Liver and pancreatic disease Flashcards

(404 cards)

1
Q

Liver diseases in this text are divided into four groups: (1) vascular liver disorders; (2) biliary tract disorders; (3) parenchymal disorders, including stellate cells and Kupffer cells; and (4) neoplasia.

A

Liver diseases in this text are divided into four groups: (1) vascular liver disorders; (2) biliary tract disorders; (3) parenchymal disorders, including stellate cells and Kupffer cells; and (4) neoplasia.

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2
Q

Hyperammonemia can be the consequence of some diseases, such as?

A

Congenital portosystemic shunts (CPSSs), acquired portosystemic collaterals (APSCs), or urea-cycle enzyme deficiency (reported in the dog but not in the cat)

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3
Q

Acquired portosystemic collaterals (APSCs) are formed as a result of?

A

Sustained intrahepatic (diseases of the liver itself, associated with abnormal echostructure) or prehepatic (disorders of the PV) portal hypertension through enlargement of extrahepatic rudimentary vessels, through which no blood normally passes.

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4
Q

A common consequence of portal hypertension is?

A

Accumulation of free abdominal fluid

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5
Q

Congenital portosystemic shunts (CPSSs) are classified as?

A

intrahepatic or extrahepatic:

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6
Q

Intrahepatic portocaval shunts occur predominantly in ……….-breed dogs and may originate either from the left or right portal branch; they appear as the direct continuation of the ……, as the diameter of the shunt and of the affected portal branch are the same as that of the PV

A

Intrahepatic portocaval shunts occur predominantly in large-breed dogs and may originate either from the left or right portal branch; they appear as the direct continuation of the PV, as the diameter of the shunt and of the affected portal branch are the same as that of the PV

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7
Q

Extrahepatic CPSSs occur mostly in ……….breeds but are occasionally seen in large breeds.

A

Extrahepatic CPSSs occur mostly in small breeds but are occasionally seen in large breeds.

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8
Q

Some differences exist in feline patients, where PV disorders occur much less frequently; high blood ammonia levels can be caused by …………, ………….., and …………….deficiency, the last being an anomaly that develops in anorectic cats along with hepatic lipidosis. APSCs can develop as result of ………………or ……………..portal hypertension

A

Some differences exist in feline patients, where PV disorders occur much less frequently; high blood ammonia levels can be caused by CPSSs, APSCs, and arginine deficiency, the last being an anomaly that develops in anorectic cats along with hepatic lipidosis. APSCs can develop as result of intrahepatic or prehepatic portal hypertension

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9
Q

Intrahepatic portal hypertension is often the result of …………………………due to ……………..kidney and liver disease (PKD).
Among the extrahepatic CPSSs shunts, two are specific for cats: One originates slightly …………..to the portal bifurcation and enters the caudal vena cava (CVC) before the diaphragm; the other originates from the ………….mesenteric vein or from the PV in the same area, then the vessel runs caudally up to the trifurcation of the aorta, makes a 180-degree turn, and runs cranially to terminate in the left renal vein or in the CVC, caudal to the left kidney

A

Intrahepatic portal hypertension is often the result of congenital hepatic fibrosis due to polycystic kidney and liver disease (PKD).

Among the extrahepatic CPSSs shunts, two are specific for cats: One originates slightly caudal to the portal bifurcation and enters the caudal vena cava (CVC) before the diaphragm; the other originates from the cranial mesenteric vein or from the PV in the same area, then the vessel runs caudally up to the trifurcation of the aorta, makes a 180-degree turn, and runs cranially to terminate in the left renal vein or in the CVC, caudal to the left kidney

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10
Q

CIRCULATORY DISORDERS OF THE CANINE AND FELINE LIVER:
The function of the liver is highly dependent on adequate blood perfusion. Reduced perfusion may cause macroscopic and microscopic pathological anomalies in the liver resulting in clinical disease. A microscopic change that occurs rarely in dogs but more commonly in cats is ………………hepatis, defined as randomly distributed cystic blood-filled spaces in the liver, due to local obstruction of small branches of the PV that produce focal hepatic atrophy and sinusoidal dilatation or as a consequence of focal hepatocytic ………..(parenchymal type)

A

Peliosis hepatis, defined as randomly distributed cystic blood-filled spaces in the liver, due to local obstruction of small branches of the PV that produce focal hepatic atrophy and sinusoidal dilatation (phlebectatic type, or teleangiectasis) or as a consequence of focal hepatocytic necrosis (parenchymal type)

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11
Q

A reduced portal flow with consequent lack of nutrients and hepatotrophic factors in the blood leads to liver ……………… of the deprived segment. The remaining part of the liver normally develops compensatory ………….as a consequence of the increased hepatic blood flow.

A

A reduced portal flow with consequent lack of nutrients and hepatotrophic factors in the blood leads to liver atrophy of the deprived segment. The remaining part of the liver normally develops compensatory hypertrophy as a consequence of the increased hepatic blood flow.

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12
Q

Ischemic hepatic necrosis develops when the double blood supply (…… and ………) is compromised. A complete double obstruction leads to the …………of the liver, which is uncommon. Generalized centrolobular ischemic necrosis is a more common lesion that develops as a consequence of ………… shock or in acute …………. Focal ischemic necrosis is particularly associated with disseminated ……………… and focal ……………… obstruction of sinusoids

A

Ischemic hepatic necrosis develops when the double blood supply (PV and hepatic artery) is compromised. A complete double obstruction leads to the infarction of the liver, which is uncommon. Infarcts are normally localized on liver margins and appear as well-defined pale or dark red areas.[16] Generalized centrolobular ischemic necrosis is a more common lesion that develops as a consequence of cardiac shock or in acute anemia.[17] Focal ischemic necrosis is particularly associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation and focal thrombotic obstruction of sinusoids

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13
Q

Circulatory disorders of the liver can be grouped into three major categories: The first is CPSSs. The second is disorders associated with outflow disturbances affecting the ………., ………., or the hepatic ………….
The third type of disorder is associated with portal hypertension.

A

Circulatory disorders of the liver can be grouped into three major categories: The first is CPSSs, described above. The second is disorders associated with outflow disturbances affecting the heart, CVC, or the hepatic veins. The third type of disorder is associated with portal hypertension.

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14
Q

In dogs and cats, passive congestion of the liver is usually the consequence of?

A

Consequence of cardiac failure (cardiac anomalies, right-sided valvular insufficiency, myocardial damage, and cardiac tamponade), partial or complete obstruction (thrombosis, neoplasia, dirofilariasis), or
compression (neoplasia, inflammation) of the CVC downstream from the hepatic vein.

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15
Q

Passive congestion due to intrahepatic outflow disturbance is associated with obstruction of the………………. Thrombotic obstruction of the larger hepatic veins, as in human Budd-Chiari syndrome, has not been conclusively reported in dogs and cats; canine and feline cases are reported as Budd-Chiari–like syndrome and are associated with passive congestion caused by obstruction or compression of the ………. or perivascular fibrosis of the ……………….

