Line D Flashcards
1
Q
Round 5237.02056 to the nearest thousandth.
a. 5000
b. 5237.02
c. 5237.021
d. 5237.0206
A
5237.021
2
Q
Round 12 465.078 to the nearest thousand.
a. 12 465
b. 12 000
c. 10 000
d. 12 465.078
A
12 000
3
Q
- 963 + 335.021 + 2267.123 =
a. 2616.17
b. 2616.107
c. 2616.296
d. 2616.182
A
2616.107
4
Q
Add 2.72, 0.6, 110, and 17.225.
a. 130.545
b. 135.945
c. 136.545
d. 131.545
A
130.545
5
Q
- 25 − 3.875 =
a. 7.15
b. 7.875
c. 7.375
d. 15.125
A
7.375
6
Q
Multiply 19.5 by 7.65.
a. 14917.5
b. 14.9175
c. 1491.75
d. 149.175
A
149.175
7
Q
- 753 ÷ .87 =
a. 210.55
b. 21.555
c. 2.1555
d. 0.21555
A
21.555
8
Q
Divide 0.0028 by 0.95. Express your answer to the nearest thousandth.
a. 0.003
b. 0.002
c. 0.0029
d. 0.00295
A
0.003
9
Q
178 + 18 × 6 =
a. 286
b. 295
c. 1176
d. 19 224
A
286
10
Q
- 33 – 543.48 + 101 =
a. 1447.52
b. 2534.81
c. 2534.85
d. 1447.85
A
1447.85
11
Q
58 − 33 × 4 =
a. 74
b. −74
c. 100
d. −100
A
–74
12
Q
Reduce 24/64 to lowest terms.
a. 12/32
b. 6/16
c. 3/8
d. 1.5/4
A
3/8
13
Q
Reduce 150/275 to lowest terms.
a. 6/11
b. 3/5.5
c. 3/11
d. 12/22
A
6/11
14
Q
Change 34/8 into a mixed number.
a. 3 4/8
b. 4 1/4
c. 4 1/8
d. 4 1/16
A
4 1/4
15
Q
Express 5 7/16 as an improper fraction.
a. 103/16
b. 57/16
c. 87/16
d. 35/16
A
87/16
16
Q
1/4 + 5/16 + 7/32 =
a. 7/16
b. 13/32
c. 25/32
d. 13/16
A
25/32
17
Q
5/8 + 9/32 − 1/16 =
a. 7/8
b. 7/16
c. 27/32
d. 13/16
A
7/8
18
Q
7/8 × 5 =
a. 35/40
b. 4 3/8
c. 6 3/8
d. 4 3/4
A
4 3/8
19
Q
3/16 × 5/8 =
a. 9/32
b. 9/16
c. 80/24
d. 15/128
A
15/128
20
Q
4 1/2 x 4 =
a. 18
b. 8 1/2
c. 16 1/2
d. 16 1/8
A
18
21
Q
3/8 ÷ 1/16 =
a. 6
b. 12
c. 3/16
d. 3/128
A
6
22
Q
5/16 ÷ 4 =
a. 20/16
b. 11/4
c. 5/16
d. 5/64
A
5/64
23
Q
17/32 + 1/2 × 1/4 =
a. 8/32
b. 21/32
c. 23/32
d. 1 9/32
A
21/32
24
Q
The risers for a set of stairs are each 19.4cm. Each step is 2.5cm thick. There are 10 risers and
9 steps. What is the height of the stairway?
a. 216.5cm
b. 219cm
c. 194 m
d. 222cm
A
216.5cm
25
A can contains 4.225L of lacquer. The lacquer is to be divided equally into five containers.
How much lacquer will be in each container?
a. 0.888L
b. 0.879L
c. 0.845L
d. 0.854L
0.845L
26
A shop used a total of 57 400 screws to assemble an order. If each unit assembled required
41 screws, how many units were completed for the order?
a. 410
b. 140
c. 4100
d. 1400
1400
27
A coil of wire has 45 layers of wire wound around the core. Each layer has 68 turns of wire.
How many turns of wire are there in the coil?
a. 3060
b. 3600
c. 3006
d. 6030
3060
28
If a contractor had 600 m2 of oak flooring and had two jobs requiring 245 m2 each, there
would be 355 m2 remaining.
False
29
An electrician wires five buildings. The buildings require 42, 65, 73, 69, and 58 outlets
respectively. There have been 307 outlets installed.
True
30
What is the width of the hallway in the following floor plan?
a. 2m
b. 4m
c. 1m
d. 3m
1m
31
On the sheet metal layout below, the distance between the centres of hole A and hole D,
measuring lengthwise, is 16 cm. All dimensions are in centimetres.
True
32
A cabinetmaker had a bin of 1000 hinges. Six projects required 38, 56, 42, 24, 46, and 34
hinges respectively. How many hinges were left?
a. 240
b. 760
c. 794
d. 476
760
33
A total of 256 bronze castings were machined. Each casting had a mass of 793g, and 158g were removed from each by machining. The total mass of bronze removed by machining
was 162 560g.
False
34
An automotive shop had the following amounts of wire: 84m black wire; 183m orange wire;
352m green wire; 146m brown wire; 47m red wire; 316m blue wire; 329 m white wire. The
total length of wire on inventory was 1457m.
True
35
An apartment building requires 2475 m of electrical cable. How many 75 m rolls will be
needed?
a. 30
b. 31
c. 32
d. 33
33
36
A countertop is made of 3/4" particleboard and is covered with 1/32" plastic laminate. The width
of metal edging required to finish off the edge is 27/32".
False
37
In one minute, a large reduction gear turns 61/3 revolutions. How many revolutions will it turn
in 27 1/2 minutes?
a. 174 1/6
b. 162 1/6
c. 168 1/3
d. 170 1/3
174 1/6
38
2 billets of cold drawn steel 1 1/2" long can be cut from a bar 20" long, if 1/8" is allowed for
each saw cut.
True
39
Calculate the dimension A in the diagram below
a. 6in.
b. 5in.
c. 2 1/2in.
d. 6 1/2in.
5in.
40
A 3/16" sheet of metal is thicker than a 13/64" fastener.
False
41
Eight pins, each 4 3/8" long, have to be cut from a piece of drill rod. There is a 3/32" waste for
each cut. What is the minimum length of rod you will need?
a. 35"
b. 35 3/4"
c. 35 21/32"
d. 35 43/64"
35 21/32"
42
The diameter of a steel shaft is reduced 7/1000". The original diameter was 7/8". The new
diameter of the shaft is 0.868".
True
43
A good estimation of 1010 × 21 is:
a. 21 210
b. 21 000
c. 20 000
d. 21 200
20 000
44
Perform the following metric conversions.
a. 2.36 m = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_mm f. 25 mg = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_g
b. 15 000 m = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_km g. 3 kg = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_t
c. 704 mm = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_m h. 0.01 L =\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_mL
d. 1.2 m = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_mm i. 175 mL = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_cL
e. 0.53 kg = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_g j. 23.1 L =\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_mL
a. 2360 mm f. 0.025 g
b. 15 km g. 0.003 t
c. 0.704 m h. 10 mL
d. 1200 mm i. 17.5 cL
e. 0.025 g j. 23 100 mL
45
Using the chart below, perform the following metric/imperial conversions. Round your
answers to the nearest thousandth if necessary.
a. 24 mm = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_in f. 10 qt. = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_L
b. 18 in. = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_cm g. 40 km = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_mi
c. 30 kg = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_lb h. 59.7 L = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_qt.
d. 10 oz. = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_g i. 3 gal. = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_L
e. 100 lb. = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_kg j. 5 t = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_lb
a. 0.936 in f. 9.46 L
b. 45.72 cm g. 24.84 mi
c. 66.15 lb h. 63.103 qt
d. 283.5 g i. 11.37 L
e. 45.4 kg j. 11 023 lb
46
Perform the following metric conversions.
a. 26.8 m = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_mm f. 35.6 km = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_cm
b. 6 mg = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_g g. 0.015 Mg = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_kg
c. 5 mL = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_cm3 h. 7 L = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_dL
d. 0.68 kg = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_g i. 1.3 cg = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_kg
e. 153 μm = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_mm j. 3.29 × 102 m = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_m
a. 26 800 mm f. 3 560 000 cm
b. 0.006 g g. 15 kg
c. 5 cm3 h. 70 dL
d. 680 g i. 0.000 013 kg
e. 0.153 mm j. 329 m
47
Using the chart below, perform the following metric/imperial conversions. Round your
answers to the nearest thousandth, if necessary.
a. 12 in. = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_cm f. 100 m = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ft
b. 20 gal. = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_L g. 8 mm = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_in
c. 420 g = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_oz h. 82 mi. = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_km
d. 3 ft. = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_cm i. 1000 lb. = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_t
e. 100 kg = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_lb. j. 0.8 L = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_qt
a. 30.48 cm f. 328 ft
b. 75.8 L g. 0.312 in.
c. 14.7 oz h. 131.938 km
d. 91.5 or 91.44 cm i. 0.454 t
e. 220.5 lb j. 0.846 qt.
