Lewis Chapter 46 - Liver, Pancreas, Biliary Tract Flashcards

1
Q

A client with hepatitis A is in the acute phase. Which of the following should be considered in the nurse’s plan of care?

a. Pruritus is a common condition with jaundice in this phase.

b. The client is most likely to transmit the disease during this phase.

c. Gastrointestinal symptoms are not as severe in hepatitis A as they are in hepatitis B.

d. Extrahepatic manifestations of glomerulonephritis and polyarteritis are common in this phase.

A

B.

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2
Q

A client with acute hepatitis B is being discharged in 2 days. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan?

a. Resume alcohol as soon as he is symptom free.

b. Use a condom during sexual intercourse.

c. Have family members get an injection of immune globulin.

d. Follow a low-protein, moderate-carbohydrate, moderate-fat diet.

A

B.

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3
Q

A client has been told that she has elevated liver enzyme caused by NAFLD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse’s teaching plan include?

a. Have genetic testing performed.

b. Follow a heart-healthy diet and a regular exercise program.

c. Lose weight quickly within the next 4 weeks.

d. Avoid using alcohol until the liver enzyme levels return to normal.

A

B.

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4
Q

A client with advanced cirrhosis asks the nurse why his abdomen is so swollen. The nurse’s response is based on knowledge of which of the following?

a. A lack of clotting factors promotes the collection of blood in the abdominal cavity.

b. Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia cause a fluid shift into the peritoneal space.

c. Decreased peristalsis in the gastrointestinal tract contributes to gas formation and distension of the bowel.

d. Bile salts in the blood irritate the peritoneal membranes, causing edema and pocketing of fluid.

A

B.

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5
Q

In caring for a client with hepatocellular carcinoma, which of the following should the nurse perform?

a. Focus primarily on symptomatic and comfort measures.

b. Reassure the client that chemotherapy offers a good prognosis for recovery.

c. Promote the client’s confidence that surgical excision of the tumour will be successful.

d. Provide information necessary for the client to make decisions regarding liver transplantation.

A

A.

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6
Q

A client with pancreatic cancer is admitted to the hospital for evaluation for treatment. The client asks the nurse to describe Whipple procedure, which the surgeon has planned. Which of the following would the nurse include in the explanation to the client?

a. Creation of a bypass around the obstruction caused by the tumour by joining the gallbladder to the jejunum

b. Resection of the entire pancreas and the distal portion of the stomach, with anastomosis of the common bile duct and the stomach into the duodenum

c. Removal of part of the pancreas, part of the stomach, the duodenum, and the gallbladder, with joining of the pancreatic duct, the common bile duct, and the stomach to the jejunum

d. Radical removal of pancreas, duodenum, and spleen, and attachment of the stomach to the jejunum, which requires oral supplementation of pancreatic digestive enzymes and insulin replacement therapy

A

C.

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7
Q

The nursing management of a client with cholecystitis in association with cholelithiasis should include which of the following?

a. Recommendation of a diet low in saturated fat

b. Information that gallstones once removed tend not to recur

c. Avoidance of morphine in the management of pain

d. Treatment with oral bile salts that dissolve gallstones

A

A.

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8
Q

What information should be included in teaching about home management after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

a. Keep the bandages on the puncture sites for 48 hours.

b. Report any bile-coloured drainage or pus from any incision.

c. Use over-the-counter antiemetics if nausea and vomiting occur.

d. Empty and measure the contents of the bile bag from the T-tube every day.

A

B.

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9
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a history of diabetes mellitus, malnutrition, osteomyelitis, and alcohol misuse. On admission, the patient has a serum amylase level of 280 units/L and a serum lipase level of 310 units/L. To which of the following diagnoses does the nurse attribute these findings?

A. Malnutrition
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Alcohol misuse
D. Diabetes mellitus

A

C. Alcohol misuse

The patient with alcohol misuse could develop pancreatitis as a complication, which would increase the serum amylase (normal 100–200 units/L) and serum lipase (normal < 160 units/L) levels as shown.