A

Passive congestion due to intrahepatic outflow disturbance is associated with obstruction of the hepatic veins. Thrombotic obstruction of the larger hepatic veins, as in human Budd-Chiari syndrome, has not been conclusively reported in dogs and cats; canine and feline cases are reported as Budd-Chiari–like syndrome and are associated with passive congestion caused by obstruction or compression of the CVC or perivascular fibrosis of the intrahepatic veins.

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16
Q

The third type of disorder is associated with portal hypertension. It is often associated with ………and acquired ……………shunting with development of …………….. This is seen regularly in dogs but rarely in cats and may result from primary…………..disorders or primary …………..diseases.

A

The third type of disorder is associated with portal hypertension. It is often associated with ascites and acquired portosystemic shunting with development of collateral vessels. This is seen regularly in dogs but rarely in cats and may result from primary vascular disorders or primary hepatic diseases.

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17
Q

Primary vascular disorders are associated with the following?

A
  1. PV obstruction as it occurs in inflammation (peritonitis or pancreatitis), neoplasia, circumscribed fibrosis of the wall and constriction of the extrahepatic PV, or compression. PV obstruction may also occur in dogs after parasitic infestation.
  2. Primary hypoplasia of the PV is a congenital disorder occurring in dogs and rarely in cats. It appears with wide variation in clinical severity and morphology, depending on the degree of hypoplasia, consequent APSC circulation, and loss of hepatocellular function. The diagnosis is based on histologic examination of liver biopsy and ultrasound findings excluding the presence of a CPSS.
  3. Intrahepatic arteriovenous fistulas are a primary vascular disorder that may develop in young dogs and cats, supposedly a congenital anomaly consisting of communications between the hepatic artery and PV radicals that induce a retrograde flow in the PV and lead to portal hypertension.
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18
Q

Primary Hepatic Disease:
Chronic liver disease—such as macronodular and micronodular cirrhosis, lobular dissecting hepatitis, and biliary fibrosis—in the dog usually leads to ………………….., whereas in cats …………………. is particularly associated with chronic biliary inflammatory disease associated with marked biliary fibrosis.

Other vascular disorders include thrombophlebitis of the PV and periarteritis nodosa

A

Chronic liver disease—such as macronodular and micronodular cirrhosis, lobular dissecting hepatitis, and biliary fibrosis—in the dog usually leads to portal hypertension, whereas in cats portal hypertension is particularly associated with chronic biliary inflammatory disease associated with marked biliary fibrosis.

Other vascular disorders include thrombophlebitis of the PV and periarteritis nodosa

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19
Q

MORPHOLOGIC CLASSIFICATION OF BILIARY DISORDERS OF THE CANINE AND FELINE LIVER.

The biliary disorders can be grouped into four major categories:

A
  1. Biliary cystic diseases and biliary atresia, including solitary cysts and congenital cystic disease of the liver, with the following proposed terminologies. There also may be biliary atresia.
  2. Cholestasis and cholate-stasis, including (I) cholestasis (bilirubinostasis),[33] (II) intrahepatic cholestasis, (III) extrahepatic cholestasis and (IV) cholate-stasis (rare in dogs).
  3. Cholangitis, classified as (I) neutrophilic cholangitis, usually from ascending bacterial infection, (II) lymphocytic cholangitis in cats, (III) destructive cholangitis,[39] and (IV) chronic cholangitis associated with liver fluke infection.
  4. Diseases of the gall bladder, including (I) cystic mucinous hyperplasia (mucocele), (II) cholecystitis (neutrophylic, lymphoplasmacellular, and follicular), and (III) infarction of the gall bladder
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20
Q

MORPHOLOGIC CLASSIFICATION OF THE PARENCHYMAL DISORDERS OF THE CANINE AND FELINE LIVER

Reversible hepatocytic injuries include hepatocellular …………., feathery …………, steroid-induced …………, and hepatocellular ………….(syn. lipidosis).

A

Reversible hepatocytic injuries include hepatocellular swelling, feathery degeneration, steroid-induced hepatopathy, and hepatocellular steatosis (syn. lipidosis).[16]

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21
Q

Hepatic amyloidosis results from deposition of ……………………….and is commonly associated with inflammatory conditions in other organ systems.

A

Hepatic amyloidosis results from deposition of reactive amyloid (serum amyloid–associated [SAA] protein) and is commonly associated with inflammatory conditions in other organ systems.

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22
Q

Hepatocyte death resulting from various insults, apoptosis (shrunken, intensely eosinophilic cells with condensed nuclei surrounded by an empty halo), or necrosis.

Necrosis may be described as cytoplasmatic ……and loss of ………..of the cell membrane and may result in coagulative necrosis or liquefactive (lytic) necrosis. Necrosis is classified as ………or …………, confluent or bridging, massive, and piecemeal (recently termed interface hepatitis).

A

Hepatocyte death resulting from various insults, apoptosis (shrunken, intensely eosinophilic cells with condensed nuclei surrounded by an empty halo), or necrosis.

Recent evidence suggests some overlap between processes.

Necrosis may be described as cytoplasmatic swelling and loss of integrity of the cell membrane and may result in coagulative necrosis or liquefactive (lytic) necrosis. Necrosis is classified as focal or multifocal, confluent or bridging, massive, and piecemeal
A considerable controversy exists about the preferred nomenclature in cases of acute hepatic necrosis in noninfectious, particularly toxic, or ischemic insults (recently termed interface hepatitis).

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23
Q

The term chronic hepatitis, which is used irrespective of the cause and is characterized by the presence of …………, …………, ………….., and ………………

A

The term chronic hepatitis, which is used irrespective of the cause and is characterized by the presence of fibrosis, inflammation, hepatocellular apoptosis, and necrosis.

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24
Q

As a general concept, acute hepatitis is characterized morphologically by a combination of ……………., hepatocellular …………. and …………., and in some instances …………… The lesions are usually sufficiently diffuse within the liver.

A

As a general concept, acute hepatitis is characterized morphologically by a combination of inflammation, hepatocellular apoptosis and necrosis, and in some instances regeneration. The lesions are usually sufficiently diffuse within the liver.