48
Express the following ratios in lowest terms:
a. 15 to 20 = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
b. 9 to 3 = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
c. 9:63 = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
d. 6:1 = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
e. 2.4:0.8 = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
a. 3:4
b. 3:1
c. 1:7
d. 6:1
e. 3:1
49
Write the inverse of the following ratios:
a. 5 to 7 = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
b. 4/5 = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
a. 7:5
b. 5:4
50
Find the missing term in these proportions:
a. 35:5 = _______ :2
b. ____________ :3 = 28:12
a. 14
b. 7
51
Of two gears that mesh, the smaller revolves at 84 rpm and the larger at 36 rpm. In lowest
terms, what is the ratio of the speed of the smaller to the larger?
a. 3:7
b. 7:3
c. 5:2
d. 2:5
7:3
52
Two oil tanks have capacities of 1989 L and 1105 L. In lowest terms, what is the ratio of the
volume of the larger tank to the smaller?
a. 3:1
b. 1:2
c. 9:5
d. 6:11
9:5
53
The primary winding of an electric transformer has 240 turns, and the secondary winding
has 15 turns. The ratio of the primary winding to the secondary is 1:16.
False
54
A cylindrical barrel contains 9 kL of gasoline when filled to a depth of 3 m. How many kL
does the barrel contain when the level is 2 m?
a. 6 kL
b. 5 kL
c. 4 kL
d. 3 kL
6 kL
55
In the rear axle of a vehicle, the ratio of teeth on the ring gear to teeth on the pinion gear is
4 to 1. If there are 64 teeth on the ring gear, how many teeth are there on the pinion gear?
a. 8
b. 32
c. 16
d. 256
16
56
The ratio of input power to output power of an amplifier is 1:3000. If the input power is
0.00806 W, the amplifier output power will be 24.18 W.
True
57
George earns $18.50 an hour; his brother Mike earns $9.25 an hour. What is the ratio in
lowest terms of George’s hourly wage to Mike’s?
a. 1:2
b. 2:1
c. 5:10
d. 10:5
2:1
58
Basement windows in a house are 3000 mm wide by 900 mm high. What is the ratio in
lowest terms of width to height?
a. 3000:900
b. 900:3000
c. 3:10
d. 10:3
10:3
59
A starter gear has 12 teeth and a ring gear has 102 teeth. The ratio in lowest terms of the
starter gear teeth to the ring gear teeth is 6:52.
False
60
The ratio of the crankshaft pulley speed to the alternator pulley speed is 8:19. When the
engine crankshaft speed is 736 rpm the speed of the alternator is 1748 rpm.
True
61
A steel pipe has a uniform cross-section. The mass of 0.33 m of the pipe is 0.425 kg. What is
the mass of a 3.6 m length of the pipe?
a. 2.795 kg
b. 4.636 kg
c. 3.867 kg
d. 5.385 kg
4.636 kg
62
You are told to construct a workbench for which the length is 4 1/2 times the width. If your
bench is to be 1800 mm long, it must be made 450 mm wide.
False
63
In a transformer, the turns ratio varies directly with the voltage ratio. In a power transformer
in which the ratio of primary turns to secondary turns is 10:3, what is the secondary voltage
when the primary voltage is 123 V?
a. 41 V
b. 36.9 V
c. 410 V
d. 1230 V
36.9 V
64
In the following chart, A varies directly in proportion to B. Complete the chart.
65
The slope of a roof is the ratio of unit rise to the unit of run. If the slope is 4:12 and the total
run is 4.9 m, the total rise must be 1.633 m.
True
66
In mixing concrete for a foundation slab, the ratio of gravel to cement is 7:2. If you estimate
you need 12 m3 of gravel, how much cement powder will you need?
a. 42 m3
b. 3.8 m3
c. 3.4 m3
d. 4.2 m3
3.4 m3
67
A water pump discharges 50 L of water in 3.5 minutes. How long does it take to discharge
11 000 litres?
a. 770 min.
b. 63 min.
c. 77 min.
d. 550 min.
770 min.
68
If 600 kg of carbon steel alloy contains 4.80 kg of manganese, there would be 6.92 kg of
manganese in 865 kg of the same steel alloy.
True
69
The capacity of an oil reservoir is directly proportional to the depth of oil. If the reservoir
holds 280 000 L of oil when filled to its maximum depth of 3.8 m, how much oil is there
when the depth is 1.2 m?
a. 23 333 L
b. 37 255 L
c. 66 398 L
d. 88 421 L
88 421 L
70
A 406 mm shaft has a uniform taper of 0.05 mm in 101.5 mm. What is the taper in the entire
length of the shaft?
a. 0.2 mm
b. 12 mm
c. 33 864 mm
d. 824 810 mm
0.2 mm
71
The power of a gas engine increases with the area of the piston head. If an engine with a
piston area of 8.3 in2 develops 25.75 horsepower, to the nearest horsepower, how much
horsepower will an engine have with a piston area of 25 in2?
a. 8 hp
b. 77 hp
c. 78 hp
d. 92 hp
78 hp
72
If 3 L of paint covers a surface containing 82.5 m2, how much paint will be needed to cover
192.5 m2 of surface?
a. 7 L
b. 12 L
c. 27.5 L
d. 5293.75 L
7 L
73
Fill in the chart below with the required numbers. Provide all fractions in lowest terms.
74
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is 6% of 63.
3.78
75
9 is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_% of 27.
33.33%
76
84 is 375% of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
22.4
77
48 is 20% less than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
60
78
40% of 24 is what?
a. 14.4
b. 9.6
c. 8.4
d. 10.2
9.6
79
What percent of 1.32 is 0.6?
a. 46%
b. 55%
c. 45%
d. 10%
45%
80
3 is 15% of 22.
False
81
30 is 20% more than what?
a. 25
b. 24
c. 22
d. 20
25
82
102 is 15% less than what?
a. 115
b. 120
c. 124
d. 122.4
120
83
63 is what percent of 40, to the nearest percent?
a. 63%
b. 157%
c. 158%
d. 145%
158%
84
12% of 30 is 3.6.
True
85
4.06 is 9% of 48.
False
86
One part acid and four parts water are mixed as an electrolyte for a storage battery. What
percent of the electrolyte is acid?
a. 25%
b. 20%
c. 75%
d. 80%
20%
87
The efficiency of a motor is 90%. If the motor delivers 13.5 horsepower, what is the input?
a. 15 hp
b. 14.85 hp
c. 12.15 hp
d. 15.28 hp
15 hp
88
A set of combination wrenches priced at $179.99 went on sale for 15% off. What is the sale
price?
a. $26.99
b. $99.99
c. $152.99
d. $159.99
$152.99
89
A company has recently increased its workforce by 12½%. There are now 18 employees in
the company. How many workers were there before the increase?
a. 12
b. 14
c. 16
d. 18
16
90
The operating spindle speed of a lathe spindle that rotates freely is 354 rpm. When 16% is
lost through slippage and cutting pressure, the new speed is 297 rpm.
True
91
A floor joist is allowed to vary 5% of its stated width of 184 mm. The maximum width would
be what?
a. 200 mm
b. 188.4 mm
c. 193.2 mm
d. 197.9 mm
193.2 mm
92
What percent is wasted when 3.6 of every 120 sheets of metal are spoiled?
a. 3%
b. 0.3%
c. 30%
d. 300%
3%
93
The minimum idle speed for a particular engine is 630 rpm. This is 94% of the maximum idle
speed of 668 rpm.
False
94
A contractor wants to make a profit of 12% on a job. If the break-even cost is $2345, what
should the total job price be, including the profit?
a. $2626.00
b. $2600.40
c. $2600.00
d. $2626.40
$2626.40
95
In the power 52, 5 is the base and 2 is the exponent.