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10
Q

The health care provider prescribes lactulose for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following assessment parameters should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

A. Relief of constipation
B. Relief of abdominal pain
C. Decreased liver enzymes
D. Decreased ammonia levels

A

D. Decreased ammonia levels

Hepatic encephalopathy is a complication of liver disease and is associated with elevated serum ammonia levels. Lactulose traps ammonia in the intestinal tract. Its laxative effect then expels the ammonia from the colon, resulting in decreased serum ammonia levels and correction of hepatic encephalopathy.

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11
Q

The family of a patient newly diagnosed with hepatitis A asks the nurse what they can do to prevent becoming ill themselves. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

A. “The hepatitis vaccine will provide immunity from this exposure and future exposures.”
B. “I am afraid there is nothing you can do since the patient was infectious before admission.”
C. “You will need to be tested first to make sure you don’t have the virus before we can treat you.”
D. “An injection of immune globulin will need to be given to prevent or minimize the effects from this exposure.”

A

D. “An injection of immune globulin will need to be given to prevent or minimize the effects from this exposure.”

Immune globulin provides temporary (6–8 weeks) passive immunity and is effective for preventing hepatitis A if given within 1–2 weeks after exposure. It may not prevent infection in all persons, but it will at least modify the illness to a subclinical infection. The hepatitis vaccine is used only for pre-exposure prophylaxis.

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12
Q

The nurse is planning care for a patient with cirrhosis. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is priority?

A. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
B. Impaired skin integrity related to edema, ascites, and pruritus
C. Excess fluid volume related to portal hypertension and hyperaldosteronism
D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to pressure on diaphragm and reduced lung volume

A

D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to pressure on diaphragm and reduced lung volume

Although all of these nursing diagnoses are appropriate and important in the care of a patient with cirrhosis, airway and breathing are always the highest priorities.

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13
Q

Which of the following serum bilirubin levels would indicate the need for a clinical examination to detect jaundice?

A. 24 mcmol/L
B. 17 mcmol/L
C. 35 mcmol/L
D. 30 mcmol/L

A

C. 35 mcmol/L

Normal serum bilirubin levels are between 5.1 and 17 mcmol/L, but jaundice is not detected by careful examination until these levels have doubled to greater than 34 mcmol/L, twice the normal upper limit. Jaundice is usually first noticed in the sclera of the eyes, as they achieve a yellow discolouration.

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14
Q

Which time frame represents the incubation period of hepatitis A?

A. 15 to 50 days

B. 115 to 180 days

C. 14 to 180 days

D. 2 to 26 weeks

A

A. 15 to 50 days

Hepatitis A has an incubation period of 15 to 50 days. Patients are most infectious during 2 weeks before onset of symptoms and infectious until 1 to 2 weeks after the start of symptoms.
Hepatitis B has an incubation period of 115 to 180 days. Patients are most infectious before and after symptoms appear, can be infectious for months, and carriers continue to be infectious for life.
Hepatitis C has an incubation period of 14 to 180 days, with the average being 56 days. Patients are infective 1 to 2 weeks before symptoms appear with 75% to 85% developing chronic hepatitis C and remain infectious.
Hepatitis D has an incubation period of 2 to 26 weeks, and can only be contracted if the patient has hepatitis B.

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15
Q

Which definition accurately describes cryoglobulinemia?

A. Presence of blood in the urine

B. Presence of abnormal proteins in the blood

C. Inflammation of the blood vessels

D. Blockage of the nephrons

A

B. Presence of abnormal proteins in the blood

Cryoglobulinemia is defined as the presence of abnormal proteins in the blood. In viral hepatitis, destruction of hepatocytes leads to the alteration in protein metabolism.

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16
Q

Which route is hepatitis A primarily transmitted?

A. Fecal-oral transmission

B. Parental transmission

C. Perinatal transmission

D. Sexual transmission

A

A. Fecal-oral transmission

Hepatitis A is transmitted primarily through the fecal–oral route (by ingesting contaminated foods or water) and rarely parenterally.

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17
Q

Which action places an individual at risk for transmitting hepatitis B?

A. Sexual intercourse

B. Sharing food

C. Kissing

D. Hugging

A

A. Sexual intercourse

Hepatitis B can be transmitted by sexual intercourse, perinatally, percutaneously, and horizontally by permucosal exposure to infectious blood, blood products, or other body fluids such as semen and vaginal secretions.

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18
Q

Which hepatitis C genotype would a nurse in Canada most likely treat?

