Lesson 5 - Circulatory System: Blood Flashcards
(172 cards)
1
Q
the circulatory system consists of (3)
A
- the heart - muscular pump
- blood vessels - conducting system
- blood - fluid connective tissue medium
2
Q
cardiovascular system
A
refers only to the heart and blood vessels
3
Q
hematology
A
study of blood
4
Q
fundamental purpose of the circulatory stsem
A
transport substances
5
Q
blood
A
liquid transport medium
6
Q
blood vessels ensure…
A
proper routing of blood
7
Q
the heart is the…
A
pump that keeps blood flowing
8
Q
three specific functions of the circulatory system
A
- transport
- protection
- regulation
9
Q
functions of the circulatory system: transport
A
carry O2, CO2, nutrient, wastes, hormones, and stem cells
10
Q
functions of the circulatory system: protection (5)
A
inflammation, limiting the spread of infection, destroy microorganisms and cancer cells , neutralize toxins, and initiate clotting
11
Q
functions of the circulatory system: regulation (3)
A
fluid balance, stabilizes pH of ECF, and temperature control
12
Q
blood consists of two parts
A
plasma and formed elements
13
Q
plasma
A
matrix of blood; mostly water and has a clear, light, yellow appearance
14
Q
formed elements (3)
A
erythrocytes, platelets, and leukocytes
15
Q
erythrocytes
A
RBCs
16
Q
platelets
A
fragments of certain bone marrow cells
17
Q
leukocytes
A
WBCs
18
Q
granulocytes (3)
A
neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
19
Q
agranulocytes (2)
A
lymphocytes, monocytes
20
Q
five important functions of blood
A
- transportation of dissolved substances
- regulation of pH and ions
- restriction of fluid losses at injury sites
- defense against toxins and pathogens
- stabilization of body temperature
21
Q
substances transported by blood: gases (2)
A
O2 and CO2
22
Q
substances transported by blood: nutrients (3)
A
glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, etc.
23
Q
substances transported by blood: hormones (3)
A
ACTH, TH, GH, etc.
24
Q
substances transported by blood: immune system components
A
antibodies, etc
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substances transported by blood: waste products
nitrogenous wastes
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blood fractionation
separation of blood into basic components based on centrifugation and coagulation
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which blood cells are the heaviest?
RBCs, they settle first
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hematocrit (packed cell value)
total volume of whole blood that is RBCs, typically 45%
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what do WBCs and platelets look like in a centrifuged vial of blood?
a narrow cream colored zone (buffy coat) that is less than 1% of total blood volume
30
where is plasma in a centrifuged vial of blood?
at the top of the tube and is usually about 55% of blood volume
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blood serum
plasma without the clotting proteins (mainly fibrin) and calcium
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plasma is a complex mixture of (7)
water, proteins, nutrients, electrolytes, nitrogenous wastes, hormones, and gases
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what are the most abundant solute by weight?
plasma proteins
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three major plasma protein categories
albumins, globulins, fibrinogen
35
the liver produces all of the major proteins except _____ _____ produced by plasma cells
gamma globulins
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albumins
smallest and most abundant protein
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what do albumins contribute to? (2)
viscosity and osmotic pressure
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what do albumins do? (4)
| what do they transport?
transport fatty acids, TH, steroid hormones, and buffer plasma pH
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globulins (4)
| what kinds?
h.m.a.i.
hormone-binding proteins, metalloproteins, apolipoproteins, immunoglobulins
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what do globulins contribute to? (3)
roles in solute transport, clotting, and immunity
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fibrinogen
soluble precursor of fibrin, a stick protein that forms the framework of a blood clot
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where are most plasma proteins produced?
the liver
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what does the remaining 1% of plasma proteins include?
