
Q
quality sputum sample:
PMNs _____________
Epithelial cell ____________
A
> 25/lpf
<10/lpf
15
Q
thick and sticky substance
A
sputum
16
Q
thin and watery substance
A
saliva
17
Q
specimens are collected in the gastrointestinal tract for culture to diagnose ______________
A
gastroenteritis
18
Q
when collecting specimen in the gastrointestinal tract, _____________ specimen are preferred over _________
A
stool
rectal swab
19
Q
what should be used to enhance the growth of the pathogen, while inhibiting normal flora?
A
enrichment media
20
Q
this specimen is requested to diagnose UTI
A
urine
21
Q
specimen of choice for urines is?
A
clean catch midstream specimen
22
Q
if patient cannot void, we usually use _________
A
catheterized specimen
23
Q
for infants and young children, we use ________ in collecting urine specimen
A
suprapubic aspiration
24
Q
_______should be performed in all urine samples
A
colony count
25
a positive urine culture is ___________
> 100,000 CFUs/mL
26
it is the presence of bacteria in the blood
bacteremia
27
it is the normal flora in the blood
transient bacteremia
28
it is sporadically discharged from extravascular abscesses into the blood
intermittent bacteremia
29
it is the constant release of bacteria into the blood
continuous bacteremia
30
when is the highest concentration of bacteria in the blood?
before the fever spikes
31
for venipuncture if 2 to 3 sites, there should be _________ apart in between
1 hour
32
what are used in cleaning the skin prior for collection of blood, under 1 min.?
70% alcohol
2% iodine
33
__________ of blood is collected from adults during phlebotomy and ________ from children
10 mL
1-5 mL
34
it is collected by lumbar puncture
cerebrospinal fluid
35
what are the specific vertebraes where we collect the CSF?
3rd - 4th lumbar vertebrae
36
there are 3 tubes in collecting CSF:
TT1
TT2
TT3
What are they for?
chemistry/immunology
microbiology
hematology
37
specimen should be screened __________ for the presence of bacteria using Gram stain
immediately
38
delays must be avoided in processing CSF result to avoid ____________
high mortality
39
it is generally preferred to collect wound culture and abscess specimens using _____ and ______ to aspirate
syringe
needle
40
syringe and needles are used for wound culture and abscess to avoid _____ and high chance of ________
necrotizing fasciitis
anaerobes
41
it is the result from animal bites, burns, ulcer, and traumatic wound
exogenous wound
42
it is the bacterial sources within the patient like cellulitis, dental infections, septic arthritis
endogenous wound
43
in specimen transport, we should avoid:
exposure to heat
drying
cold temperature
44
with delay, use ______ to increase the viability of the pathogen up to 72 hours and refrigerate the specimen
Stuart's medium
45
it is more preferred than cotton swab
Ca-Alginate or Dacron swab
46
when specimen is not collected properly or accordingly, you should________
notify physician or nurse
47
upon the receipt of the specimen in the lab, ________ should be done
gross examination
48
for anaerobic culture, make sure to use _______________
anaerobic transport medium
49
specimen is mixed with saline then view under the microscope
saline mount
50
it dissolves keratin to make fungal elements more visible
KOH preparation
51
it is used to detect capsules
India ink
52
is is the capsular swelling, it detects capsular Ag
Neufeld (quelling) reaction
53
principles of staining technique
fixation
primary stain
mordant
decolorizing agent
counter stain
54
primary stain
crystal violet
55
mordant
iodine
56
decolorizing agent
alcohol/acetone
57
counter stain
safranin
58
it is used to stain mycobacteria
acid fast stain
59
these bacteria have thick and waxy walls
mycobacteria
60
it is called acid fast because it resist ________ by acid-alcohol
decolorizing
61
acid fast stain hot method
Ziehl Neelsen
62
acid fast stain cold method
kinyoun
63
what are the fluorescent stains?