True
96
(2/5)2 =
a. 4/5
b. 4/25
c. 2/25
d. 2/5
4/25
97
43 =
a. 12
b. 16
c. 64
d. 24
64
98
220 = 0
False
99
51 = 5
True
100
42 + 23 =
a. 16
b. 24
c. 32
d. 28
24
101
(3/8)2 =
a. 0.140
b. 0.141
c. 0.142
d. 0.014
0.141
102
83 = 512
True
103
123 =
a. 36
b. 144
c. 288
d. 1728
1728
104
√3 = 1.37
False
105
3√8 =
a. 2
b. 2.33
c. 2.25
d. 2.67
2
106
√324 =
a. 12
b. 24
c. 18
d. 18.49
18
107
3√343 = 6
False
108
√49/81 =
a. 0.086
b. 0.778
c. 0.777
d. 0.078
0.778
109
√1.21 = 1.1
True
110
11 = n – 3
a. n = 7
b. n = 14
c. n = 21
d. n = 10
n = 14
111
27 = 8(n + 3)
a. n = 2
b. n = 3/4
c. n = 3/8
d. n = 3/16
n = 3/8
112
x2 + 4 = 20
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 24
4
113
C = π42
a. C = 133.648
b. C = 131.946
c. C = 131.947
d. C = 131.946
C = 131.947
114
2[13 + (8 – 5)] = x
a. x = 52
b. x = 32
c. x = 23
d. x = 43
x = 32
115
N + 2(3 – 1) = 8
a. N = 2
b. N = 0
c. N = 4
d. N = 6
N = 4
116
3N = 123
a. N = 14
b. N = 41
c. N = 36
d. N = 63
N = 41
117
15 = 29 – (2x)
a. x = 7
b. x = 5
c. x = 14
d. x = –7
x = 7
118
Use the formula A = LW, where
A = area
L = length
W = width
Solve for the missing dimensions.
119
Use the formula P = EI, where
```
P = power in watts (w)
E = force in volts (v)
I = current in amperes (A)
```
Calculate the power in watts for an electric clothes dryer circuit that has 24 A and 220 V.
a. P = 9.16 W
b. P = 1200 W
c. P = 2640 W
d. P = 5280 W
P = 5280 W
120
Use the formula for calculating the taper of a shaft t = D – d / L, where
```
t = taper in centimetres per metre (cm/m)
D = diameter of the larger end
d = diameter of the smaller end
L = length in metres
```
Determine the taper of a shaft that has end diameters of 5.3 cm and 3.1 cm and a length of
1.3 metres.
a. t = 1.7 cm/m
b. t = 1.4 cm/m
c. t = 1.2 cm/m
d. t = 1.1 cm/m
t = 1.7 cm/m
121
Use the formula F = PA, where
```
F = force in newtons (N)
P = pressure in pascals (Pa)
A = area in square metres (m2)
```
Calculate the pressure in the hydraulic system illustrated below:
a. P = 80 Pa
b. P = 8000 Pa
c. P = 20 000 Pa
d. P = 200 000 Pa
P = 200 000 Pa
122
Use the conversion formula F = 9 / 5 (C + 32), where
```
F = degrees Farhenheit
C = degrees Celsius
```
Convert 175°C to degrees Farhenheit.
a. F = 337°F
b. F = 372.6°F
c. F = 378.8°F
d. F = 388.8°F
F = 372.6°F
123
Use the formula A = πr2, where
```
A = area of a circle
r = radius of the circle
```
Determine the radius in centimetres of a circle with an area of 255 cm2.
a. 9 cm
b. 18 cm
c. 44 cm
d. 81.169 cm
9 cm
124
A construction site 27 m by 76 m must be fenced in before excavation starts. How many
metres of fencing are required to enclose it?
a. 2052 m
b. 103 m
c. 206 m
d. 309 m
206 m
125
A contractor is deciding which floor covering to use in the room shown below. Cork floor
tiles 0.25 m by 0.25 m cost $1.10 each, and carpeting costs $16.95 a square metre. Floor tiles
would be cheaper than carpet.
False
126
A rectangular panel measuring 36" x 18" has two holes 6" in diameter to receive stereo
speakers and a rectangular opening 8" x 10" for a rear window defroster. What is the surface
area of the panel after the holes have been cut to the nearest square inch?
a. 511 sq. in.
b. 540 sq. in.
c. 560 sq. in.
d. 584 sq. in.
511 sq. in.
127
The cylindrical water tank servicing a construction site must be erected on a wooden cradle
and fastened by three metal straps around the outside. If the tank is 44" in diameter, what is
the total length of metal required for the straps, to the nearest 1/16"?
a. 138 1/4"
b. 276 1/2"
c. 452 9/16"
d. 414 11/16"
414 11/16"
128
A pipe 35 cm in diameter must be inserted into a storage tank. What is the area of the hole
that must be cut in the side of the tank if you leave 0.3 cm clearance on the outside of the
pipe?
a. 111.84 cm2
b. 995.38 cm2
c. 223.68 cm2
d. 1029.22 cm2
995.38 cm2
129
A four cylinder engine has a bore (diameter) of 7.5 cm and a stroke (height) of 1.1 cm. What
is the maximum displacement (volume) of each cylinder to the nearest cubic centimetre?
a. 49 cm3
b. 26 cm3
c. 52 cm3
d. 50 cm3
49 cm3
130
A solvent tank measures 135 cm x 50 cm x 45 cm. To the nearest litre, how many litres of
solvent will it take to fill it three-quarters full? 1 cm3 equals 1 mL.
a. 228 L
b. 304 L
c. 508 L
d. 104 L
228 L
131
Find the area of the washer in the figure below with an inside diameter of 12 mm and an
outside diameter of 22 mm.
a. 85.6 mm2
b. 31.4 mm2
c. 212.08 mm2
d. 267.04 mm2
267.04 mm2
132
There are two rectangular containers. The dimensions of container A are 10 m × 6 m × 5 m.
The dimensions of container B are 7 m × 4 m × 8 m. Container A holds more.
True
133
A circle and a triangle with a base of 9 in. both have an area of 28.2744 in.2. The diameter of
the circle is greater than the altitude of the triangle.
False
134
Find the area of the metal plate shown shaded below.
a. 26 460 cm2
b. 32 694 cm2
c. 44 725 cm2
d. 15 298 cm2
26 460 cm2
135
What is the area of a triangle with base of 21.5" and an altitude (or height) of 8"?
a. 172"2
b. 104"2
c. 86"^2
d. 44"2
86"2
136
A truck has a cylindrical air pressure reservoir for its air brake system with an outside
diameter of 39 cm and an outside length of 84 cm. What is the internal volume of the
reservoir in cubic centimetres if the cylinder walls are 0.5 cm thick?
a. 95 266 cm3
b. 88 463 cm3
c. 100 346 cm3
d. 122 863 cm3
95 266 cm3
137
A rectangular steel bar has a cross sectional area of 468 mm2. The bar is to be reformed into
a triangular-shaped bar with the same cross-sectional area. If the height of the triangle is
36 mm, what is the length of the base?
a. 22 mm
b. 26 mm
c. 28 mm
d. 32 mm
26mm
138
Calculate the cost of all moulding needed to go around the window in the figure below, if
the cost per metre is $6.50. Round your answer to the nearest cent.
a. $12.70
b. $25.40
c. $15.55
d. $10.85
$12.70
139
How much ceiling trim is required for the perimeter of the room shown in the figure below?
a. 12.4 m
b. 18.5 m
c. 24.8 m
d. 32.5 m
24.8 m
140
A DC generator contains four brush assemblies, with each assembly containing six brushes.
The surface of each brush is 0.065 m by 0.025 m. Calculate in square metres the total surface
area of all the brushes.
a. 0.028 m2
b. 0.039 m2
c. 0.0016 m2
d. 0.0098 m2
0.039 m2
141
A cleaning tank for small parts measures 15 cm by 35 cm by 12 cm deep. The tank has a fill
line 4 cm from the top. How many litres of cleaning fluid will the tank hold if filled to the fill
line? (1 cm3 = 1 mL)
a. 6.3 L
b. 4.2 L
c. 3.8 L
d. 5.8 L
4.2 L
142
A sheet metal worker is building a heating duct in which the rectangular vent is 15 cm high.
This vent must have the same area as the rectangular opening, which is 20 cm by 30 cm.
Calculate the length of the vent.
a. 20 cm
b. 28 cm
c. 36 cm
d. 40 cm
40 cm
143
If two angles of a triangle add to 112°, what angle would the third be?
a. 248°
b. 68°
c. 90°
d. 48°
68°
144
Two walls, 5' long and 12' long, meet at a corner that should be 90°. What should the
distance be between the two ends of the walls?
a. 13'
b. 10'
c. 17'
d. 22'
13'
145
What is the longest side of a triangle called?
a. Adjacent
b. Opposite
c. Hypotenuse
d. Obtuse
Hypotenuse
146
What is the complementary angle to an angle of 58°?
a. 122°
b. 32°
c. 62°
d. 118°
32°
147
If two angles are supplementary, they will equal 180°.
True
148
Guidelines for installing ceiling tiles are checked for square. A measurement of 6' is marked
off horizontally on one wall and a measurement of 8' is marked off horizontally on the
adjacent wall. If the guidelines are square, what should be the measurement of the line that
joins the two marks?
a. 10'
b. 12'
c. 14'
d. 16'
10'
149
Find the missing values.