A. Genotype 1

B. Genotype 2

C. Genotype 3

D. Genotype 4

A

A. Genotype 1

Hepatitis C virus has six genotypes. In Canada, 75% of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infections are caused by HCV genotype 1.

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19
Q

Which health teaching related to nutrition is appropriate for a patient with acute hepatitis?

A. Eat large meals twice per day.

B. Maintain mouth hygiene.

C. Restrict fluids to prevent ascites.

D. Avoid carbonated beverages.

A

B. Maintain mouth hygiene.

The nurse should encourage measures to stimulate the appetite, such as mouth care, antiemetics, and attractively served meals in pleasant surroundings.

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20
Q

Which teaching point would the nurse include when providing education to a patient with hepatitis?

A. “You should eat infrequent large meals to get adequate nutritional intake.”

B. “Starting a rigorous exercise program is recommended to improve liver function.”

C. “Transmission among family members is unlikely as hepatitis is nontransmissible.”

D. “Some signs and symptoms of worsening liver function include excessive bleeding, abdominal swelling and confusion.”

A

D. “Some signs and symptoms of worsening liver function include excessive bleeding, abdominal swelling and confusion.”

The nurse should educate a patient with hepatitis about signs and symptoms of worsening liver function and when to seek medical assistance. Bleeding tendencies may indicate an increased international normalized ratio (INR), abdominal swelling may be ascites, vomiting blood and tarry stools may indicate varices bleeding, and confusion may be assign of encephalopathy.

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21
Q

Which laboratory test is used to evaluate the liver’s function?

A. Serum albumin

B. Serum potassium

C. Serum creatinine

D. Serum urea

A

A. Serum albumin

Serum albumin, serum bilirubin, and prothrombin time (PT) are all laboratory tests used to evaluate liver function.

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22
Q

Which complication may occur if hepatitis B is left untreated?

A. Hepatocellular carcinoma

B. Hepatomegaly

C. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

D. Pancreatitis

A

A. Hepatocellular carcinoma

Hepatocellular carcinoma, cirrhosis, and liver failure are all potential complications of untreated hepatitis B.

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23
Q

Which condition is a prehepatic cause of jaundice?

A. Sickle cell anemia

B. Alcoholic hepatitis

C. Cirrhosis

D. Liver cancer

A

A. Sickle cell anemia

Prehepatic causes of jaundice include sickle cell disease, thalassemia major, and blood transfusion reactions.

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24
Q

Which medication is a mainstay treatment for chronic hepatitis B?

A. Nucleotide analogues

B. Glecaprevir/pibrentasvir (Maviret)

C. Ribavirin

D. Avaxim

A

A. Nucleotide analogues

Oral nucleoside and nucleotide analogues (NAs) are the mainstay of treatment for chronic hepatitis B. These medications inhibit viral deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication by mimicking normal DNA building blocks. Once they become incorporated into the hepatitis B virus DNA, they stop the DNA reproduction and are thus able to lower the amount of virus in the blood.

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25
Q

Which medication for treatment of hepatitis C is a genotype-specific regimen?

A. Ledipasvir/sofosbuvir (Havoni)

B. Glecaprevir/pibrentasvir (Maviret)

C. Sofosbuvir/velpatasvir (Epclusa)

D. Sofosbuvir/velpatasvir/voxilaprevir (Vosevi)

A

A. Ledipasvir/sofosbuvir (Havoni)

Medications that are genotype-specific regimens for treatment of hepatitis C include Ledipasvir/sofosbuvir (Havoni), Paritaprevir/ritonavir/ombitasvir + dasabuvir (Holkira-pak), Paritaprevir/ritonavir/ombitasvir (Technivie) and Sofosbuvir + daclatasvir (Sovaldi + Daklinza).

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26
Q

Which teaching point about vaccinations and hepatitis D would the nurse include when providing education?

A. “Vaccination against hepatitis B will reduce the risk of contracting hepatitis D.”

B. “Hepatitis D specific vaccinations are available.”

C. “Hepatitis D vaccinations are not necessary when you have hepatitis B.”

D. “Hepatitis D carry a high risk of deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.”

A

A. “Vaccination against hepatitis B will reduce the risk of contracting hepatitis D.”

The nurse is accurately recommending that the patient gets vaccinated for hepatitis B to reduce the risk of contracting hepatitis D as hepatitis D is only contracted when hepatitis B is present.