rhodamine stains
acridine orange
calcofluor white
64
it stains mycobacteria
rhodamine stains
65
it is useful to demonstrate small amount of bacteria in blood cultures, CSF, urthral smears
acridine orange
66
this stain is used for fungi
calcofluor white
67
it is the mixture of nutrient by microorganisms
culture media
68
this contains energy proving source like carbon, nitrogen, sulfur, PO4, oxygen, buffers, CHO, amino acids
culture media
69
culture media may also contain _____________
antibiotics
70
it is a culture media in liquid form
broth
71
media in gel/semi-solid form
agar
72
agar is solidified by using _______________ also known as (agar agar)
red algae
73
types of culture media
1. general isolation media (basic media)
2. non selective isolation media (enriched media)
3. differential media (indicator media)
4. enrichment broth
5. selective media
6. antibiotic media
7. transport media
74
it is also known as supportive media
general isolation media (basic media)
75
it support the growth of non fastidious bacteria
general isolation media (basic media)
76
examples of general isolation media
nutrient agar
trypticase soy agar
nutrient broth
77
it contains a nutrient supplement like blood, serum, egg
non selective isolation media (enriched media)
78
it is used for cultivation of FASTIDIOUS BACTERIA
non selective isolation bacteria (enriched media)
79
is is used for culturing sterile body fluids
non selective isolation media (enriched media)
80
examples of non selective isolation media
sheep blood agar
chocolate agar
81
this is an example of non selective isolation media with 5% defibrinated sheep RBC
sheep blood agar
82
this is an example of non selective isolation media which is heated or enzyme treated blood agar.
chocolate agar
83
this agar is enriched with dextrose, cysteine, vitamin b, ferric nitrate
chocolate agar
84
this agar supports the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Haemophilus influenzae
chocolate agar
85
this provide distinct appearances of microorganisms to aid in their Identification
differential media (indicator media)
86
this media is mostly used to isolate Gr(-) bacteria through the addition of inhibitory agents against Gr(+) bacteria
differential media (indicator media)
87
This media maybe added with indicators that change color when acid is produced for fermentation of carbohydrates (CHO)
differential media (indicator media)
88
examples of differential media
MacConkey agar
Eosin-Methylene Blue (EMB)
89
this agar contains lactose, bile salts, red indicator, and crystal violet
MacConkey agar
90
this agar contains lactose, eosin, and methylene blue
eosin-methylene blue (EMB)
91
MacConkey Agar is for?
isolation for Gr (-) Enteric Bacilli
92
MacConkey Agar inhibitor for Gr (+)
crystal violet, bile salts
93
MacConkey Agar carbohydrates (CHO)
lactose
94
MacConkey Agar pH indicator
neutral red
95
MacConkey Agar
acid =
alkaline =
red
yellow
96
MacConkey Agar lactose fermenter =
pink to red
97
MacConkey Agar non lactose fermenter =
colorless
98
Eosin Methylene Blue is for?
isolation of Gr (-) enteric bacilli
99
Eosin Methylene Blue CHO =
lactose
100
Eosin Methylene Blue lactose fermenter =
pink-purple colonies
101
Eosin Methylene Blue non lactose =
colorless
102
Eosin Methylene Blue Escherichia coli
pink-purple with green metallic sheen
103
Eosin Methylene Blue
Klebsiella
pink mucoid colonies
104
Eosin Methylene Blue Enterobacter
pink colonies with dark center (fish eye colonies)
105
Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts (TCBS) is for?