changing amounts of proteins like peptide hormones and others secreted by the endocrine system
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nitrogenous wastes
toxic end products of catabolism
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urea
product of amino acids catabolism, the most abundant nitrogenous waste normally removed by the kidneys
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the formed elements and plasma composition give rise to the _____ and _____ of blood
viscosity, osmolarity
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what are the major contributors to blood viscosity? (2)
RBCs and albumin
48
osmolarity
total concentration of solute particles
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how is optimum osmolarity achieved?
the body's regulation of sodium ions, proteins, and RBCs
50
colloid osmotic pressure (COP)
contribution of protein on blood osmotic pressure; plays an important role in water balance
51
hypoproteinemia
deficiency of plasma proteins
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what does hypoproteinemia cause? (4)
- extreme starvation
- liver of kidney disease
- severe burns
- tissues well, pool of fluid in the abdomen may accumulate
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Kwashiorkor
children with severe protein deficiency
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ascites
fluid accumulation in the abdomen
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how do Kwashiorkor children develop?
they are fed on rice and cereals once they are no longer breast-fed leading to a protein deficiency in their diet
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how can you identify a Kwashiorkor child?
thin arms and legs, and a swollen abdomen
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hematopoiesis =
production of blood, especially formed elements
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hematopoietic tissues produce
blood cells
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the yolk sac produces what for a fetus?
stem cells for first blood cells that eventually colonize fetal bone marrow, liver, spleen, and thymus
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the _____ stops producing blood cells at birth, but the _____ remains involved with lymphocyte production for life
liver, spleen
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myeloid hematopoiesis
blood formation in the red bone marrow
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lymphoid hematopoiesis
blood formation in the lymphoid organs; beyond infancy this only involved lymphocytes
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hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs)
multipotent stem cells in the bone marrow that give rise to all formed elements
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what do some HSCs go on to become?
specialized colony forming units (CFUs)
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colony-forming units (CFUs)
destine to produce a specific class of formed element
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structure of a RBC
disc-shaped cell that is biconcave; a thick rim and thin sunken cente
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rouleaux
stacks of RBCs used to move through small blood vessels
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how do RBCs produce ATP?
glycolysis/anaerobic fermentation
LACK MITOCHONDRIA
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what does it entail that RBCs don't have a nucleus or DNA?
they cannot synthesize protein or perform mitosis, so they only last about 120 befores being recycled by the body
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33% of RBC cytoplasm is _____
hemoglobin
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hemoglobin
functions in O2 and CO2 transport, and buffering of blood pH
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carbonic anhydrase (CAH)
produced carbonic acid from CO2 and water
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where is carbonic anhydrase?
RBC cytoplasm
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what role does carbonic anhydrase play?
important in CO2 transport and pH balance
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what determine a person's blood type?
the glycolipids on the outer surface of mature RBCs
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what provides RBC membrane resilience and durability?
inner membrane surface has cytoskeletal proteins spectrin and actin that help RBCs stretch, bend, and fold
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hemoglobin structure (3)
two alpha chains and two beta chains each associated with a heme group
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what do 2.5% of adults have in place of their hemoglobin beta chains?
delta chains
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fetal hemoglobin has two _____ chains in place of beta chains
gamma
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how many molecules of oxygen can a heme group carry?
one
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how are fetal gamma chains different than adult beta chains?
they bind O2 more tightly than adult hemoglobin
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where does CO2 bind hemoglobin?
on the globin chains rather than the heme group
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heme
a nonprotein moiety that binds O2 with ferrous ion (Fe2+) at its center
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hematocrit is _____ proportional to body fat percentage
inversely
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why are hematocrit levels lower for women? (2)
- androgens stimulate RBC production
- females have periodic menstrual losses
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erythropoiesis
RBC production
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development of erythrocytes includes (4)
- reduction in cell size
- increase in cell number
- synthesis of hemoglobin
- loss of the nucleus
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when does erythrocyte production begin?
when hematopoietic stem cells become erythrocyte colony-forming units which have receptors of erythropoietin
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erythropoietin
stimulates colony-forming units to become an erythroblast
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where is erythropoietin made?