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25
Chronic hepatitis is characterized by?
Chronic hepatitis is characterized by hepatocellular apoptosis or necrosis, a variable mononuclear or mixed inflammatory infiltrate, regeneration, and fibrosis. The proportion and distribution of these components vary widely, and it is necessary to include in the diagnosis the activity (determined by the quantity of inflammation and extent of hepatocellular apoptosis and necrosis) and the stage of the disease (determined by the extent and pattern of fibrosis and the possible presence of architectural distortion) as well as the possible etiology.
26
Toxic liver injury may develop after direct impact with the hepatocytes or after metabolic .............. by the liver from ...........................
Toxic liver injury may develop after direct impact with the hepatocytes or after metabolic transformation by the liver from nontoxic substances to toxic metabolites. Toxins are often plant and fungal products, drugs, or chemicals, and they may cause a predictable dose-dependent injury or an idiosyncratic non–dose-dependent reaction in a minority of exposed animals. Toxic hepatic injury varies considerably with the type of reaction, dose, and duration of exposure to the toxin and includes no morphological abnormalities (biochemical only), hepatocellular swelling, steatosis and necrosis, cholestasis, inflammation and fibrosis.
27
Hepatic abscesses are usually caused by ............... reaching the liver by several routes, as portal umbilical veins (particularly seen in newborn animals), ascending infection of the biliary system, and by direct contact and penetration of the liver capsule; in adult animals the infection may be caused by ............spp., ................, and ............. spp. Hepatic abscesses may develop in association with central ........... of hepatocellular ............
Hepatic abscesses are usually caused by bacterial infections reaching the liver by several routes, as portal umbilical veins (particularly seen in newborn animals), ascending infection of the biliary system, and by direct contact and penetration of the liver capsule; in adult animals the infection may be caused by Yersinia spp., Nocardia asteroides, and Actinomyces spp. Hepatic abscesses may develop in association with central necrosis of hepatocellular neoplasms.
28
Hepatic granulomas may occur in both primary liver disease or in generalized disease. They consist of multifocal aggregation of activated .................., mostly infiltrated by lymphocytes and plasma cells, and fibroblasts, and they may be surrounded by .............. fibers. Infectious causes for hepatic granulomas in dogs and cats include ................infection, systemic ................, opportunistic ...........infections, migrating .................... larvae, and schistosomiasis. In dogs, diffuse granulomatous inflammation of the liver may be also caused by ..........infection and ............ spp. In cats it may be caused by Cytauxzoon felis infection.
Hepatic granulomas may occur in both primary liver disease or in generalized disease. They consist of multifocal aggregation of activated macrophages, mostly infiltrated by lymphocytes and plasma cells, and fibroblasts, and they may be surrounded by collagen fibers. Infectious causes for hepatic granulomas in dogs and cats include mycobacterial infection, systemic mycoses, opportunistic fungal infections, migrating nematode larvae, and schistosomiasis. In dogs, diffuse granulomatous inflammation of the liver may be also caused by Leishmania infection and Bartonella spp. in cats it may be caused by Cytauxzoon felis infection.
29
Hepatic metabolic storage disorders, usually associated with inherited but sometimes acquired ..................... deficiencies, can vary in morphologic appearance. Most commonly it occurs with findings of clear ................, vacuoles with ........... or .............material, or ................. granules in hepatocytes and/or Kupffer cells and macrophages. Administration of some ...........(e.g., griseofulvin) may induce an acquired storage disease known as erythropoietic protoporphyria.
Hepatic metabolic storage disorders, usually associated with inherited but sometimes acquired metabolic enzyme deficiencies, can vary in morphologic appearance. Most commonly it occurs with findings of clear vacuoles, vacuoles with granular or hyaline material, or pigmented granules in hepatocytes and/or Kupffer cells and macrophages. Administration of some xenobiotics (e.g., griseofulvin) may induce an acquired storage disease known as erythropoietic protoporphyria.
30
MORPHOLOGIC CLASSIFICATION OF NEOPLASTIC DISORDERS OF THE CANINE AND FELINE LIVER[55] Neoplastic disorders of the liver in dogs and cats can be classified as follows:?
1. Hepatocellular neoplasia: (I) nodular hyperplasia (as distinguished from regenerative nodules seen in macronodular cirrhosis of the liver) (II) hepatocellular adenoma and (III) hepatocellular carcinoma 2.Cholangiocellular neoplasia: (I) cholangiocellular adenoma (II) cholangiocellular carcinoma (biliary carcinoma), and (III) mixed hepatocellular and cholangiocellular carcinomas. 3. Hepatic carcinoids (and hepatoblastoma): Hepatic carcinoids are thought to originate from preexisiting neuroendocrine cells in the epithelium. 4. Primary vascular and mesenchymal neoplasia includes hemangiosarcoma, lymphangioma, lymphangiosarcoma, fibrosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, malignant mesenchymoma, osteosarcoma, and rhabdomyosarcoma. Except for hemangiosarcoma, these are extremely rare in dogs and cats.
31
The liver plays a central role in a diverse array of processes including?
carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism; detoxification of metabolites and xenobiotics; storage of vitamins, trace metals, fat, and glycogen; fat digestion; and immunoregulation. The clinical signs, physical findings, and clinicopathologic abnormalities that accompany hepatic disease reflect deficiencies in these varied functions. The liver, however, has a tremendous reserve capacity to perform these functions. Thus the appearance of relatively specific signs of hepatobiliary disease such as icterus, hypoglycemia, bleeding tendencies, hepatic encephalopathy (HE), or ascites, which reflect exhaustion of the liver's functional reserves, occurs late in disease progression
32
Early clinical signs of hepatic disease—such as intermittent ........, ..........., ............, and ..............—are also common with disease in other organ systems.
Early clinical signs of hepatic disease—such as intermittent anorexia, polyuria/polydipsia (PU/PD), vomiting, and lethargy—are also common with disease in other organ systems.
33
Although most early signs of liver disease are nonspecific, there are several clues that should raise awareness as to the presence of hepatobiliary disease. These include?
Strong breed predispositions and the occurrence of several recognizable clinical syndromes that accompany hepatobiliary disease, including gastrointestinal ulceration, hepatic encepalopathy, tissue jaundice, coagulopathies, and ascites
34
Historical findings that suggest the presence of hepatobiliary disease include?
Recent ingestion of a known hepatotoxic substance or treatment with a potentially hepatotoxic drug. Stunted growth, prolonged response to anesthesia, or drug intolerance in a young animal, particularly in a predisposed breed, suggests the presence of a PSVA. A recently stressed obese cat that becomes anorexic is a classic history for a cat with idiopathic hepatic lipidosis.
35
The clinical signs associated with hepatobiliary disease are typically referable to 4 systems. Which ones?
The gastrointestinal, renal, neurologic, and/or hematopoietic systems. In addition, a rare dermatological syndrome, called superficial necrolytic dermatitis, marked by ulcerative crusting dermatitis of the face and distal extremities, accompanies a unique form of chronic liver disease in dogs and cats known as hepatocutaneous syndrome
36
Chronic hepatic disease predisposes dogs to gastroduodenal ulceration, so a myriad of clinical signs referable to ulcer disease, such as .............................(3) should prompt consideration of an underlying hepatopathy
Hematemesis, abdominal pain, and/or melena.
37