150
What is the name for most basic building block of all matter?
a. The atom
b. The quark
c. The newton
d. The molecule
The atom
151
What are the three general states of matter?
a. Cold, cool, and hot
b. Solid, liquid, and gas
c. Organic, inorganic, and plasma
d. Molecule, compound, and mixture
Solid, liquid, and gas
152
What is the term used to describe the force of attraction between dissimilar molecules?
a. Cohesive forces
b. Adhesive forces
c. Attractive forces
d. Gravitational forces
Adhesive forces
153
What is the unit of force used in the metric system?
a. Pascal
b. Newton
c. Kilogram
d. Pounds per square inch
Newton
154
What is the unit of mass used in the metric system?
a. Pound
b. Pascal
c. Kilogram
d. Newton
Kilogram
155
What is the approximate metric value for the acceleration due to gravity?
a. 32 feet per second²
b. 9.8 metres per second
c. 9.8 metres per second²
d. 32 metres per second
9.8 metres per second²
156
What is the term “volume” used to describe?
a. The density of an object
b. The metric term for force of gravity
c. The weight of an object compared to water
d. The amount of space an object occupies or a container holds
The amount of space an object occupies or a container holds
157
How is the term “mass density” best described?
a. The ratio of a mass or weight to a volume
b. The portion of an object at its most dense
c. The comparison of an object’s mass to that of water
d. A description of the densest material known to humans
The ratio of a mass or weight to a volume
158
In metric, what is the most common unit of mass density?
a. kg/L
b. kg/m³
c. lb./m³
d. lb./ft.²
kg/m³
159
If salt water is denser than fresh water, what would the specific gravity of salt water be?
a. SD=1
b. SD= \<1
c. SD= \>1
d. Salt water doesn’t have a specific gravity, only fresh water does.
SD = \>1
160
Given that oak has a specific gravity of 0.72, approximately what portion of a block of oak
floating in fresh water would be submerged?
a. 28%
b. 72%
c. 100%
d. More information is needed
72%
161
What does the term “specific gravity” describe?
a. The buoyancy of salt water
b. The specific acceleration due to gravity
c. A ratio of a substance’s weight compared to air
d. A ratio of a substance’s density compared to fresh water
A ratio of a substance’s density compared to fresh water
162
Why do objects experience higher buoyancy in salt water than in fresh water?
a. Salt water has a higher specific gravity than fresh water.
b. Objects have less buoyancy in salt water than fresh water.
c. The salinity of salt water creates negative ions to support the object.
d. An object has the same buoyancy in salt water as it does in fresh water.
Salt water has a higher specific gravity than fresh water.
163
A 100 cm³ block of iron dropped into a tank of water will displace 200 cm³ of water.
False
164
When determining a solid’s specific gravity, one is comparing the solid’s density to the
density of iron.
False
165
Which of the following best describes the distance a body moves over time?
a. Inertia
b. Speed
c. Rotation
d. Acceleration
Speed
166
Inertia is an object’s resistance to change in its movement.
True
167
Which term best describes an applied force over a distance?
a. Work
b. Force
c. Inertia
d. Velocity
Work
168
Applying the brakes to reduce the velocity of a vehicle is an example of accelerated motion.
True
169
The acceleration of gravity is 9.8 ft./s².
False
170
Force is a product of mass and acceleration.
True
171
The pound is the imperial unit of force.
True
172
Air resistance and friction are examples of unbalanced forces.
True
173
The amount of force required to begin moving an object is the same amount of force
required to keep the object moving at a constant speed.
False
174
Which of the following terms best describes molecular movement?
a. Thermal energy
b. Electrical energy
c. Chemical energy
d. Mechanical energy
Thermal energy
175
Which of the following terms best describes an internal energy transferred from one object to another as a result of temperature difference between the objects?
a. Heat
b. Vibration
c. Mechanical
d. Temperature
Heat
176
Which of the following terms is used to describe the measurement of internal energy of an
object?
a. Heat
b. Chemical
c. Mechanical
d. Temperature
Temperature
177
Which of the following thermometers uses two strips of unlike metals that expand and
contract at different rates?
a. Bimetallic strip thermometer
b. Glass expansion thermometer
c. Liquid expansion thermometer
d. Bimetal calibrated thermometer
Bimetallic strip thermometer
178
Which of the following thermometers utilize the predictable change in a metal’s
conductivity as its temperature changes?
a. Platinum thermometers
b. Resistance thermometers
c. Bimetallic strip thermometers
d. Glass expansion thermometers
Resistance thermometers
179
Two specific dissimilar metals, when joined, can create a voltage when heated. Which of
the following best describes a thermometer that measures this voltage to in turn measure
high temperatures?
a. Thermostat
b. Thermocouple
c. Resistance thermometer
d. Bimetallic strip thermometer
Thermocouple
180
Which of the following terms best describes a thermometer that measures temperatures by
brightness or shade of colour of molten metals?
a. Thermocouple
b. Optical pyrometer
c. Exhaust pyrometer
d. Bimetallic strip thermometer
Optical pyrometer
181
Which of the following is the standard unit of measurement of heat energy in the metric
system?
a. Joule
b. Kilo thermal unit.
c. British thermal unit
d. Metric thermal unit
Joule
182
How many degrees Celsius will 1 kcal of heat raise the temperature of 1 kg of water?
a. 1°F
b. 1.5°F
c. 1.0°C
d. 10°C
1.0°C
183
Which of the following terms defines the amount of heat (kcal) required to raise the
temperature of a kg of a particular material 1°C?
a. Specific heat
b. Specific gravity
c. British thermal unit
d. Metric thermal unit
Specific heat
184
Which of the following terms describes heat that causes a change of state in a substance?
a. Fusion
b. Latent heat
c. Sensible heat
d. Vaporization
Latent heat
185
Which of the following terms describes the quantity of heat needed to change a liquid to a
gas or a gas into a liquid?
a. Latent heat of fusion
b. Sensible heat of fusion
c. Latent heat of vaporization
d. Sensible heat of vaporization
Latent heat of vaporization
186
What occurs when a liquid changes into a gas?
a. The volume of the substance increases.
b. The volume of the substance decreases.
c. The change depends upon the substance.
d. The volume of the substance remains the same.
The volume of the substance increases.
187
Which term best describes a fluid that, with controlled pressure, can be manipulated to boil
at a temperature below the freezing point of water?
a. Ice
b. Glycol
c. Water
d. Refrigerant
Refrigerant
188
Which of the following terms best describes the amount of heat energy required to raise
1 lb. of water 1°F?
a. Kilocalorie
b. British thermal unit
c. Specific thermal unit
d. American thermal unit
British thermal unit
189
Molecular movement in an object is thermal energy or heat.
True
190
Temperature and heat are the same thing.
False
191
Temperature is a measurement of the intensity of the internal energy of an object.
True
192
A one litre container of water at 75°C has the same amount of heat as a two litre container of
water also at 75°C.
False
193
Many common thermometers work on the premise that material expands as its temperature
lowers and contracts as its temperature rises.
False
194
Resistance thermometers work on the premise that a material’s electric resistance will
change as its temperature changes.
True
195
Thermocouples work on the premise that two dissimilar metals joined together in a closed loop will generate a voltage when heated.
True
196
Temperature is the single factor in determining the total heat energy found in an object.
False
197
The imperial unit of heat energy is the British thermal unit.
True
198
The metric unit of heat energy is the kilopascal.
False
199
A metric unit of heat is the kilocalorie.
True
200
One Btu of heat will change the temperature of one pound of water by one degree
Fahrenheit.
True
201
The higher a substance’s specific heat capacity is, the less heat the substance will require to
raise its temperature.
False
202
The higher a substance’s specific heat capacity is, the more heat the substance will require to
raise its temperature.
True
203
Water is considered a poor heat trap as a result of its high specific heat capacity.
False
204
The heat exchange that raises or lowers a substance’s temperature is called latent heat.
False
205
The heat exchange that changes a substance’s state—solid to liquid, liquid to gas etc.—is
called “latent heat.”
True
206
A refrigeration system removes unwanted heat through the manipulation of a fluid’s
(refrigerant) latent heat of vaporization.
True
207
Which of the following best describes how matter typically behaves when heated?
a. Matter will soften when heated.
b. Matter will harden when heated.
c. Matter will expand when heated.
d. Matter will contract when heated.
Matter will expand when heated.
208
Which term best describes the predictable change in length due to temperature change in a
solid?
a. Linear expansion
b. Fusion heat of a solid
c. Latent heat of a solid
d. Sensible heat of a solid
Linear expansion
209
Which of the following describes the three ways in which heat moves?
a. Lineal, diagonal, invisible
b. Chemical, mechanical, electrical
c. Conduction, convection, radiation
d. Thermal transfer, thermal flow, thermal mechanics
Conduction, convection, radiation
210
Which of the following describes heat transferred by touch?
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Thermal flow
Conduction
211
Which of the following describes heat transferred by electromagnetic waves?
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Thermal flow
Radiation
212
Which of the following describes heat transferred using the changing density of a fluid as a
medium?