the kidneys
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erythroblasts multiple, synthesize hemoglobin, and after four days it becomes a _____
normoblast
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when the nucleus is discarded from the normoblast, the cell becomes a _____
reticulocyte
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what reticulocytes named for?
the fine network of polyribosomes
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when reticulocytes leave the bone marrow and enter the bloodstream, what happens?
polyribosomes disintegrate and the cell is then fully matured as an erythrocyte
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how it RBC count maintained?
negative feedback;
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what could happen if RBC count drops?
hypoxemia
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hypoxemia
oxygen deficiency in blood
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what happens when hypoxia is detected?
the kidneys increase EPO output, increasing RBC count in 3-4 days to reverse it
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causes of hypoxemia include (4)
- blood loss/low RBC count
- high altitude
- increased exercise
- loss of lung tissue in emphysema
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_____ is a key nutritional requirement for erythropoiesis
iron
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how is iron lost? (3)
urine, feces, and bleeding
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how is iron absorbed? (2)
by the small intestine into the blood where is binds transferrin for transport to bone marrow, liver, etc.
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bone marrow needs iron for _____
hemoglobin
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muscles need iron for _____
myoglobin
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all cells need iron to create...
cytochromes in mitochondria
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how is iron stored?
liver apoferritin binds iron to form the complex ferritin for storage
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additional nutrients required for erythropoiesis (4)
vitamin B12, folic acid, vitamin C, and copper
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why do we need vitamin B12 for erythropoiesis?
lack of it reduced stem cell division causing low RBC production (pernicious anemia)
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why do we need vitamin C and copper for erythropoiesis?
they are cofactors for enzymes synthesizing hemoglobin
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Iron Metabolism (8)
1. mix of Fe2+/Fe3+ is ingested
2. stomach acid converts Fe3+ to Fe2+
3. Fe2+ binds gastroferritin
4. gastroferritin transports it to small intestine and releases it for absorption
5. in blood plasma, Fe2+ binds to transferrin
6. in the liver, some transferring release iron for storage
7. Fe2+ binds to apoferritin to be stores as ferritin
8. remaining transferrin is distributed to other organs
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hemolysis
RBCs rupture in the narrow channels of the spleen and liver
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why do RBCs rupture in the spleen/liver?
their membranes become more fragile and less flexible
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what do macrophages do to digest ruptured RBCs?
they digest membrane bits to separate heme from globin
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what happens to globin during RBC digestion?
it is hydrolyzed into amino acids
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what happens to the heme group during RBC digestion?
the iron is removed from the heme pigment
114
what happens to the heme pigment during RBC digestion?
it is converted into biliverdin (green)
115
what happens to biliverdin during RBC digestion? (3)
it is converted into bilirubin (yellow-green) by the macrophage and is released into the blood, binding albumin
116
what makes your urine yellow?
bilirubin
117
what does the liver do with bilirubin? (2)
removes bilirubin from albumin and secretes into the bile
118
bile pigments
collective term for biliverdin and bilirubin
119
iron recycling
iron is removed heme to produce biliverdin
120
what does iron bind to to be delivered to red bone marrow to synthesize new Hb?
transferrin
121
what happens to excess trasnferrin?
transferred to storage proteins
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T/F: large quantities of free iron is not toxic to cells
false, it is
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primary polycythemia (2)
polycythemia vera
RBC excess due to cancer of erythropoietic line in bone marrow
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secondary polycythemia
polycythemia from all other causes, including dehydration, emphysema, high altitude, and physical condition
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dangers of polycythemia (2)
- increased blood volume, pressure, and viscosity
- can lead to embolism, stroke, heart failure
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anemia
deficiency of either RBCs or hemoglobin
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causes of anemia (5)
- inadequate erythropoiesis or hemoglobin synthesis
- nutritional deficiencies
- kidney insufficiency
- destruction of myeloid tissue
- aging
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hemorrhagic anemia
anemia from bleeding; trauma and bleeding disorders
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hemolytic anemia (4)
from RBC destruction from drug reactions, poisoning, infections, hereditary defects, blood type incompatibilities
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iron-deficiency anemia
lack of iron uptake/metabolism that affects RBC production
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what is excessive iron uptake linked to?