HE is a neurological condition associated with failure of the liver to .................. inhibitory neurotoxins generated in the ................The clinical signs are those of diffuse ................disease. HE is most often seen with .......... or with hepatopathies associated with ......................but may also accompany acute fulminant hepatic failure.
HE is a neurological condition associated with failure of the liver to detoxify inhibitory neurotoxins generated in the intestinal tract. The clinical signs are those of diffuse cerebral disease. HE is most often seen with PSVA or with hepatopathies associated with acquired portosystemic shunts but may also accompany acute fulminant hepatic failure.
38
In acute failure the neurological signs of HE can be confused with those associated with ................, which commonly accompanies severe acute hepatic failure. ..................., an ominous consequence of fulminant hepatic failure, can also cause neurological signs mimicking HE. The signs include?
In acute failure the neurological signs of HE can be confused with those associated with hypoglycemia, which commonly accompanies severe acute hepatic failure. Cerebral edema, an ominous consequence of fulminant hepatic failure, can also cause neurological signs mimicking HE. The signs include disorientation, stupor, and coma, and a neuroexcitatory component to the neurological findings may be observed.
39
One of several important differential diagnoses for the presence of abdominal fluid accumulation is hepatobiliary disease. Ascites may accompany ............ or .................hepatobiliary neoplasia, or it can signal the presence of ................. from rupture of the gallbladder or biliary tract. ....................due to increased portal venous blood flow or increased resistance to portal blood flow can lead to ascites.
One of several important differential diagnoses for the presence of abdominal fluid accumulation is hepatobiliary disease. Ascites may accompany primary or metastatic hepatobiliary neoplasia, or it can signal the presence of bile peritonitis from rupture of the gallbladder or biliary tract. Portal hypertension (PH) due to increased portal venous blood flow or increased resistance to portal blood flow can lead to ascites.
40
PH can be ............... (obstruction of the portal vein or its branches prior to entering the liver), ................. (obstruction of microscopic portal vein tributaries, sinusoids, or small hepatic veins) or .................... (obstruction within hepatic veins, cranial vena cava, or right atrium). In chronic inflammatory/fibrotic liver disease, intrahepatic PH may develop from capillarization of the hepatic ............endothelium.
PH can be prehepatic (obstruction of the portal vein or its branches prior to entering the liver), intrahepatic (obstruction of microscopic portal vein tributaries, sinusoids, or small hepatic veins) or posthepatic (obstruction within hepatic veins, cranial vena cava, or right atrium). In chronic inflammatory/fibrotic liver disease, intrahepatic PH may develop from capillarization of the hepatic sinusoidal endothelium.
41
A highly variable, but often predominant, early clinical sign in dogs or cats with chronic hepatobiliary disease or PSVA is PU/PD. The mechanism for the polyuria and/or polydipsia is unknown, but the following have been hypothesized:
(1) psychogenic polydipsia (2) alterations in portal vein osmoreceptors (3) decreased hepatic urea production, resulting in disruption of the renal medullary concentration gradient (4) potassium depletion (5) stimulation of thirst centers due to HE (6) increased endogenous cortisol levels associated with increased adrenal production or decreased hepatic degradation.
42
Pets with hepatobiliary disease may have signs referable to ammonium biurate urolithiasis, such as stranguria, pollakiuria, or hematuria. Ammonia biurate stones form due to chronic .............and hepatic processing of .....................
Ammonia biurate stones form due to chronic hyperammonemia and hepatic processing of uric acid.
43
The most significant physical finding that should prompt a consideration of hepatobiliary disease is icterus, a yellow discoloration of mucous membranes associated with accumulation of .............
The most significant physical finding that should prompt a consideration of hepatobiliary disease is icterus, a yellow discoloration of mucous membranes associated with accumulation of bilirubin. Pale mucous membranes, abdominal enlargement due to ascites or hepatomegaly, and poor body-condition score might be other findings on physical examination of animals with hepatobiliary disease.
44
Pathophysiology of Common Clinical Signs and Physical Examination Findings in Hepatobiliary Disease (se Table • 274-1 ) Vomiting: why?
Direct stimulation of chemoreceptor trigger zone Gastroduodenal ulceration Concurrent intestinal inflammatory disease
45
Acholic feces: why?
Extrahepatic bile duct obstruction
46
Melena. Why?
Gastroduodenal ulceration Coagulopathy
47
Bilirubinuria. Why?
Hyperbilirubinemia
48
Ascites: Why?
Portal hypertension Avid renal sodium and water retention Hypoalbuminemia
49
Anemia. Why?
Blood loss from coagulopathy or GI bleeding Anemia of chronic disease
50
Evaluation of serum values of hepatobiliary enzymes—such as alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT)—are used to screen for hepatobiliary disease. Consistent increases in serum enzyme concentrations occur following hepatobiliary injury. Although these serum enzymes have a high sensitivity for the detection of hepatobiliary disease, their interpretation is hampered by lack of specificity for hepatobiliary disease. The central role that the liver has in drug metabolism, its high blood flow, and its anatomical juxtaposition between the gastrointestinal tract and the systemic circulation make it uniquely sensitive to secondary injury. Thus there are several clinical conditions in which liver enzymes may be increased but in which clinically significant hepatobiliary disease may not be present
Evaluation of serum values of hepatobiliary enzymes—such as alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT)—are used to screen for hepatobiliary disease. Consistent increases in serum enzyme concentrations occur following hepatobiliary injury. Although these serum enzymes have a high sensitivity for the detection of hepatobiliary disease, their interpretation is hampered by lack of specificity for hepatobiliary disease. The central role that the liver has in drug metabolism, its high blood flow, and its anatomical juxtaposition between the gastrointestinal tract and the systemic circulation make it uniquely sensitive to secondary injury. Thus there are several clinical conditions in which liver enzymes may be increased but in which clinically significant hepatobiliary disease may not be present
51
Is the magnitude of serum enzyme elevation usually proportional to the severity of active hepatobiliary damage? Is the degree of elevation predictive of hepatobiliary functional capacity?
Although the magnitude of serum enzyme elevation is usually proportional to the severity of active hepatobiliary damage, the degree of elevation is not predictive of hepatobiliary functional capacity. Marked increases in serum enzymes may indicate substantial hepatobiliary injury, but the liver has tremendous regenerative capacity. Thus enzyme values do not indicate prognosis.
52
In severe, end-stage chronic liver disease, serum enzymes may be normal or only mildly increased, because replacement of hepatocytes by fibrosis and/or prolonged enzyme leakage
In severe, end-stage chronic liver disease, serum enzymes may be normal or only mildly increased, because replacement of hepatocytes by fibrosis and/or prolonged enzyme leakage can deplete total liver enzyme content.
53
Exposure to some ..................... such as .......... and .................., may not be associated with elevation in serum transaminase values due to ....................................of enzyme gene transcription and/or biosynthesis.
Exposure to some hepatotoxins, such as aflatoxin and microcystin, may not be associated with elevation in serum transaminase values due to toxin-associated inhibition of enzyme gene transcription and/or biosynthesis. Thus a single serum enzyme determination should never be used to establish a prognosis. The prognostic value of serum enzymology is improved by following sequential serum enzyme determinations, especially in conjunction with a hepatic function test or hepatic biopsy.