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27
Q

Which teaching point about preventing hepatitis B infections would the nurse include when providing education?

A. Wash your vegetables thoroughly before ingesting.

B. Avoid hugging or kissing an infected individual.

C. Do not share razors, toothbrushes, or personal items with someone who has hepatitis B.

D. Good hand hygiene and environmental sanitation is recommended to prevent hepatitis B infections.

A

C. Do not share razors, toothbrushes, or personal items with someone who has hepatitis B.

The nurse is accurate in recommending that the patient not share razors, toothbrushes, and personal items with someone who has hepatitis B as this is a risk for infection.

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28
Q

Which statement describes steatosis symptomatically?

A. Simple fatty liver with no hepatic inflammation

B. Nonalcoholic fatty liver with inflammation

C. Severe liver scarring

D. Liver inflammation due to viral infection

A

A. Simple fatty liver with no hepatic inflammation

Steatosis refers to a simple fatty liver with no hepatic inflammation and a less severe disorder on the nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) spectrum.

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29
Q

Which manifestation is most common for patients with nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)?

A. Absence of symptoms

B. Confusion

C. Sharp abdominal pain

D. Headache

A

A. Absence of symptoms

Most patients with nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) have no symptoms. Symptoms, if present, are nonspecific and may include fatigue, malaise, and vague pain in the right upper abdominal quadrant.

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30
Q

Which symptom would be consistent with a diagnosis of alcoholic hepatitis?

A. Hepatomegaly

B. Decreased liver enzyme levels

C. Pallor

D. Fever greater than 39.8°C

A

A. Hepatomegaly

Alcoholic hepatitis is a syndrome that may improve if alcohol intake stops. Symptoms include hepatomegaly, jaundice, and possibly ascites and prolonged international normalized ratio (INR).

31
Q

Which medication is the recommended treatment for active autoimmune hepatitis (AIH)?

A. Prednisone

B. Cyclosporine

C. Tacrolimus

D. Mycophenolate mofetil

A

A. Prednisone

The recommended treatment for active active autoimmune hepatitis (AIH) is prednisone or in combination with azathioprine (Imuran

32
Q

Which disease is characterized by a decreased excretion of copper by the biliary system leading to increased copper storage in the liver?

A. Wilson disease

B. Sjogren’s syndrome

C. Raynaud’s disease

D. Scleroderma

A

A. Wilson disease

Wilson disease is an autosomal recessive gene disorder of copper transport that affects mainly the liver. When the process of excreting excess dietary copper in the biliary system is impaired, copper will become accumulated in the liver. The increased storage of copper in the liver can cause progressive liver injury and cirrhosis.

33
Q

Which teaching point about cirrhosis would the nurse include when providing education?

A. Cirrhosis is characterized by extensive liver fibrosis and regeneration nodules causing permanent distortion in the liver architecture.

B. Cirrhosis is characterized by acute inflammation of the liver due to a viral infection.

C. Cirrhosis is characterized by liver dysfunction due to ingesting a toxic substance.

D. Cirrhosis is characterized by acute inflammation of the pancreas.

A

A. Cirrhosis is characterized by extensive liver fibrosis and regeneration nodules causing permanent distortion in the liver architecture.

Cirrhosis is a condition (not a disease) that results from chronic liver inflammation from any etiology. Cirrhosis is characterized by extensive fibrosis (scar tissue) and regenerative nodules that occur from the liver’s attempt to repair itself, leading to permanent distortion in the liver architecture.

34
Q

Which factor is the most common cause of cirrhosis?

A. Alcohol abuse

B. Extreme dieting

C. Obesity

D. Genetic disposition

A

A. Alcohol abuse

Excessive alcohol ingestion is one of the most common causes of cirrhosis.

35
Q

Which waste product crosses the blood–brain barrier causing hepatic encephalopathy?

A. Creatinine

B. Urea

C. Ammonia

D. Uric acid

A

C. Ammonia

The ammonia crosses the blood–brain barrier and produces neurological toxic manifestations. Factors that increase ammonia in circulation may precipitate hepatic encephalopathy.

36
Q

Which statement accurately defines the pathology of hepatorenal syndrome (HRS)?