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Thermal flow
Convection
213
Which of the following statements best describes the effect that heat absorption and heat
emitting-properties have on surface conditions?
a. Dark surfaces are poor heat emitters and absorbers.
b. Dark surfaces are good heat emitters and absorbers.
c. Light surfaces are good heat emitters and absorbers.
d. Surface conditions do not have an effect on objects’ heat absorption and emitting
properties.
Dark surfaces are good heat emitters and absorbers.
214
When a material is heated, its length expands but not its volume.
False
215
What is referred to when a solid is said to have mechanical properties?
a. The location of a solid in a combustion engine
b. The usefulness of a solid in a mechanical system
c. The ratio of the solid’s density compared to water
d. The solid’s resistance to physical forces acting upon it
The solid’s resistance to physical forces acting upon it
216
Which term best describes an external force trying to stretch a body of material?
a. Shear
b. Torque
c. Tension
d. Compression
Tension
217
Which term best describes an external force trying to push into a body of material?
a. Shear
b. Torque
c. Tension
d. Compression
Compression
218
Which term best describes an external force trying to change the shape of a body of
material?
a. Shear
b. Torque
c. Tension
d. Compression
Shear
219
Which term best describes an external force trying to twist a body of material?
a. Shear
b. Torque
c. Tension
d. Compression
Torque
220
Which term best describes a physical change in a material as a result of stress?
a. Strain
b. Elasticity
c. Hardness
d. Durability
Strain
221
Which term best describes a material’s ability to return to its original dimensions after a
stress has been applied?
a. Strain
b. Elasticity
c. Hardness
d. Durability
Elasticity
222
Which term best describes the point at which a material under stress finally breaks?
a. Elastic limit
b. Tensile strength
c. Ultimate strength
d. Compression strength
Ultimate strength
223
Which statement best describes a safety factor of five?
a. A piece of equipment can carry a load up to five tons.
b. A piece of equipment has an ultimate strength of five tons.
c. A piece of equipment will fail if a load carried is five kilograms over the rating.
d. A piece of equipment can carry a load five times heavier than its rating.
A piece of equipment can carry a load five times heavier than its rating
224
Which term best describes a material’s ability to resist a penetrating force?
a. Ductility
b. Hardness
c. Brittleness
d. Malleability
Hardness
225
Which term best describes a material’s lack of malleability?
a. Ductility
b. Elasticity
c. Hardness
d. Brittleness
Brittleness
226
Which term best describes a material’s ability to be drawn into a wire without breaking?
a. Ductility
b. Elasticity
c. Brittleness
d. Malleability
Ductility
227
Which term best describes a material’s ability to be permanently deformed by compression
forces?
a. Ductility
b. Elasticity
c. Brittleness
d. Malleability
Malleability
228
Which term best describes a material’s ability to conduct heat?
a. Galvanic series
b. Corrosion resistance
c. Thermal conductivity
d. Electrical conductivity
Thermal conductivity
229
Which term best describes a material’s ability to conduct an electrical current?
a. Galvanic series
b. Electrical resistance
c. Thermal conductivity
d. Electrical conductivity
Electrical conductivity
230
What physical change occurs when a material’s temperature rises?
a. Thermal current
b. Thermal expansion
c. Thermal contraction
d. Thermal conductivity
Thermal expansion
231
Which statement best describes the relationship between metals in the galvanic series?
a. The closer the metals are in the series, the more corrosive they are.
b. The greater the difference in the series, the quicker corrosion will occur.
c. The greater the difference in the series, the stronger the magnetic attraction is.
d. The closer the metals are in the series, the better electrical conductors they are.
The greater the difference in the series, the quicker corrosion will occur.
232
If a length of wire rope is rated to carry a maximum of 1000 kg, with a safety factor rating of
five, its ultimate strength value is 5000 kg.
True
233
Which of the following is the metric unit to describe power?
a. Watt
b. Kilowatt
c. Kilojoule
d. All of the above
All of the above
234
Which of the following is the imperial unit to describe power?
a. Watt
b. Kilowatt
c. Horsepower
d. Steampower
Horsepower
235
Which term best describes the capacity to do work?
a. Power
b. Inertia
c. Energy
d. Velocity
Energy
236
Which term best describes the energy found in an object in motion?
a. Velocity
b. Horsepower
c. Kinetic energy
d. Potential energy
Kinetic energy
237
Which term best describes the energy found in an object at rest?
a. Velocity
b. Horsepower
c. Kinetic energy
d. Potential energy
Potential energy
238
Which term best describes the energy stored in a load suspended by a crane?
a. Velocity
b. Horsepower
c. Kinetic energy
d. Potential energy
Potential energy
239
Which term best describes the potential energy found in fuel gases?
a. Kinetic energy
b. Electrical energy
c. Chemical energy
d. Mechanical energy
Chemical energy
240
Which term best describes the potential energy found in a battery?
a. Kinetic energy
b. Useful energy
c. Chemical energy
d. Mechanical energy
Chemical energy
241
The definition of work states if an object has not moved, regardless of the force applied to it,
no work has been performed upon it.
True
242
The term that describes work over time is “force.”
False
243
The unit of measurement of power in the metric system is the kilowatt.
True
244
A kilowatt is the equivalent of one joule per second.
False
245
Energy is the capacity to do work.
True
246
Energy can be classified into three separate categories: kinetic, chemical, and mechanical.
False
247
Water retained at a height behind a hydro dam is an example of potential energy.
True
248
Potential energy is the energy found in an object in motion.
False
249
The conservation of energy states that energy is never created or destroyed, it only changes
form.
True
250
Which of the following is the metric unit to describe work?
a. The watt
b. The joule
c. The foot-pound
d. The metre per second²
The joule
251
Which term best describes work performed over time?
a. Force
b. Power
c. Gravity
d. Velocity
Power
252
Which term best describes the force that bonds liquid molecules to other material?
a. Specific gravity
b. Cohesive force
c. Adhesive force
d. Contractive force
Adhesive force
253
When an object is submersed in water, what force is acting on that object?
a. Buoyant force
b. Cohesive force
c. Adhesive force
d. Archimedes’ force.
Buoyant force
254
Which statement best describes Archimedes’ principle?
a. A body wholly or partially immersed in water is buoyed up with a force less than the
weight of the fluid displaced by the body.
b. A body wholly or partially immersed in water is buoyed up with a force equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by the body.
c. A body wholly or partially immersed in water is buoyed up with a force greater than the
weight of the fluid displaced by the body.
d. A body wholly or partially immersed in water is buoyed up with a force unrelated to the
weight of the fluid displaced by the body.
A body wholly or partially immersed in water is buoyed up with a force equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by the body.
255
Which statement best describes the buoyant force of liquids?
a. The specific gravity of the liquid
b. All liquids exert the same buoyant force
c. The liquid’s specific gravity over that of fresh water
d. The difference between an object’s weight in air and its weight in water
The difference between an object’s weight in air and its weight in water
256
Which of the following best describes pressure?
a. An area over a force
b. A force over an area
c. A force over a period of time
d. An area divided by a force squared
A force over an area
257
How are units of pressure expressed in the metric system?
a. Pounds over a square metre
b. Newtons over a square metre
c. Kilograms over a square metre
d. The height multiplied by the pressure
Newtons over a square metre
258
How does depth affect water pressure?
a. Water pressure increases with depth.
b. Water pressure decreases with depth.
c. Water pressure is unaffected by depth.
d. Water pressure only increases with a decrease in density.
Water pressure increases with depth.
259
How much pressure is created at the base of three metres of water column?
a. 300 Pa
b. 29.4 kPa
c. 101.4 kPa
d. 29.4 N/m²
29.4 kPa
260
How much pressure is created at the base of 10 feet of water column?
a. 433 psi
b. 29.4 psi
c. 9.81 psi
d. 4.33 psi
4.33 psi
261
When an external pressure is applied to a contained liquid, where is the point of highest
pressure?
a. The pressure would be highest at the plunger.
b. The pressure would be uniform throughout the container.
c. The pressure would be highest at the bottom of the container.
d. The pressure would be highest at the deepest point of the container.
The pressure would be uniform throughout the container.
262
Which term best describes a liquid’s resistance to flow?
a. Volatility
b. Viscosity
c. Hydraulic
d. Hydrodynamic
Viscosity
263
Which term best describes the use of Pascal’s law to perform work?
a. Volatility
b. Viscosity
c. Hydraulics
d. Hydrodynamics
Hydraulics
264
Which of the following best describes the relationship between velocity of flow and pressure
of a liquid in a pipe?
a. Velocity and pressure are unrelated.
b. When velocity is low, pressure is low.
c. When velocity is high, pressure is low.
d. When velocity is high, pressure is high.
When velocity is high, pressure is low.
265
How does the length of tube or pipe affect the pressure drop of a moving liquid in a pipe
system?
a. Tube length and pressure drop are unrelated.
b. The longer the tube, the less the pressure drop.
c. The longer the tube, the higher the pressure drop.
d. The shorter the tube, the higher the pressure drop.