54
ALT is a liver-specific cytosolic enzyme. The largest increases in serum ALT, a ........... enzyme, are seen with hepatocellular ........... and .................. The magnitude of ALT elevation is roughly proportional to the number of injured hepatocytes.
ALT is a liver-specific cytosolic enzyme. The largest increases in serum ALT, a leakage enzyme, are seen with hepatocellular necrosis and inflammation. The magnitude of ALT elevation is roughly proportional to the number of injured hepatocytes.
55
The serum half-life in dogs is around ........ days. ALT. In dogs, serum ALT may also increase with ......................?
The serum half-life in dogs is around 2.5 days. There are no published values for the half-life of feline ALT. In an acute insult, the finding of a 50% decrease in sequential serum ALT determinations over the course of the enzyme's half-life is considered a good prognostic sign. In dogs, serum ALT may also increase with severe muscle necrosis.
56
Serum ......... is more sensitive than serum ALT in the detection of hepatobiliary disease, although it is considerably less specific, because significant amounts of AST are also contained in ............. In instances where serum AST is much higher than serum ALT, a ............ source should be explored. Alternatively, since AST is present within the ..............as well as the cytosol, an elevated AST/ALT ratio may be indicative of acute severe irreversible injury.
Serum AST is more sensitive than serum ALT in the detection of hepatobiliary disease, although it is considerably less specific, because significant amounts of AST are also contained in muscle. In instances where serum AST is much higher than serum ALT, a muscle source should be explored. Alternatively, since AST is present within the mitochondria as well as the cytosol, an elevated AST/ALT ratio may be indicative of acute severe irreversible injury.
57
Although serum ALP elevation is a sensitive indicator of hepatobiliary disease, its low specificity for liver disease confuses the interpretation of elevations. ALP's low specificity is associated with the presence of several .............. and its unique sensitivity to ........induction.
ALP's low specificity is associated with the presence of several isoenzymes and its unique sensitivity to drug induction.
58
Isoenzymes of ALP are present in? (5)
The liver, kidney, intestine, bone, and placenta.
59
Do all the ALP isoenzymes contribute to serum ALP?
The intestinal, kidney, and placental isoenzymes do not contribute to serum ALP due to their short half-life. An exception is in late-term feline pregnancy, where the placental ALP isoenzyme represents a significant source of the serum enzyme.
60
The bone isoenzyme B-ALP contributes about one third of total serum ALP. Which conditions can increase serum B-ALP?
Increased osteoblastic activity associated with growing bones in young animals or with pathologic conditions, such as osteomyelitis or osteosarcoma, can increase serum B-ALP. These conditions typically cause mild increases in the total serum ALP.
61
Two liver isoenzymes contribute to the serum ALP in dogs: Which ones? What about cats?
A liver isoenzyme (L-ALP) and a corticosteroid-induced isoenzyme (C-ALP). In cats, there is only a liver isoenzyme.
62
In the dog and cat, L-ALP is a ........... -.......... enzyme found on hepatocyte canalicular ........and ..........surfaces of biliary epithelial cells.
In the dog and cat, L-ALP is a membrane-bound enzyme found on hepatocyte canalicular membranes and luminal surfaces of biliary epithelial cells.
63
Canine C-ALP is a ...................form of the isoenzyme produced by hepatocytes and is also located on the hepatocyte canalicular ..................
Canine C-ALP is a hyperglycosylated form of the isoenzyme produced by hepatocytes and is also located on the hepatocyte canalicular membrane.
64
The serum half-life of both L-ALP and C-ALP in the dog is ....... hours. The half-life of the cat liver isoenzyme is only ...... hours.
The serum half-life of both L-ALP and C-ALP in the dog is 70 hours. The half-life of the cat liver isoenzyme is only 6 hours.
65
Increases in serum ALP in the dog and cat are the result of increased ............. synthesis and/or ................... of the enzyme from cellular membranes.
Increases in serum ALP in the dog and cat are the result of increased de novo synthesis and/or elution of the enzyme from cellular membranes.
66
Exposure of dogs to excess endogenous or exogenous corticosteroids increases serum ALP. Serum ALP elevation in corticosteroid-treated dogs is accompanied by changes in hepatic morphology, which include a ......................... of hepatocytes and development of intracytoplasmic hepatic ...............due to................ accumulation.
Exposure of dogs to excess endogenous or exogenous corticosteroids increases serum ALP.[28],[29]. Serum ALP elevation in corticosteroid-treated dogs is accompanied by changes in hepatic morphology, which include a ballooning enlargement of hepatocytes and development of intracytoplasmic hepatic vacuolation due to glycogen accumulation. In some studies, focal areas of hepatocyte necrosis have been described. In dogs treated with prednisone, these morphologic changes begin by day two and gradually progress in severity as corticosteroid treatment continues. A similar vacuolar hepatopathy can develop in dogs in the absence of exposure to exogenous or endogenous cortisol, presumably due to low-grade cortisol excess from chronic illness.
67
Chronic corticosteroid exposure due to ............or ...................... hypercortisolism from parenteral, oral, or topical corticosteroid administration is consistently associated with increases in C-ALP. Serum C-ALP also increases in chronically ill animals, apparently from long-term ..............cortisol excess. While highly sensitive for the detection of exposure to corticosteroids, the specificity of isoenzyme analysis is very low, and many dogs with ............... disease also have increases in serum C-ALP
Chronic corticosteroid exposure due to hyperadrenocorticism or iatrogenic hypercortisolism from parenteral, oral, or topical corticosteroid administration is consistently associated with increases in C-ALP. Serum C-ALP also increases in chronically ill animals, apparently from long-term endogenous cortisol excess. While highly sensitive for the detection of exposure to corticosteroids, the specificity of isoenzyme analysis is very low, and many dogs with hepatobiliary disease also have increases in serum C-ALP
68
In dogs, does corticosteroids increase serum ALT? What about AST?
In dogs, corticosteroids increase serum ALT. In most dogs, drug induction results in mild (fourfold) increases in ALT; but in some individuals, increases approach those seen with acute hepatocellular injury. Whether these larger elevations in serum ALT activity represent enzyme induction or are reflective of possible corticosteroid hepatotoxicity is still unclear. Serum AST is marginally affected by corticosteroids.
69
Phenobarbital treatment in dogs induces mild (twofold to sixfold) increases in serum ALP. L-ALP or C-ALP?
Phenobarbital may induce either L-ALP and/or C-ALP. Interpretation of serum ALP elevations in dogs on phenobarbital is complicated by the fact that this drug is a hepatotoxin. Overall, the existing literature supports the observation that mild to moderate increases in ALP (up to five times the upper limit of normal) and ALT (up to two times the upper limit of normal) may reflect enzyme induction. However, increases in GGT and AST are seldom due to induction and may be suggestive of primary liver disease.
70
Since feline ALP is not susceptible to drug induction, elevations in serum ALP are more specific for feline hepatobiliary disease. However, why is the magnitude of serum ALP elevations in feline hepatobiliary diseasenot as great as those in dogs?
The magnitude of serum ALP elevations in feline hepatobiliary disease are not as great as those in dogs due to the short half-life of feline ALP, and because feline hepatic stores of ALP are less than in dogs. Thus feline serum ALP is a less sensitive indicator of hepatic disease than serum ALP in dogs.
71
Clinically, the largest increases in feline ALP are seen in?