A. An impairment of renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate

B. An autosomal recessive gene disorder of copper transport that affects mainly the liver

C. An inherited condition that is related to mutation in the HFE gene

D. An acute or chronic inflammatory disorder of the liver

A

A. An impairment of renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate

HRS is of circulatory origin and occurs as a consequence of reduction in renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) secondary to marked arterial vasodilation in the splanchnic circulation. This leads to a reduction of effective arterial blood volume and arterial pressure with compensatory activation of vasoconstrictor systems, particularly the sympathetic nervous system and renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system (RAAS).

37
Q

Which laboratory result would be conducive with uncompensated liver cirrhosis?

A. Increased serum albumin

B. Decreased serum bilirubin

C. Increased total serum protein

D. Increased serum globulin levels

A

D. Increased serum globulin levels

An increase in serum globulin levels would be anticipated in patients with decompensated liver cirrhosis.

38
Q

Which teaching point would the nurse include when providing education to a patient about ways to prevent nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)?

A. Maintain a body mass index (BMI) under 28.

B. Exercise at least 5 times per week.

C. Limit alcohol intake to no more than 4 drinks at a time.

D. Take only medications that are needed.

A

D.Take only medications that are needed.

Taking only medications that are needed is an appropriate recommendation for preventing nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD). Medications taken inappropriately can cause significant liver damage.

39
Q

Which recommendation by the nurse regarding the use of acetaminophen is appropriate to prevent drug-induced liver injury (DILI)?

A. Drinking alcohol with acetaminophen will not result in an adverse reaction.

B. Check ingredients in fever reducers, pain relievers, and cough medicines, as they may contain acetaminophen.

C. Ingesting more than 4 grams of acetaminophen a day leads to acute liver failure.

D. There is no safe dose of acetaminophen, regardless of how much you take.

A

B.Check ingredients in fever reducers, pain relievers, and cough medicines, as they may contain acetaminophen.

It is also present in a variety of pain relievers, fever reducers, and cough medicines as a somewhat “hidden” ingredient; thus, patients taking several medications may not realize that they are taking a higher amount of acetaminophen, and overdose may occur.

40
Q

Which medication is an approved drug for treatment of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)?

A. Obeticholic acid (Ocaliva)

B. Tacrolimus (Prograf)

C. Mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept)

D. Prednisone

A

A.Obeticholic acid (Ocaliva)

Ocaliva is a newer agent indicated for use in combination with ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA) when there is inadequate response to UDCA alone, or as monotherapy for those who cannot tolerate UDCA.

41
Q

Which condition is most commonly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)?

A. Wilson disease

B. Ulcerative colitis

C. Sjogren’s disease

D. Hepatitis C

A

B.Ulcerative colitis

Most patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) have ulcerative colitis. Complications include cholangitis, cholestasis with jaundice, cholangiocarcinoma, and cirrhosis.

42
Q

Which pathologic change would cue the nurse to assess for excess fluid volume in a patient living with cirrhosis?

A. Potassium retention

B. Hyperaldosteronism

C. Ammonia reabsorption

D. Prolonged clotting times

A

B.Hyperaldosteronism

The damaged liver is unable to metabolize aldosterone, so it builds up and causes excess fluid volume.

43
Q

Which statement made by a male patient living with cirrhosis about managing his care at home indicates a need for further teaching?

A. “I will weigh myself every other day.”

B. “I will stay away from drinking alcohol.”

C. “I can use lotion to decrease any itching.”

D. “I should get out of bed and move slowly.”

A

A. “I will weigh myself every other day.”

It is important for the patient to weigh himself every day to determine whether he has retained fluid. This statement indicates a need for further teaching.

44
Q

Which intervention would the nurse implement with a patient with hepatic encephalopathy who refuses to stay in bed and is at risk of falling?

A. Provide a low bed with the wheels locked.

B. Raise all four side rails on the patient’s bed.

C. Obtain a prescription for soft-cloth restraints.

D. Have one nurse stay in the patient’s room around the clock.

A

A.Provide a low bed with the wheels locked.

The nurse should provide a low bed with locked wheels for a confused patient who refuses to stay in bed. This reduces the risk of injury caused by falls and helps maintain patient safety.

45
Q

Which laboratory value elevation can lead to increased confusion and lethargy in the patient with cirrhosis?

