Lil bit of everything Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

maternal outcomes of shoulder dystocia

A

4th degree laceration, postpartum hemorrhage

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2
Q

fetal outcomes of shoulder dystocia

A

facial bruising, clavicle injury, brachial plexus injury, brain injury d/t hypoxia, death d/t acidosis

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3
Q

nursing interventions of shoulder dystocia

A

have stool ready
position in McRobert’s to improve diameter of pelvic outlet
apply SUPRAPUBIC pressure from above (stand on stool)

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4
Q

maternal outcome of prolapsed cord

A

c section

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5
Q

fetal outcome of prolapsed cord

A

death d/t hypoxia and acidosis

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6
Q

how do you know there is a prolapsed cord

A

visible cord or pulsating rope like mass

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7
Q

nursing interventions of prolapsed cord

A

place pressure on presenting part
call for help
pt in Trendelenburg (use gravity)
stat C section

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8
Q

outcomes of amniotic fluid embolism

A

stroke or anaphylaxis of lungs d/t foreign material

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9
Q

nursing interventions of AFE

A

warch for LOC changes
respiratory distress
get ready to code pt
transfer to ICU

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10
Q

when PPH bleeding continues

A

1) oxytocin bolus IV to contract uterus
2) methergine IM to contract uterus
3) hemabate IM to contract uterus
4) cytotec tablets rectal
AND increase O2

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11
Q

what gauge is needed to replace blood that has come out of vasculature during PPH and what do you give

A

18 gauge and give normal saline or lactated ringers

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12
Q

what is methergine contraindicated in

A

hypertension

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13
Q

what is hemabate contraindicated in

A

asthmatics

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14
Q

what is cytotec contraindicated in

A

3rd and 4th degree perineal laceration

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15
Q

what can PROM cause

A

Oligohydramnios

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16
Q

deficiency of amniotic fluid

A

Oligohydramnios

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17
Q

what can increased maternal age cause

A

chromosomal abnormalities

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18
Q

fetal congenital abnormalities cause

A

polydramnios

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19
Q

excess of amniotic fluid

20
Q

what can abnormal placenta development cause

A

IUGR (fetoplacental)

21
Q

what can smoking, alcohol, and drugs cause

A

IUGR (maternal)

22
Q

temp elevation and infection risk start ______ after delivery and must be present on ______

A

24 hrs; 2 separate occasions

23
Q

12 hrs after birth, client temp is 100.4 F, what is the cause?

A

dehydration d/t expenditure of energy

24
Q

what does a BPP include and in general check

A

NST and ultrasound

checks fetal well being

25
what specifically does a BPP monitor
fetal movement fetal tone fetal heart rate amniotic fluid index
26
what identifies IUGR
doppler blood flow analysis
27
what identifies Down Syndrome
triple marker test
28
what identifies the condition of the fetus
BPP
29
what is MSAFP
indicates an elevated level of alpha fetoprotein | it is ONLY a screening tool and identifies if diagnostic testing needs to occur
30
what is the next step if elevated MSAFP
ultrasound
31
what may be necessary to administer after amniocentesis
Rho(D)
32
what does amniocentesis determine
fetal lung maturity
33
when is CVS performed and what is the benefit
10 wks | results come earlier than most
34
what can DM cause and what does it indicate in pregnant women
polyhydraminos | the need for fetal diagnostic procedure
35
what identifies chromosomal abnormalities in fetus
multiple marker screening
36
what doe AFP (alpha fetoprotein) levels indicate
neural tube defects
37
what does cell free DNA screening identify
fetal Rh status fetal gender paternally transmitted gene disorders trisomy 21
38
what is a PUBS
cordcentesis | aspiration of fetal blood from umbilical cord for diagnosis
39
what does a PUBS identify
Rh disease infection karyotyping
40
ultrasound before 20 wks..
needs full bladder
41
ultrasound after 20 wks..
needs empty bladder
42
what does a CST do
applies stressful stimulus to fetus
43
what does a NST monitor
fetal heart activity
44
describe daily fetal movement counts
need >3 kicks in 1 hr | fetal alarm signal goes off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hrs
45
if preterm labor occurs what test may be needed
amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity
46
describe ultrasound
ordered/offered for ALL pregnant women | used to determine presence of maternal abnormalities and ebryonic placement