Hepatobiliary conditions associated with intrahepatic or extrahepatic cholestasis.
72
GGT is present in many tissues, although serum GGT concentrations are primarily derived from the ........ Hepatic GGT is located on the hepatocyte canalicular ............
GGT is present in many tissues, although serum GGT concentrations are primarily derived from the liver. Hepatic GGT is located on the hepatocyte canalicular membrane.
73
Serum elevations in GGT are most common with ............. disorders and are associated with increased .............. as well as membrane ......... In dogs, moderate to marked increases in GGT are seen with intrahepatic and extrahepatic cholestasis, while mild elevations are seen with acute hepatocellular injury.
Serum elevations in GGT are most common with cholestatic disorders and are associated with increased de novo synthesis as well as membrane elution. In dogs, moderate to marked increases in GGT are seen with intrahepatic and extrahepatic cholestasis, while mild elevations are seen with acute hepatocellular injury.
74
PLASMA PROTEINS IN HEPATIC DISEASE: The liver synthesizes many plasma proteins and detoxifies ammonia, the major by product of protein metabolism. The clinical consequence of disruptions in hepatic protein metabolism is?
Hypoalbuminemia, which may decrease plasma oncotic pressure. Bleeding tendencies may be associated with coagulation protein deficiencies HE can be the result of ammonia retention.
75
Albumin: where is albumin synthesized?
The liver is the exclusive site of albumin synthesis.
76
Why is serum hypoalbuminemia most often seen in chronic hepatic disorders, such as cirrhosis and PSVA?
Because synthesis occurs at 33% of maximum capacity, and the serum half-life of albumin is 8 to 9 days, serum hypoalbuminemia is most often seen in chronic hepatic disorders, such as cirrhosis and PSVA.
77
In cirrhotic dogs, serum hypoalbuminemia, ........., and avid ......... and water retention lead to the development of ascites. In ascitic animals, serum hypoalbuminemia may reflect both .........-part sequestration of albumin in the abdominal fluid as well as hepatic ..........
In cirrhotic dogs, serum hypoalbuminemia, PH, and avid sodium and water retention lead to the development of ascites. In ascitic animals, serum hypoalbuminemia may reflect both third-part sequestration of albumin in the abdominal fluid as well as hepatic synthetic failure.
78
Hypoalbuminemia is not specific for hepatic disease and may occur with......?
Protein-losing enteropathies protein-losing nephropathies exudative cutaneous lesions vasculitis, acute blood loss. Inadequate nutrition can curtail hepatic albumin synthesis. Because albumin is a negative acute-phase reactant, systemic inflammatory disease may shut down hepatic albumin synthesis.
79
Globulins: The serum globulin fraction is composed of ............ and ................ Because the liver synthesizes many of the .................., including α-globulins and β-globulins, hepatic synthetic failure can be accompanied by hypoglobulinemia. However, since many .................. are acute-phase reactants whose hepatic production is increased in response to systemic inflammatory disease, early chronic inflammatory liver disease may be accompanied by .......................
Globulins The serum globulin fraction is composed of immunoglobulins and nonimmunoglobulins. Because the liver synthesizes many of the nonimmunoglobulins, including α-globulins and β-globulins, hepatic synthetic failure can be accompanied by hypoglobulinemia. However, since many nonimmunogloblins are acute-phase reactants whose hepatic production is increased in response to systemic inflammatory disease, early chronic inflammatory liver disease may be accompanied by hyperglobulinemia.
80
Immunoglobulins are not synthesized in the liver but may be increased in chronic inflammatory hepatic disease. A polyclonal increase in ......-globulins has been documented in chronic canine hepatic disease and is seen in 50% of cats with chronic cholangiohepatitis.
Immunoglobulins are not synthesized in the liver but may be increased in chronic inflammatory hepatic disease. A polyclonal increase in γ-globulins has been documented in chronic canine hepatic disease and is seen in 50% of cats with chronic cholangiohepatitis.
81
Hypergammaglobulinemia in chronic liver disease may be associated with enhanced systemic immunoreactivity due to abnormal Kupffer cell processing of portal ............ or secondary to ...........production.
Hypergammaglobulinemia in chronic liver disease may be associated with enhanced systemic immunoreactivity due to abnormal Kupffer cell processing of portal antigens or secondary to autoantibody production.
82
Coagulation Proteins: The liver has a vital role in hemostasis. Hepatocytes synthesize all coagulation factors, except factor ...... as well as being critical inhibitors of coagulation and fibrinolysis (..................., ...........) and fibrinolytic proteins (..............).
Coagulation Proteins The liver has a vital role in hemostasis. Hepatocytes synthesize all coagulation factors, except factor VIII, as well as being critical inhibitors of coagulation and fibrinolysis (antithrombin III, antiplasmin) and fibrinolytic proteins (plasminogen).
83
The liver is also responsible for clearance and catabolism of activated coagulation factors, plasminogen activators, and breakdown products of fibrinolysis, such as .......... (.......).
The liver is also responsible for clearance and catabolism of activated coagulation factors, plasminogen activators, and breakdown products of fibrinolysis, such as fibrin degradation products (FDP).
84
The liver is also the site of vitamin K–dependent activation of factors:
II, VII, IX, X, and protein C.
85
Assessment of coagulation status is important in liver disease, because altered hemostasis can contribute to clinical manifestations of hepatic disease and can complicate invasive diagnostic procedures. The complexity and overlap of the liver's synthetic and clearance functions, however, make interpretation of hemostatic testing difficult. Commonly used tests to assess coagulation include:
The prothrombin time (PT), activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), fibrinogen, and FDPs.
86
Abnormalities in these coagulation test results may be indicative of ?
Hepatic synthetic failure Vitamin K deficiency The presence of a consumption coagulopathy, such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
87
Since more than ......% depletion of any factor must be present to show prolongation of coagulation times, it is not surprising that many more dogs had abnormalities in the concentration of coagulation factors than had prolongation of PT or PTT.
Since more than 70% depletion of any factor must be present to show prolongation of coagulation times, it is not surprising that many more dogs had abnormalities in the concentration of coagulation factors than had prolongation of PT or PTT.
88
Prolongation of ...... is the first coagulation abnormality seen with vitamin K deficiency, because factor ...... has the shortest plasma half-life. Vitamin K is a cofactor in the carboxylation and resultant activation of factors II, VII, XI, X, and protein C.
Prolongation of PT is the first coagulation abnormality seen with vitamin K deficiency, because factor VII has the shortest plasma half-life. Vitamin K is a cofactor in the carboxylation and resultant activation of factors II, VII, XI, X, and protein C.
89
When prolongation of PT followed by response to parenteral vitamin K supplementation (which usually occurs within 24 to 48 hours) is used to diagnosis vitamin K deficiency, from ....% to ....% of cats with naturally occurring hepatobiliary disease have vitamin K deficiency.
When prolongation of PT followed by response to parenteral vitamin K supplementation (which usually occurs within 24 to 48 hours) is used to diagnosis vitamin K deficiency, from 50% to 75% of cats with naturally occurring hepatobiliary disease have vitamin K deficiency.[44]
90
Vitamin K deficiency in hepatobiliary disease develops for several reasons. Such as?