A. Ammonia

B. Potassium

C. Total bilirubin

D. Prothrombin time (PT)

A

A.Ammonia

A buildup of ammonia happens in cirrhosis as a result of portal hypertension and may cause confusion and lethargy.

46
Q

Which of the following is considered conservative therapy of advanced liver cirrhosis?

A. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)

B. Paracentesis

C. Vasopressin

D. Avoidance of alcohol

A

D. Avoidance of alcohol

Conservative therapy of advanced liver cirrhosis includes avoidance of alcohol, acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin), sedatives, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications, and rest (in decompensated cirrhosis).

47
Q

Which medication is used in the treatment of variceal bleeding?

A. Octreotide (Sandostatin)

B. Acetylsalicylic acid

C. Furosemide (Lasix)

D. Lactulose

A

A. Octreotide (Sandostatin)

Medication therapy may include Octreotide (Sandostatin) and vasopressin. Both therapies produce vasoconstriction of the splanchnic arterial bed, decrease portal blood flow, and decrease portal hypertension.

48
Q

Which medication commonly causes acute liver failure when combined with alcohol?

A. Acetaminophen

B. Ibuprofen

C. Lactulose

D. Calcium Carbonate

A

A. Acetaminophen

The most common cause of acute liver failure is medications, usually acetaminophen, when taken in combination with alcohol.

49
Q

Which complication is associated with acute liver failure?

A. Cerebral edema

B. Deep vein thrombosis

C. Metabolic alkalosis

D. Uremia

A

A. Cerebral edema

Cerebral edema or hepatic encephalopathy is a complication of acute liver failure. Lactulose is used to clear ammonia from the gastrointestinal tract to prevent it from crossing the blood brain barrier and causing hepatic encephalopathy.

50
Q

Which treatment is preferred for patients with acute liver failure?

A. Conservative management

B. Liver transplantation

C. Liver resection

D. Aggressive fluid resuscitation

A

B. Liver transplantation

Liver transplantation is the treatment of choice for acute liver failure. Frequent monitoring of the patient’s cognitive status is paramount.

51
Q

Which condition is a cause of liver cirrhosis?

A. Biliary obstruction

B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

C. Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)

D. Kidney failure

A

A.Biliary obstruction

Common causes of liver cirrhosis include alcohol, viral hepatitis, biliary obstruction, metabolic disease, and right-sided heart failure. Biliary disease should be treated to avoid biliary obstruction and infection.

52
Q

Which intervention by the nurse is appropriate for a patient living with cirrhosis who is struggling with adequate nutrition?

A. Discourage snacking between meals.

B. Encourage large meals for caloric intake.

C. Outline a strict diet.

D. Encourage oral hygiene before meals.

A

D.Encourage oral hygiene before meals.

The nurse should encourage oral hygiene before meals to improve the patient’s taste sensation.

53
Q

Which recommendation would the nurse provide for a patient living at home with advanced liver cirrhosis?

A. “Hepatitis vaccinations are not recommended for patients with liver cirrhosis.”

B. “Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) are safe to take for mild to moderate pain as they are excreted by the kidney.”

C. “Avoid using sleeping pills or sedatives that contain codeine.”

D. “Increase sodium intake in your diet.”

A

C.“Avoid using sleeping pills or sedatives that contain codeine.”

Patients should avoid using sleeping pills or sedatives that contain codeine because they can lead to encephalopathy.

54
Q

Which condition is a major risk factor that occurs in 80% to 90% of people who develop hepatocellular carcinoma?

A. Cirrhosis

B. Renal failure

C. Hepatitis A

D. Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease

A

A.Cirrhosis

Approximately 80% to 90% of people with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) have cirrhosis of the liver. Cirrhosis is, therefore, a major risk factor regardless of the cause of cirrhosis. In North America, chronic hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection is the major underlying cause of HCC.

55
Q

Which risk should the patient be made aware of before receiving an ultrasound-guided percutaneous biopsy for diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A. Bleeding

B. Paralysis

C. Encephalopathy

D. Hepatitis

A

A.Bleeding

The two major risk factors of ultrasound-guided percutaneous biopsy are bleeding and potential to seed tumour cells along the needle tract.

56
Q

Which treatment modality has the best chance of curing liver cancer?