heart disease
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inadequate erythropoiesis anemias (2)
iron-deficiency and pernicious
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pernicious anemia (2)
autoimmune attack of stomach tissues that leads to inadequate intrinsic factor production, which is needed of rB12 absorption
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hypoplastic anemia
decline in erythropoiesis
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aplastic anemia
complete cessation of erythropoiesis; failure or destruction of myeloid tissue
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three potential consequences of anemia
1. tissue hypoxia
2. reduced blood osmolarity producing tissue edema
3. low blood viscosity
137
effects of tissue hypoxia (3)
- patient is lethargic
- shortness of breath upon exertion
- life threatening necrosis of the brain, heart, or kidney
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what happens with low blood viscosity? (2)
- heart races and pressure drops
- cardiac failure may ensue
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sickle-cell disease
a hereditary hemoglobin defect
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who is sick-cell disease most commonly found in? (4)
people of sub-Saharan Africa, Mediterranean basin, Middle East, and Indian descent
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is sickle-cell recessive or dominant?
recessive
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how does sickle-cell hemoglobin (HbS) differ from normal Hb?
only on the sixth amino acid of the beta chain
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what is special about sickle-cell heterozygotes?
the are resistant to malaria
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what can sickle-cell disease lead to? (5)
- kidney or heart failure
- stroke
- joint pain
- paralysis
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how do HbS red blood cells behave different? (2)
- they become rigid, sticky, and pointed at the ends
- the agglutinate and block small blood vessels
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how well does HbS bind O2?
not well
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antigens
complex molecules on surface of cell membranes
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antigens include (3)
proteins, glycoproteins, glycolipids
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how are antigens useful?
they are used to distinguish self from foreign matter, foreign matter generates an immune response
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agglutinogens
antigens on the surface of the RBC that triggers agglutination (clumping)
151
antibodies
proteins that bind to antigens to mark them for destructions
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agglutination
antibodies bind multiple foreign cells and sticks them together, large clumps may result
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agglutinins
antibodies that bind algutinogens
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RBC antigens (2)
agglutinogens
glycolipids on RBC surface
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blood type A has what antigen? (2)
antigen A/anti-B
156
blood type B has what antigen? (2)
antigen B/anti-A
157
blood type AB has what antigen? (2)
both A and B antigens/no anti-antigens
158
blood type O has what antigen? (2)
neither A or B/anti-A and anti-B
159
a mismatch during a blood transfusion causes a _____ _____
trasnfusion reaction
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transfusion reaction (2)
(1) agglutinated RBCs block small blood vessels, hemolyze, and release their hemoglobin over hours/days (2) where hemoglobin blocks kidney tubes and causes acute renal failure
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Charles Drew
first black person to pursue an advanced degree in medicine to study transfusion and blood banking
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what special thing did Charles Drew do?
used plasma rather than whole blood, which caused less transfusion reactions
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Rh blood group
includes numerous antigens like C, D, and E
164
which Rh antigen is the most reactive?
antigen D
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what antigen makes a person Rh+?
antigen D
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are anti-D antibodies normally present?
no, they only form in Rh- individuals exposed to RH+ blood
167
will an Rh- female with and Rh+ fetus or transfusion of Rh+ blood cause any problems?
no; they do not naturally have anti-D antibodies
168
hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
erythroblastosis fetalis
may occur when a woman has a baby with mismatched blood type
169
What causes hemolytic disease of the newborn?
if an Rh- mother has more than one Rh+ child, the anti-D antibodies formed during the first pregnancy can cross the placenta and agglutinate fetal RBCs, cause hemolysis, and result in the baby having severe anemia
170
how do you prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn?
Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) is given during the 28 to 32 weeks gestation and during birth to prevent the mother from forming anti-D antibodies