Chronic bile duct obstruction interrupts the enterohepatic circulation of bile acids, resulting in intestinal bile acid deficiency that in turn causes malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamin K. Oral antibiotics alter the normal intestinal bacterial flora, resulting in the destruction of vitamin K–generating bacteria. Inadequate dietary consumption of vitamin K, although rarely a primary cause of vitamin K deficiency, may be contributory, especially in disorders that cause prolonged anorexia, such as feline idiopathic hepatic lipidosis.
91
Is spontaneous hemorrhage in animals with hepatic disease commonly seen?
Despite the presence of abnormalities in coagulation tests, spontaneous hemorrhage in animals with hepatic disease is rare. This may be due to concurrent abnormalities in the anticoagulant system, including a failure of hepatic synthesis of antithrombin or plasmin.
92
Due to the liver's central role in both coagulation and fibrinolysis, it can be quite challenging to differentiate whether coagulation abnormalities are associated with DIC or severe liver disease. Typically DIC is recognized by?
Prolongation of PT, PTT, decreased fibrinogen, thrombocytopenia, and increased FDPs, all of which may accompany hepatic failure or vitamin K deficiency.
93
How is fibrinogen affected by liver disease? Why?
Early in liver disease, fibrinogen concentrations may be normal to increased (fibrinogen is an acute-phase reactant); but as hepatic function deteriorates, fibrinogen levels typically decrease due to a decrease in synthesis.
94
Why does FDPs increase in liver disease affected patients?
Increases in FDPs may represent impaired hepatic clearance of FDPs.
95
Protein C is a vitamin K–activated anticoagulation factor synthesized by the liver. How is the conc affected ij dogs with hepatobiliary disease?
Low protein C activity has been documented in dogs with hepatobiliary disease.[47]
96
Platelets affected by liver disease?
Both quantitative and qualitative platelet defects accompany hepatobiliary disease. Many dogs with chronic hepatitis have mild thrombocytopenia (120,000 to 150,000). The reason for thrombocytopenia is unknown, and it is rare in cats with hepatobiliary disease unless DIC is present. Dogs with hepatobiliary disease have qualitative defects in platelet aggregation.
97
BLOOD AMMONIA: The liver is responsible for detoxifying ammonia, which is generated primarily in the gastrointestinal tract through bacterial degradation of ............., .............., and ............; by the action of bacterial ............ on urea; and by intestinal catabolism of .......................
The liver is responsible for detoxifying ammonia, which is generated primarily in the gastrointestinal tract through bacterial degradation of amines, amino acids, and purines; by the action of bacterial urease on urea; and by intestinal catabolism of glutamine.
98
Ammonia readily diffuses through the intestinal mucosa and into the portal circulation, where it travels to the liver. What happens after uptake by hepatocytes?
Ammonia is detoxified either by enzymatic conversion to urea in the mitochondrial urea cycle or by consumption in the synthesis of glutamine. Urea is then normally excreted by the kidneys. Ammonia, which escapes hepatic metabolism, enters the systemic circulation where other tissues—including the kidney, muscle, brain, and intestines—detoxify it by the formation of glutamine.
99
Hepatic synthetic failure or shunting of portal blood away from the liver may result in .............. Because the urea cycle typically operates at only .......% capacity, hepatic synthetic failure must be fairly advanced for blood ammonia concentrations to rise. And because shunting of portal blood directly deposits ammonia in the systemic circulation, blood ammonia concentrations are more sensitive in detection of this disorder.
Hepatic synthetic failure or shunting of portal blood away from the liver may result in hyperammonemia. Because the urea cycle typically operates at only 60% capacity, hepatic synthetic failure must be fairly advanced for blood ammonia concentrations to rise. And because shunting of portal blood directly deposits ammonia in the systemic circulation, blood ammonia concentrations are more sensitive in detection of this disorder.
100
Elevated fasting blood ammonia levels have a sensitivity of .......% and.......% for detection of congenital or acquired PSVA in dogs with a high overall specificity (89%). Fasting hyperammonemia occurs less often with chronic parenchymal disease, being abnormal in about half of dogs with chronic hepatitis. Hyperammonemia also occurs in animals with urea-cycle enzyme deficiencies and pathologic conditions that result in decreased availability of urea-cycle substrates.
Elevated fasting blood ammonia levels have a sensitivity of 100% and 86% for detection of congenital or acquired PSVA in dogs with a high overall specificity (89%). Fasting hyperammonemia occurs less often with chronic parenchymal disease, being abnormal in about half of dogs with chronic hepatitis. Hyperammonemia also occurs in animals with urea-cycle enzyme deficiencies and pathologic conditions that result in decreased availability of urea-cycle substrates.
101
Decreases in BUN are thought to arise secondary to decreased ............ production in the atrophied liver. Is decreased BUN specific for liver disease?
Decreases in BUN are thought to arise secondary to decreased urea production in the atrophied liver. Decreased BUN is not specific for liver disease, because it can be influenced by hydration status, dietary protein content, gastrointestinal hemorrhage, glomerular filtration rate, and fluid or solute diuresis.
102
Bilirubin is a yellow pigment formed in the .............................by the enzymatic processing of ..........
Bilirubin is a yellow pigment formed in the reticuloendothelial cell system (RES) by the enzymatic processing of heme.
103
Bilirubin released from RES cells is not water soluble and is transported in plasma reversibly bound to .............. This unconjugated bilirubin is extracted by the liver and conjugated by esterification with ................... Water-soluble conjugated bilirubin is actively secreted against a concentration gradient into the bile.
Bilirubin released from RES cells is not water soluble and is transported in plasma reversibly bound to albumin. This unconjugated bilirubin is extracted by the liver and conjugated by esterification with glucuronic acid. Water-soluble conjugated bilirubin is actively secreted against a concentration gradient into the bile.
104
Bilirubin in bile makes its way to the intestinal tract, where it is either excreted unchanged in the ............ or is converted to ............... by the action of enteric bacteria. Most urobilinogen is further degraded into the brown-pigmented .............. The absence of ................. in the feces results in pale-colored acholic stools. Small amounts of urobilinogen enter the .......... system and undergo enterohepatic circulation. The majority is reexcreted into the bile, but a small amount is secreted in the urine.
Bilirubin in bile makes its way to the intestinal tract, where it is either excreted unchanged in the feces or is converted to urobilinogen by the action of enteric bacteria. Most urobilinogen is further degraded into the brown-pigmented stercobilins. The absence of stercobilins in the feces results in pale-colored acholic stools. Small amounts of urobilinogen enter the portal venous system and undergo enterohepatic circulation. The majority is reexcreted into the bile, but a small amount is secreted in the urine.
105
Icterus is the clinical manifestation of ...............retention within tissues. Although less sensitive than serum liver enzyme activities for detection of hepatobiliary disease, serum ..............bilirubinemia is more specific. ...........bilirubinemia occurs when an abnormality in the processing of bilirubin exists, and it can be divided into three categories: prehepatic, hepatic, and posthepatic.
Icterus is the clinical manifestation of bilirubin retention within tissues. Although less sensitive than serum liver enzyme activities for detection of hepatobiliary disease, serum hyperbilirubinemia is more specific. Hyperbilirubinemia occurs when an abnormality in the processing of bilirubin exists, and it can be divided into three categories: prehepatic, hepatic, and posthepatic.
106
Prehepatic hyperbilirubinemia is associated with increased production of .............. due to the need to process large amounts of .............., such as occurs during severe ................ It is readily differentiated from hepatic and posthepatic causes by determining hematocrit.