A. Partial hepatectomy

B. Transarterial chemoembolization (TACE)

C. Sorafenib

D. Radiation

A

A.Partial hepatectomy

Surgical liver resection (partial hepatectomy) is performed when there is no evidence of invasion of hepatic blood vessels. Hepatectomy offers the best chance for cure of liver cancer. Only about 15% of people have enough healthy liver tissue for this to be an option. Underlying cirrhosis and portal hypertension often compromise liver function and may cause liver failure after surgery.

57
Q

Which condition is the most common cause of pancreatitis in Canada?

A. Gallstones

B. Diabetes

C. Cystic fibrosis

D. Multiple sclerosis

A

A. Gallstones

In Canada, the most common cause of pancreatitis is gallbladder disease (gallstones), followed by alcohol use disorder.

58
Q

Which medication is used to reduce HCl production and the stimulation of the pancreas in patients with acute pancreatitis?

A. Acetazolamide

B. Omeprazole

C. Nitroglycerin

D. Morphine

A

B. Omeprazole

Proton pump inhibitors decrease in HCl secretion, which, in turn, reduces pancreatic activity. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor.

59
Q

Which term is defined as a continuous, prolonged inflammatory and fibrosing process of the pancreas?

A. Chronic pancreatitis

B. Acute pancreatitis

C. Diabetes mellitus

D. Pancreatic cancer

A

A. Chronic pancreatitis

Chronic pancreatitis is a continuous, prolonged inflammatory and fibrosing process of the pancreas. The pancreas is progressively destroyed as it is replaced with fibrotic tissues. Strictures and calcifications may also occur in the pancreas.

60
Q

Which stool symptom accurately defines steatorrhea?

A. Fatty stool

B. Hard lumpy stool

C. Inability to pass stool

D. Dark red to black coloured stool

A

A. Fatty stool

Symptoms of pancreatic insufficiency include malabsorption with weight loss, constipation, mild jaundice with dark urine, steatorrhea, and diabetes. Steatorrhea may become severe, with voluminous, foul-smelling, fatty stools. Urine and stool may be frothy. Some abdominal tenderness may be present.

61
Q

Which teaching point about pancreatic insufficiency would the nurse include in patient education?

A. “You need to take pancreatic enzymes when you eat food.”

B. “Diet does not impact pancreatic insufficiency.”

C. “Alcohol consumption in moderation is okay.”

D. “Do not take calcium carbonate is it will accelerate the progression of disease.”

A

A. “You need to take pancreatic enzymes when you eat food.”

Pancreatic insufficiency results in the reduced secretion of insulin and pancreatic enzymes. Patients may be required to take pancreatic enzymes to aid in digestion.

62
Q

Which teaching point about pancreatic tumours would the nurse include when providing education?

A. Thirty to 40% of pancreatic tumours are resectable.

B. Pancreatic head tumours require a classic surgical procedure called a duodenectomy.

C. Surgery is the least effective treatment.

D. A total pancreatectomy requires insulin postoperatively.

A

D. A total pancreatectomy requires insulin postoperatively.

For some pancreatic tumours, a total pancreatectomy can be considered, but this requires pancreatic enzyme replacements and ongoing diabetes management with exogenous insulin.

63
Q

Which patient would have the highest risk of developing cholelithiasis?

A. A 50-year-old female who is obese

B. A 20-year-old male who is sedentary

C. A 50-year-old male with heart failure

D. A 20-year-old female who is underweight

A

A. A 50-year-old female who is obese

A 50-year-old female who is obese would have the great incidence of developing cholelithiasis due to being over 40 years of age, female and obese.

64
Q

Which symptom occurs in patients with cholecystitis?

A. Clear urine

B. Negative Murphy sign

C. Weight gain

D. Pruritus

A

D. Pruritus

Pruritus is a symptom of cholelithiasis, or cholecystitis. Patients may also have fever, restlessness, jaundice, and diaphoresis.

65
Q

Which recommendation by the nurse is appropriate for relieving pruritus in a patient with acute cholecystitis?

A. Epsom salt baths

B. Crisp new linens

C. Keeping the room warm

D. Rub with their knuckles

A

D. Rub with their knuckles

The patient’s nails should be kept short and clean. When patients cannot resist scratching, they should rub their knuckles instead of scratching with their nails.