The longer the tube, the higher the pressure drop.
266
How does the size of tube or pipe affect the pressure drop of a moving liquid in a pipe
system?
a. Tube size and pressure drop are unrelated.
b. The smaller the tube, the less the pressure drop.
c. The larger the tube, the greater the pressure drop.
d. The smaller the tube, the greater the pressure drop.
The smaller the tube, the greater the pressure drop.
267
Which of the following best describes a manometer?
a. A water-filled instrument used to measure water pressure
b. An instrument used to measure a person’s pace and work rate
c. A mercury-filled instrument that measures barometric pressure
d. A unit of measurement used to describe microscopic particles such as the atom
A water-filled instrument used to measure water pressure
268
A soap bubble is an example of surface tension.
True
269
A swimmer would experience the same hydraulic pressure two metres below the surface of
a small swimming pool as she would two metres below the surface of a large lake.
True
270
The pressure at the base of a three-metre tank filled with fresh water would be
approximately 30 kPa.
True
271
Pascal’s law states that a pressure applied to an enclosed liquid is transmitted uniformly
throughout the liquid.
True
272
Viscosity, flow rate, and length of tube all contribute to pressure loss of a moving liquid.
True
273
Which phrase best describes a basic device that transmits a force to produce purposeful work?
a. Employee
b. Power tool
c. Transmitter
d. Simple machine
Simple machine
274
Which of the following is an example of a simple machine?
a. The lever
b. The inclined plane
c. The hydraulic press
d. All of the above
All of the above
275
Which term best describes a simple machine’s capacity for multiplying an applied force?
a. Applied effort
b. Resistance force
c. The inclined plane
d. Mechanical advantage
Mechanical advantage
276
Which phrase best describes the comparison of the applied force distance with a simple
machine to the resistance force distance?
a. Force equation
b. Force-overcome resistance
c. Ideal mechanical advantage
d. Resistance mechanical equation
Ideal mechanical advantage
277
What is the approximate mechanical advantage found in a lever with an effort arm of 2 m
and a resistance arm of 0.5 m?
a. MA = 5:2
b. MA = 4:1
c. MA = 2:1
d. MA = 1:5
MA= 4:1
278
What term is used to describe the pivot point that divides a lever into two parts?
a. Fulcrum
b. Effort arm
c. Effort force
d. Resistance arm
Fulcrum
279
What effect would increasing the length of a lever have on its mechanical advantage?
a. Shorten the MA
b. Increase the MA
c. Decrease the MA
d. No effect on the MA
Increase the MA
280
How much force is required to move a 100 kg block with a 3 m lever and the fulcrum 1 m
from the load?
a. 50 kg
b. 980 N
c. 490 N
d. 490 kg
490 N
281
How can the mechanical advantage of a wheelbarrow be increased?
a. Increase the length of the handles
b. Decrease the length of the handles
c. Move the load further from the wheel
d. There is no technique for increasing the MA of a wheelbarrow.
Increase the length of the handles
282
What is the mechanical advantage of a 50 cm radius wheel handle that controls a 2 cm
radius drive shaft on a valve body?
a. 25
b. 48
c. 52
d. 325
25
283
How long of a wrench would provide a mechanical advantage of 20 to a socket with a
diameter of 20 mm?
a. 40 mm
b. 200 mm
c. 400 mm
d. 480 mm
200 mm
284
What is the mechanical advantage of a single pulley machine?
a. 0.5
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
1
285
With a three-pulley system, how long would the resistance distance be if the effort distance
is 45 cm?
a. 15 cm
b. 48 cm
c. 90 cm
d. 135 cm
15 cm
286
What is the mechanical advantage of a four-pulley system?
a. 1/4
b. .25
c. 4
d. 40
4
287
A chiller motor operates at 1800 rpm and is connected to a fan designed to rotate at 600 rpm.
Assuming zero friction loss with a fan pulley sized at 30 cm, what is the appropriate sized
motor pulley?
a. 10 cm
b. 18 cm
c. 30 cm
d. 90 cm
10 cm
288
What advantage does a gear system have over a belt-pulley system?
a. Eliminate slippage
b. There are no advantages.
c. Increased energy consumption
d. Increased mechanical advantage
Eliminate slippage
289
A gear wheel, rotating at 500 rpm, has a radius of 150 mm and drives a second gear with a
radius of 600 mm. If the input force is 100 N, what is the output force?
a. 150 N
b. 200 N
c. 150 kg
d. 400 N
400 N
290
A gear wheel, rotating at 500 rpm, has a radius of 150 mm and drives a second gear with a
radius of 600 mm with a force of 100 N. Which of the following describes the mechanical
advantage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
4
291
A gear wheel, rotating at 500 rpm, has a radius of 150 mm and drives a second gear with
a radius of 600 mm with a force of 100 N. Which of the following describes the second
gear’s rpm?
a. 100 rpm
b. 125 rpm
c. 150 rpm
d. 600 rpm
125 rpm
292
Which simple machine are ramps, escalators, wedges, and screws examples of?
a. The lever
b. The staircase
c. The pulley system
d. The inclined plane
The inclined plane
293
A barrel weighing 100 kg is to be rolled up a ramp 3 m long and 1 m high. What force is
required to roll the barrel up the ramp?
a. 300 N
b. 326 kg
c. 326 N
d. 2940 N
326 N
294
Which of the following best describes the mechanical advantage of a ramp?
a. MA = ramp length/ramp height.
b. MA = ramp height/ramp length.
c. MA = ramp height × ramp length.
d. MA = ramp height + ramp length.
MA = ramp length/ ramp height.
295
Which of the following best describes the mechanical advantage of a wedge?
a. MA = wedge length × wedge angle.
b. MA = wedge length/wedge thickness.
c. MA = wedge thickness/wedge length.
d. MA = wedge angle/wedge thickness + length.
MA = wedge length/ wedge thickness.
296
Which of the following best describes the distance between two adjacent threads of a bolt?
a. Kerf
b. Pitch
c. Screw advantage
d. Nominal thread count
Pitch
297
Which of the following best describes the transfer of a force through a contained liquid?
a. Waves
b. Turbulence
c. Hydraulic pressure
d. The hydraulic press
The hydraulic press
298
Which of the following is equal to the input pressure applied to a hydraulic press?
a. The effort arm
b. The resistance arm
c. The output pressure
d. The mechanical advantage
The output pressure
299
Which of the following describes the mechanical advantage of a hydraulic press?
a. Resistance arm/effort arm
b. Effort force/resistance force
c. Effort angle/resistance angle
d. Area of resistance cylinder/area of effort cylinder
Area of resistance cylinder/area of effort cylinder
300
A hydraulic press is used to lift a 1000 kg pump so a millwright can bolt it to the piping
system. The hydraulic press handle applies force to a piston with an area of 5 cm²; the press
piston lifts the pump with an area of 80 cm². How much force will the millwright need to
apply to the handle to lift the pump?
a. 62.5 N
b. 1000 N
c. 6125 N
d. 81.25 N
62.5 N
301
How will a contained gas behave when released into an unconfined space?
a. The gas will double in volume.
b. The gas will reduce in volume.
c. The gas will expand indefinitely.
d. The gas will retain its original volume.
The gas will expand indefinitely.
302
Which term best describes a gas’s infinite ability to take on any shape?
a. Elasticity
b. Viscosity
c. Durability
d. Compressibility
Elasticity
303
Which term best describes a gas’s ability to occupy tight quarters?
a. Elasticity
b. Viscosity
c. Durability
d. Compressibility
Compressibility
304
What three terms are used to describe gas pressures?
a. High, low, and medium
b. Gas, liquid, and solid
c. Absolute, gauge, and atmospheric
d. Barometric, meteorological, and manometric
Absolute, gauge, and atmospheric
305
How are negative pressures measured?
a. In inches of mercury
b. In feet of water column
c. In metres of water column
d. In newtons over square metres
In inches of mercury
306
What is the difference between absolute pressure and gauge pressure measured in the
metric system?
a. 14.73 psi
b. 101.3 kPa
c. 10 000 kPa
d. 29.92 inches Hg
101.3 kPa
307
According to Boyle’s law, what happens when an enclosed mass of gas doubles in volume?
a. The gas pressure will double.
b. The gas pressure will be unaffected.
c. The gas will increase in temperature.
d. The gas pressure will be reduced by half.
The gas pressure will be reduced by half.
308
According to Charles’ law 1, what will happen if a confined gas is heated?
a. The pressure will increase.
b. The pressure will decrease.
c. The volume of gas will increase.
d. The pressure of the gas will be unaffected.
The pressure will increase.
309
According to Charles’ law 2, what has happened if a contained gas maintains a constant
pressure but is halved in volume?
a. The pressure has doubled.
b. The pressure has been halved.
c. The temperature has doubled.
d. The temperature has been halved.