isolation and differentiation of Vibrio species
106
Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts (TCBS)
CHO =
sucrose
107
Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts (TCBS)
pH indicator =
Bromthymol Blue
108
Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts (TCBS)
acid=
alkaline=
yellow
green
109
Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts (TCBS)
spore forming (SF) =
Vibrio cholerae
Vibrio alginolyticus
110
Thiosulfate Citrate Bile Salts (TCBS)
non-spore forming (NSF) =
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
111
it is used to enhance the growth of the bacteria needed
enrichment broth
112
it is used frequently for stool specimens to inhibit the normal flora bacteria (Escherichia coli)
enrichment broth
113
examples of enrichment broth
Gram Negative broth
Selenite broth
Tetrathionate broth
Thioglycolate broth
114
Enrichment broth that contains bile salts
Gram Negative broth
115
Enrichment broth that contains Na-H-Selenite and used as isolation for Shigella
Selenite Broth
116
contains bile salts and is used for the isolation of Shigella and Salmonella
Tetrathionate broth
117
Enrichment broth that contains thioglycolic acid and nutrients that isolates aerobes and anaerobes
Thioglycolate broth
118
Solid media that allow one to select for pathogens through the inhibition of normal flora
selective media
119
it selectively favors the growth of a wanted bacteria and inhibit those unwanted
selective media
120
it is used for culturing specimen from a site having a normal microbial normal flora to prevent unwanted contaminant overgrowing a pathogen
selective media
121
it contains salts, CHO, pH indicator, Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) indicator, nutrients
selective media
122
examples of selective media
Hektoen Enteric agar
Salmonella-Shigella agar
Xylose-Lysine-deoxycholate agar
123
it selectively inhibit Gr(+) and Gr(-) bacteria and permit isolation of stool pathogens
Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar
124
it also permits growth of Hydrogen sulfide producing bacteria
Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar
125
Hektoen Enteric agar is for?
isolation of Gr(-) Enteric Bacilli
126
Hektoen Enteric agar inhibitor for Gr(+) =
bile salts
127
Hektoen Enteric agar CHO=
lactose, sucrose, salicin
128
Hektoen Enteric agar pH indicator=
Bromthymol blue
129
Hektoen Enteric agar
acid=
alkaline=
yellow
green/blue
130
Hektoen Enteric agar
H2S indicator =
Ferric-NH4-SO4 (black)
131
Hektoen Enteric agar
Lactose Fermenters, H2S (-) =
yellow w/o black center
132
Hektoen Enteric agar
Lactose Fermenters, H2S (+) =
yellow w/ black center
133
Hektoen Enteric agar
non LF, H2S (-) =
134
Hektoen Enteric agar
non LF, H2S (+) =
135
Salmonella-Shigella agar is for?
isolation of Salmonella and Shigella
136
Salmonella-Shigella agar
CHO=
lactose
137
Salmonella-Shigella agar
pH indicator=
neutral red
138
Salmonella-Shigella agar
acid=
alkaline=
red yellow
139
Salmonella-Shigella agar
H2S indicator=
ferric citrate
140
Salmonella-Shigella agar
Salmonella (non LF)=
colorless with black center
141
Salmonella-Shigella agar
Shigella (non LF)=
colorless w/o black center
142
agar that is added with antibiotics to selective for certain group of bacteria
antibiotic agar
143
examples of antibiotic agar
1. Colistin-Nalidixic Acid (CNA)
2. Thayer Martin Agar
3. Modified Thayer Martin (MTM)
4. Martin-Lewis medium
5. New York City Agar
144
an antibiotic agar used for isolation of gram positive bacteria. it is a blood agar with colistin and Nalidixic acid
Colistin-Nalidixic Acid (CNA)
145
in Colistin-Nalidixic Acid, it disrupts cell membrane, and inhibits other gram negative bacteria
colistin
146
in colistin-Nalidixic acid, this blocks DNA replication
Nalidixic acid
147
a type of antibiotic agar that is selective for Neisseria. It is a chocolate agar with Vancomycin, Colistin, and Nystatin
Thayer Martin Agar
148
in Thayer Martin Agar this inhibits other gram positive bacteria
vancomycin
149
in Thayer Martin Agar this inhibits growth of yeast
nystatin
150
it is a type of antibiotic agar which isolates Neisseria. it is a chocolate agar with Vancomycin, Colistin, Nystatin, Trimethoprim lactate
Modified Thayer Martin (MTM)
151