66
Q

Which treatment has the greatest success for curing gallbladder cancer?

A. Chemotherapy

B. Surgery

C. Radiation

D. Hormone therapy

A

B. Surgery

Gallbladder cancer often is not detected until the disease is advanced. When it is found early, surgery can be curative.

67
Q

Which finding would the nurse document following an assessment of a patient with a bluish discoloration in the periumbilical area?

A. Cullen’s sign

B. Grey-Turner’s spots

C. Rebound tenderness

D. Costovertebral angle pain

A

A.Cullen’s sign

Cullen’s sign is the bluish discoloration in the periumbilical area found in patients with acute pancreatitis. This happens due to blood-stained drainage from the pancreatic autodigestive process.

68
Q

Which condition is a local complication of acute pancreatitis?

A. Pseudocyst

B. Atelectasis

C. Hypotension

D. Pleural effusion

A

A.Pseudocyst

A pseudocyst is a local complication of acute pancreatitis characterized as an accumulation of fluid, pancreatic enzymes, tissue debris, and inflammatory exudates surrounded by a wall next to the pancreas.

69
Q

Which teaching point would the nurse include when providing education on strategies to prevent recurrent acute episodes in chronic pancreatitis?

A. “Pancreatic enzymes are taken 1 hour after meals.”

B. “Hard stool is a sign that enzyme treatment is not effective.”

C. “Alcohol can be consumed in moderate amounts.”

D. “Adherence to pancreatic enzyme treatment regimens is essential for prevention.”

A

D.“Adherence to pancreatic enzyme treatment regimens is essential for prevention.”

Dietary control and adherence to pancreatic enzyme treatment regimens are essential in preventing recurrent acute episodes for patients with chronic pancreatitis.

70
Q

Upon patient assessment, there is yellowing of the sclera and skin, dark, amber-coloured urine, and reporting of severe upper abdominal pain after eating a cinnamon roll. Which diagnosis would the nurse suspect?

A. The patient has developed biliary cirrhosis.

B. The patient has developed the onset of chronic pancreatitis.

C. The patient has been drinking heavily in the past few months.

D. The patient has developed an obstruction in the common bile duct by a gallstone.

A

D. The patient has developed an obstruction in the common bile duct by a gallstone.

Jaundice (yellowing of the sclera and skin) occurs when the common bile duct becomes obstructed, and bilirubin accumulates in the skin. It also causes dark, amber-coloured urine to form as a result of bilirubin spilling into the urinary tract.

71
Q

Which teaching point would the nurse include when providing education to a patient with cholecystitis about the anticholinergic medication recently prescribed?

A. “This medication will suppress bile formation and prevent further stone formation.”

B. “This medication will alleviate the itching caused by the accumulation of bile salts.”

C. “This medication will dissolve the gallstones that have formed in your gallbladder.”

D. “This medication will decrease gastrointestinal (GI) secretions and reduce gallbladder spasms.”

A

D. “This medication will decrease gastrointestinal (GI) secretions and reduce gallbladder spasms.”

Anticholinergic drugs have a drying effect and will decrease gastrointestinal (GI) secretions, as well as gallbladder spasms.

72
Q

Which nursing intervention would best address a patient in the recovery room after laparoscopic cholecystectomy with severe bloating and abdominal discomfort?

A. Administer an enema.

B. Give the patient narcotic analgesics.

C. Place the patient in the Sims’ position.

D. Provide a sip of a clear carbonated beverage.

A

C. Place the patient in the Sims’ position.

Bloating and abdominal discomfort are common after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy because of the carbon dioxide used by the health care provider to visualize the abdominal cavity during the procedure. The Sims’ position helps move the gas pocket away from the diaphragm.

73
Q

Which teaching point would the nurse include when providing education to a patient after an incisional cholecystectomy?

A. “Avoid heavy lifting for 2 to 4 weeks.”

B. “Sexual activities can be resumed 6 weeks postoperatively.”

C. “A low-protein diet is better tolerated postoperatively.”

D. “A weight reduction program is helpful for overweight people after a cholecystectomy.”

A

D.“A weight reduction program is helpful for overweight people after a cholecystectomy.”

The nurse should encourage overweight patients to consider a weight-reduction program after an incisional cholecystectomy.