The temperature has been halved.
310
How is the specific gravity of a gas stated?
a. As a product of the volume and the weight of the gas
b. As a product of the temperature and the volume of the gas
c. As a ratio between the density of the gas and the density of air
d. As a ratio between the density of the gas and the density of water
As a ratio between the density of the gas and the density of air
311
How would propane gas, with a specific gravity of 1.53, behave when exhausted into the
atmosphere?
a. The propane would rise, as it is lighter than air.
b. The propane would sink, as it is heavier than air.
c. The propane would gather in the warmest parts of the space.
d. The propane would spread evenly throughout the area, as it is as dense as air.
The propane would sink, as it is heavier than air.
312
To which are all other gases compared when establishing their specific gravity?
a. Air
b. Water
c. Oxygen
d. Hydrogen
Air
313
Which term best describes a total absence of heat?
a. Freezing
b. Absolute cold
c. Absolute zero
d. Absolute temperature
Absolute zero
314
The compressibility of gases means they are difficult to contain and pressurize.
False
315
Absolute pressure is the final pressure at the end of a pipeline.
False
316
Inches of mercury is a measurement of a vacuum.
True
317
Absolute temperature in the metric system is measured in Kelvins.
True
318
What are most drafting tables covered with?
a. Vinyl
b. Wood
c. Metal
d. Plastic wrap
Vinyl
319
Drafting tables are adjustable in height and angle to the floor.
True
320
What are T-squares used for?
a. Drawing angled lines
b. Drawing vertical lines
c. Setting paper on a table
d. Drawing horizontal lines
Drawing horizontal lines
321
Why might a set square have rabbeted edges?
a. To help you prevent smudges
b. To help keep your pencil sharp
c. To help keep your pencil aligned
d. To allow you to draw straight lines
To help you prevent smudges
322
Checking a triangle should be done periodically.
True
323
What is a set square used for?
a. Drawing circles
b. Drawing curved lines
c. Drawing vertical and angled lines
d. Drawing horizontal and angled lines
Drawing vertical and angled lines
324
When using a 45°-90°-45° and a 30°-60°-90° triangle, angles can be drawn every 10°.
False
325
What is a protractor used for?
a. Measuring lines
b. Measuring angles
c. Drawing angled lines
d. Drawing straight lines
Measuring angles
326
What kind of line is drawn to check a triangle?
a. Straight
b. Parallel
c. Oblique
d. Perpendicular
Perpendicular
327
What is a compass used for?
a. Drawing angled lines
b. Drawing straight lines
c. Drawing arcs and circles
d. Drawing irregular curves
Drawing arcs and circles
328
What is an erasing shield used for?
a. To erase mistakes
b. To hold the eraser
c. To erase in a desired area
d. To prevent the need for erasing
To erase in a desired area
329
A spline is a plastic or rubber rod reinforced with metal used for drawing curves.
True
330
What is the tool called a divider used for?
a. Drawing circles
b. Drawing a diameter
c. Scribing arcs on metal
d. Drawing arcs and curves
Scribing arcs on metal
331
What is the purpose of a scale ruler?
a. To draw straight lines
b. To enlarge the scale of a drawing
c. To create drawings at a reduced scale
d. To convert between imperial and metric measures
To create drawings at a reduced scale
332
Which line in a drawing should be the darkest and thickest?
a. Centre line
b. Hidden line
c. Object line
d. Dimension line
Object line
333
This line in a drawing is a broken line of alternating short and long dashes.
a. Centre line
b. Hidden line
c. Phantom line
d. Compression line
Centre line
334
What is the name of a line in a drawing that shows a hidden feature?
a. Buried line
b. Missing line
c. Hidden line
d. Concealed line
Hidden line
335
A break line shows where part of an object in a drawing has been removed.
True
336
A drawing should have all dimensions shown in every view.
False
337
Which line is used to shows notes or specifications in a drawing?
a. Leader line
b. Object line
c. Extension line
d. Phantom line
Leader line
338
How are alternate positions of moving parts shown in a drawing?
a. With a break line
b. With a hidden line
c. With an object line
d. With a phantom line
With a phantom line
339
What does a sectional view in a drawing normally show?
a. Outside of a part
b. Inside dimensions
c. Internal holes and slots
d. Internal features of a part
Internal features of a part
340
What do the arrows that locate a sectional view in a drawing indicate?
a. Side the part is cut on
b. Internal holes and slots
c. Direction of the standard view
d. Direction of observation when the section is drawn
Direction of observation when the section is drawn
341
In the drawing below, indicate whether the dimensions shown by letters D2 and D4 are size
dimensions, no dimensions, location dimensions, or notation dimensions.
a. Size dimensions
b. No dimensions
c. Notation dimensions
d. Location dimensions
Size dimensions
342
Scale rulers are available in both imperial and metric.
True
343
Which scale ruler would be most likely to have a 1/4" to 1' scale on it?
a. Metric scale ruler
b. Architect’s scale ruler
c. Civil engineer’s scale ruler
d. Mechanical engineer’s scale ruler
Architect’s scale ruler
344
How many scale ratios per edge do metric scale rulers have?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
1
345
What is the best way to get exact dimensions from a drawing?
a. Measure using a tape measure.
b. Exact dimensions aren’t important.
c. Scale it with your combination square.
d. Use the dimension written between the dimension lines.
Use the dimension written between the dimension lines.
346
If a line measures 41/2", what is the equivalent in 1/4"=1' scale?
a. 9"
b. 18'
c. 9'
d. 18"
18'
347
If a line measures 63/8", what is the equivalent in 1/8" = 1' scale?
a. 27"
b. 48'
c. 4'3"
d. 51'
51'
348
What is the measurement of the line below?
a. 68'
b. 6'3"
c. 80'
d. 12'6"
12'6"
349
What is the measurement of the line below?
a. 1'3"
b. 1'6"
c. 27'3"
d. 27'6"
1'3"
350
What is the measurement of the line below?
a. 16'2"
b. 16'4"
c. 16'6"
d. 16'9"
16'2"
351
What is the measurement of the line below?
a. 3'4"
b. 3'7"
c. 9'4"
d. 13'7"
3'4"
352
What is the measurement of the line below?
a. 35 mm
b. 3.5 m
c. 35 m
d. 350 m
3.5m
353
What is the measurement of the line below?
a. 0.19 m
b. 1.9 m
c. 19 m
d. 190 m
1.9m
354
What is the measurement of the piping run below in 1/2"=1' scale?
a. 8'6"
b. 10'6"
c. 17'
d. 34'
8'6"
355
A perspective drawing is one form of which type of view?
a. Oblique
b. Pictorial
c. Isometric
d. Orthographic
Pictorial
356
At what angle should isometric drawings have horizontal lines drawn?
a. 15°
b. 30°
c. 45°
d. 60°
30°
357
What do perspective drawings always have?
a. Scale
b. Dimensions
c. Hidden lines
d. Vanishing points
Vanishing points
358
At what angles should oblique drawings have lines drawn?
a. 0°–15°
b. 15°–30°
c. 30°–45°
d. 45°–60°
30°–45°
359
Orthographic projection drawings are three-dimensional drawings.
False
360
What is a common name for a top view in an orthographic drawing?
a. Plan view
b. Down view
c. Ceiling view
d. Elevation view
Plan view
361
In orthographic projection, how many views are most commonly shown?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
3
362
In the diagrams below, match letters A to L with numbers 1 to 12.
A. 10 B. 11
C. 5 D. 6
E. 1 F. 12
G. 7 H. 2
I. 8 J. 4
K. 9 L. 3
363
What is a top view called in a construction drawing?
a. Plan view
b. Floor plan
c. Floor detail
d. Building plan
Floor plan
364
What are drawings called that show door and window locations, and other exterior finishes
of a building?
a. Wall drawings
b. Front drawings
c. Exterior drawings
d. Elevation drawings
Elevation drawings
365
Where is the scale of a drawing found?
a. In the revisions
b. In the title block
c. In the specifications
d. In the bill of materials
In the title block
366
The specifications of a drawing serve as a legal contract for the job.
True
367
Where on a drawing would information on material grade be found?
a. In the title block
b. In the specifications
c. In the revision chart
d. In the bill of materials
In the bill of materials
368
Specifications are a written description of a construction project.
True
369
What should the title block on a drawing always include?
a. Title
b. Date
c. Name of the draftsperson
d. All of the above
All of the above
370
A standard is a way of demonstrating that a product has been vetted and possesses a
predetermined level of quality.
True
371
Approximately how often is the National Building Code published?
a. Every two years
b. Every three years
c. Every four years
d. Every five years
Every five years
372
What does CSA stand for?
a. Canadian Safety Association
b. Council of Standards America
c. Canadian Standards Association
d. Canadian Safety Authority
Canadian Standards Association
373
Transport Canada sets standards for road safety.