in Modified Thayer Martin (MTM) this inhibits swarming of Proteus
Trimethoprim lactate
152
a type of antibiotic agar that is for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. it is composed of vancomycin, colistin, trimethoprim lactate, and anisomycin
Martin-Lewis medium
153
in Martin-Lewis medium this inhibits fungal growth
anisomycin
154
it is a type of antibiotic agar that is for Neisseria. It is composed of vancomycin, colistin, trimethoprim lactate, and amphotericin B
New York City Agar
155
in New York City Agar this prevent fungal growth
Amphotericin B
156
most preferred mesophilic incubation
30-45 degrees C
157
most incubators are set @ ________ which is preferred by moist human internal pathogens
35 degrees C
158
incubation of thermophiles is
.>40 C
159
incubation of Psychrophiles is
4-20 C
160
bacteria with oxygen requirement for incubation
obligate aerobes
161
bacteria that can multiply with/without oxygen
facultative anaerobes
162
bacteria that can strictly grow in anaerobic environment
obligate anaerobes
163
bacteria that can grow with 5-10% carbon dioxide with small oxygen
capnophilic
164
culture media should be incubated for at least _______
24 hours
165
if no growth after 24 hours, it should be
reincubated for another 24 hours
166
anaerobic culture takes _______ days
3-6
167
for slow growing bacteria, it takes at least _______ hours
48
168
this are bioanalytical methods in which the quantitation of the analyte depends on the reaction of an antigen (analyte) and an antibody
immunoassay
169
Immunoassay that rely on the ability of an antibody to recognize and bind a specific macromolecules in what might be a complex mixture of macromolecules
Immune complex
170
examples of immunoassay are:
Widal test
Weil Felix Test
171
a process in immunology and microbiology where the clumping or aggregation of particles, typically cells or antigens, occurs due to the specific interaction between antibodies and their corresponding antigens.
active agglutination
172
employs carrier particles that are coated with soluble antigens. In this either antibody or antigen is attached to certain inert carrier thereby, particles or cells gets agglutinated when corresponding antigen or antibody reacts.
passive agglutination
173
measure the presence of specific antibodies in the sera that inhibit virus-mediated agglutination of erythrocytes.
agglutination inhibition
174
solid-phase type of enzyme immunoassay to detect the presence of a ligand in a liquid sample using antibodies against the ligand to be measured
Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent
Assay (ELISA)
175
it detects and counts certain antibodies, antigens, proteins, and hormones in bodily fluid sample
Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
176
technique used to identify the presence of viral or bacterial antigens and antibodies in a given sample by using a specific dye/fluorescent label which will make the targeted antibodies appear fluorescent
immunofluorescence
177
immunofluorescence dyes:
fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)
rhodamine
phycoerythrin
178
sophisticated laboratory procedures and techniques which utilizes DNA, RNA, proteins, and a genetic code to identify various microorganisms based on their genetic information
molecular diagnostics
179
it employs hybridization
molecular diagnostics
180
some methods of molecular diagnostics that is used in microbiology laboratory
1. BLOTS - Western, Southern, Northern
2. Polymerase Chain Reaction
181
it is used to identify proteins and nucleic acid sequences
blots
182
after isolation the target protein, it transfer to the membrane. what is it?
blots
183
target molecule of Southern blotting
DNA
184
target molecule of Western blotting
Protein
185
target molecule of Northern blotting
RNA
186
a nuclei acid amplification testing procedure that consists of denaturing, renaturing, elongating. and amplifying a short segment of DNA or RNA
Polymerase Chain Reaction
187
it is used to make millions to billions of copies of a specific DNA sample rapidly, amplifying a very small sample of DNA sufficiently to enable detailed study
Polymerase Chain Reaction
188
it is extremely sensitive and less labor intensive than blotting techniques
Polymerase chain Reaction