True
374
In BC, which of the following organizations is responsible for electrical safety?
a. BCCSA
b. BC Electrical Department
c. BC Safety Authority
d. BC SPCA
BC Safety Authority
375
WorkSafeBC is responsible for worker safety in BC.
True
376
What form of construction is the HPO responsible for?
a. Residential construction in BC
b. Commercial construction in BC
c. All construction in BC
d. All construction in Canada
Residential construction in BC
377
What organization is responsible for standards within transport industries?
a. IAPMO
b. SAE International
c. ASTM International
d. ASME
SAE International
378
Codes and standards are an essential element of technology, innovation, and trades
construction and manufacturing.
True
379
What is the main purpose of a building code?
a. To ensure quality
b. To ensure a fair price
c. To ensure safety
d. To ensure efficiency
To ensure safety
380
When working in a particular municipality, which codes must be followed?
a. International building code
b. National building code
c. Provincial building code
d. Local building code
Local building code
381
Plumbing and fire prevention all have their own applicable codes in BC.
True
382
What document provides the guidelines for safety at the workplace in BC?
a. BC Safety Regulation
b. Occupational Health and Safety Regulation
c. National Safety Guide
d. BC Safety GuideWhat document provides the guidelines for safety at the workplace in BC?
Occupational Health and Safety Regulation
383
What activity requires a permit?
a. Plumbing
b. Electrical work
c. Demolition work
d. All of the above
All of the above
384
If a permit is not acquired when necessary, there are no consequences.
False
385
Document use is one of the nine essential skills for the workplace.
True
386
Which of the following is considered part of document use?
a. Reading signs
b. Completing time cards
c. Interpreting instructions
d. All of the above
All of the above
387
What do symbols in equipment manuals usually indicate?
a. Safety concerns
b. Equipment use
c. Troubleshooting
d. Assembly
Safety concerns
388
What section of a manual most commonly includes an exploded view?
a. Safety
b. Assembly
c. Programming
d. Operation
Assembly
389
Most equipment does not require any routine maintenance.
False
390
What form is a troubleshooting guide usually in?
a. Written document
b. Pie chart
c. Bar graph
d. Table
Table
391
What is the name of the sheet that provides information on hazardous products?
a. Safety data sheet
b. Hazardous material sheet
c. Material safety sheet
d. Safety sheet
Safety data sheet
392
An instruction sheet may be in the form of a simple diagram or chart.
True
393
What type of manual explains the functions of a piece of equipment?
a. Safety manual
b. Maintenance manual
c. Operation manual
d. Product specifications
Operation manual
394
A maintenance manual will include information such as size of motors or electrical
requirements.
False
395
What type of document includes information about compatibility between equipment and
additional components?
a. Product specifications
b. Operation manual
c. Maintenance manual
d. Safety manual
Product specifications
396
It is common to have to register a product to receive the full warranty.
True
397
What type of form is used to track repair jobs?
a. Purchase orders
b. Repair order
c. Maintenance sheet
d. Technical bulletin
Repair order
398
Which is sent to a supplier to complete an order?
a. Repair order
b. Work order
c. Purchase order
d. Acquisition sheet
Purchase order
399
What purpose does a maintenance sheet serve?
a. It is used for billing purposes.
b. It is used for tracking purposes.
c. It is used for liability purposes.
d. It is used for resale purposes.
It is used for tracking purposes.
400
If an automotive manufacturer discovers a recurring issue with a vehicle, how would that
information be relayed to automotive dealers?
a. The manufacturer would phone or email them.
b. The manufacturer would ignore the issue.
c. The manufacturer would issue a technical bulletin.
d. The manufacturer would issue a specification sheet.
The manufacturer would issue a technical bulletin.
401
What document would be used by a home inspector?
a. Inspection form
b. Service form
c. Review form
d. Assessment form
Inspection form
402
What document would you read to tell if a used vehicle has been maintained?
a. History sheet
b. Operator’s manual
c. Inspection sheet
d. Service record
Service record
403
A bill of materials will include all information to build a product.
True
404
Before a construction project begins, what form should be completed?
a. Safety sheet
b. Site safety survey
c. Job analysis sheet
d. Inspection sheet
Site safety survey
405
An automotive service technician may use a laptop computer to record all information while
he or she is completing the job.
True
406
When testing equipment, why is important to record results as soon as they are obtained?
a. To make the job go faster
b. To maintain accuracy
c. To help with billing
d. To show the client what you have done
To maintain accuracy
407
Trade-related documentation is always in written form.
False
408
Which of the following best represents conveying information in a visual way?
a. Tables
b. Drawings
c. Charts and graphs
d. All of the above
All of the above
409
To compare the change in house prices over a year, which graph should be used?
a. A table
b. A bar graph
c. A pie chart
d. All of the above
A bar graph
410
According to the graph below, what was the price of gas on July 19?
a. 127.5
b. 128
c. 128.5
d. 129
127.5
411
Most product specifications are in the form of a line graph.
False
412
When a small portion of a project is drawn, what is it called?
a. A blueprint
b. A shop drawing
c. A specific drawing
d. Mechanical drawings
A shop drawing
413
If there was an ongoing problem with a product, what document would the manufacturer
release?
a. A technical bulletin
b. A product specification sheet
c. A maintenance sheet
d. An inspection sheet
A technical bulletin
414
What is used to find information regarding parts or products to be ordered?
a. Catalogues
b. Shop drawings
c. Technical bulletins
d. Product specifications
Catalogues
415
Percentages can be shown visually in a pie chart.
True
416
The most common way to source manufacturer information is by using a computer and the
Internet.
True
417
Manufacturers will typically use a website to convey specific information.
True
418
Where would you look for warranty information for a product?
a. The product manual
b. On the product itself
c. The manufacturer’s website
d. None of the above
The manufacturer’s website
419
A Google search is a good way to find installation instructions for a product.
False
420
Having documentation stored on a computer is always safe.
False
421
What would be required to find specific information about a piece of equipment?
a. The product brochure
b. The equipment manual
c. The product serial number
d. All of the above
The product serial number
422
Most projects begin with blueprints.
True
423
Which of the following best describes what project specifications are?
a. A book about project details
b. Information about building components to be installed
c. The official document that states a specific construction activity has been approved
d. A detailed description of the work, materials, and techniques that should be used to
complete the work
A detailed description of the work, materials, and techniques that should be used to
complete the work
424
What components are commonly detailed in a schedule?
a. Flooring
b. Interior finishes
c. Roofing material
d. Doors and windows
Doors and windows
425
Most construction projects do not require a permit.
False
426
Permits can usually be issued with little notice.
False
427
Before any work commences, what document should be completed at the job site?
a. A work order
b. An inspection form
c. A work site safety survey
d. An electrical permit application
A work site safety survey
428
If a change in the original scope of work arises, what form should be filed?
a. Work order
b. Change order
c. Change request
d. Request for information
Change order
429
Scheduling with all trades must be part of the project planning.
True
430
Why are permits required for certain construction-related jobs?
a. For safety concerns
b. To ensure a quality job
c. For municipal records
d. To keep track of contractors
For safety concerns
431
Why is it important to plan for all tools and equipment needed for a job?
a. To be efficient
b. To be cost effective
c. So time is not wasted
d. All of the above
All of the above
432
What is required to plan the inventory of a project, in addition to security, storage, and
delivery?
a. Shelter
b. Timing
c. Labelling
d. Scheduling
Labelling
433
Once a project is complete, what drawing should be created?
a. As-built drawing
b. Finishing drawing
c. Completion drawing
d. Termination drawing
As-built drawing
434
If there is an unclear aspect of a project, what document can be used for clarification?
a. Work order
b. Change order
c. As-built drawing
d. Request for information
Request for information
435
All workers and supervisors must take care to ensure safety practices are in place at every
stage of handling different materials.
True
436
Why is the storage and accessibility of materials important?
a. So the material is well organized
b. So the material will be secured properly
c. So the material can be accessed when needed
d. All of the above
All of the above
437
Proper timing and sequencing of material deliveries does not affect efficiency.
False
438
What is essential to check when transporting materials?
a. Traffic is calm.
b. The load is secure.
c. The truck is washed.
d. The load is complete.
The load is secure.
439
Labels may contain information about the safe transporting of a product.
True
440
Which of the following products requires controlled disposal?
a. Lumber
b. Plastics
c. Asbestos
d. Scrap metal
Asbestos
441
Efficiency when selecting material-handling procedures is not important.
False
442
Asbestos is found in many building products.
True
443
Who sets regulations on handling hazardous materials?
a. BC Hazmat
b. WorkSafeBC
c. BC government
d. BC Safety Authority
WorkSafeBC
444
What is the best storage solution for a long-term project?
a. Job box
b. Large lockbox
c. Portable container
d. No storage is needed
Portable container