Prehepatic hyperbilirubinemia is associated with increased production of bilirubin due to the need to process large amounts of heme, such as occurs during severe hemolytic anemia. It is readily differentiated from hepatic and posthepatic causes by determining hematocrit.
107
Hepatic hyperbilirubinemia is associated with impaired hepatic .........., ............, or ............. of bilirubin. It is seen in hepatic disorders in which severe intrahepatic ............... develops. Hepatic hyperbilirubinemia may also accompany severe extrahepatic ...............
Hepatic hyperbilirubinemia is associated with impaired hepatic uptake, conjugation, or excretion of bilirubin. It is seen in hepatic disorders in which severe intrahepatic cholestasis develops. Hepatic hyperbilirubinemia may also accompany severe extrahepatic infections. In this condition, referred to as the cholestasis of sepsis, which occurs in both dogs and cats, circulating cytokines directly inhibit hepatocyte bilirubin transport.
108
Posthepatic hyperbilirubinemia is associated with interruption of flow within.........?
Posthepatic hyperbilirubinemia is associated with interruption of flow within the extrahepatic bile ducts.
109
The differentiation of hepatic and posthepatic icterus can be quite challenging clinically and yet is extremely important, because these conditions demand different interventional strategies. Posthepatic hyperbilirubinemia usually requires ............decompression of the ................... tract, whereas hepatic hyperbilirubinemia is typically treated ........... The clinical differentiation between hepatic and posthepatic hyperbilirubinemia is best made by ultrasound evaluation of the biliary system, combined with careful consideration of clinical history, physical examination, and ancillary laboratory testing.
The differentiation of hepatic and posthepatic icterus can be quite challenging clinically and yet is extremely important, because these conditions demand different interventional strategies. Posthepatic hyperbilirubinemia usually requires surgical decompression of the biliary tract, whereas hepatic hyperbilirubinemia is typically treated medically. The clinical differentiation between hepatic and posthepatic hyperbilirubinemia is best made by ultrasound evaluation of the biliary system, combined with careful consideration of clinical history, physical examination, and ancillary laboratory testing.
110
During prolonged cholestasis, excess conjugated bilirubin may become irreversibly bound to ........... These so-called biliproteins are clinically significant in that they are measured as direct reacting ............., but their half-life approximates that of albumin. Their presence can result in?
During prolonged cholestasis, excess conjugated bilirubin may become irreversibly bound to albumin. These so-called biliproteins are clinically significant in that they are measured as direct reacting bilirubin, but their half-life approximates that of albumin. Their presence can result in persistently elevated serum bilirubin weeks after the resolution of the underlying cholestatic liver disorder.
111
Bile acids are synthesized exclusively in the liver from ...................... After conjugation to either ............ or ............., bile acids are excreted into bile, where they are collected, stored, and concentrated in the gallbladder.
Bile acids are synthesized exclusively in the liver from cholesterol. After conjugation to either taurine or glycine, bile acids are excreted into bile, where they are collected, stored, and concentrated in the gallbladder.
112
After ingestion of a meal, ...................release stimulates gallbladder contraction and the release of bile acids into the intestine. In the intestinal lumen, bile acids aid in the ............ and .............. of fats.
After ingestion of a meal, cholecystokinin release stimulates gallbladder contraction and the release of bile acids into the intestine. In the intestinal lumen, bile acids aid in the solubilization and absorption of fats.
113
When the bile acids reach the ileum, they are efficiently transported back into the ............. circulation, from which they are reextracted by the hepatocyte sinsusoidal bile acid transporter. This enterohepatic circulation of bile acids operates at ...........% efficiency.
When the bile acids reach the ileum, they are efficiently transported back into the portal circulation, from which they are reextracted by the hepatocyte sinsusoidal bile acid transporter. This enterohepatic circulation of bile acids operates at 98% efficiency.
114
Disruption of the enterohepatic circulation of bile acids results in?
Disruption of the enterohepatic circulation of bile acids results in increases in the concentration of total serum bile acids (TSBAs).
115
In normal animals, concentrations of TSBAs are determined by the spillover of bile acids that escape from the enterohepatic circulation. During fasting, when the enterohepatic circulation of bile acids is low, TSBAs are low. After a meal, bile acids are released into the intestines and subsequently absorbed into the portal circulation. Increased portal vein bile acid concentrations are reflected in?
Increased portal vein bile acid concentrations are reflected in a transient elevation in TSBA. This endogenous challenge to the enterohepatic circulation of bile acids is used clinically. In a typical bile acid test, TSBAs are determined after a 12-hour fast; a test meal is fed, and postprandial TSBA is determined 2 hours later.
116
Urine.................acids may be used as a diagnostic test for hepatobiliary disease in the dog and cat. The excretion of water-soluble bile acids in urine reflects the TSBA concentration during the period of urine formation, such that persistently elevated TSBA results in elevated ---------------------levels.
Urine bile acids may be used as a diagnostic test for hepatobiliary disease in the dog and cat. The excretion of water-soluble bile acids in urine reflects the TSBA concentration during the period of urine formation, such that persistently elevated TSBA results in elevated urine bile acid levels.
117
A number of factors that influence the enterohepatic circulation of bile acids in normal animals can affect TSBA values. These include?
These include the completeness of gallbladder emptying The rate of gastric emptying Intestinal transit rate The efficiency of ileal bile acid reabsorption, The frequency of enterohepatic cycling.
118
What can influence these factors that influence the enterohepatic circulation?
Inadequate fat or amino acid content in the test meal or consumption of an insufficient amount of food can result in failure of cholecystokinin release and gallbladder contraction. The presence of concurrent disease that delays gastric emptying may result in failure to stimulate gallbladder contraction. Alterations in intestinal transit time, so that the movement of conjugated bile acids to the ileum is delayed, can result in less than optimum timing for determination of the postprandial values. Severe ileal disease can result in decreased bile acid reabsorption and inadequate challenge to the enterohepatic circulation. The presence of small bowel overgrowth leads to bacterial deconjugation and decreased ileal absorption of bile acids.
119
Occasionally, fasting TSBA concentrations are higher than postprandial values. This happens when?
When interdigestive gallbladder contraction occurs during the course of the fast preceding the test. It may also be associated with individual variations in gastric emptying, response to cholecytokinin release, and intestinal transit time.
120
The major function of the liver in carbohydrate metabolism is to maintain normoglycemia during the fasting state. The liver has a large reserve for maintaining glucose homeostasis, so that more than .....% of hepatic function must be lost before hypoglycemia occurs, which happens most often in ..........? acute fulminant hepatic failure and in small-breed dogs with PSVA.
more than 70% of hepatic function must be lost before hypoglycemia occurs, which happens most often in acute fulminant hepatic failure and in small-breed dogs with PSVA.
121
In acute hepatocellular injury, hypoglycemia may be a relatively early indicator of severe hepatic failure. It is an early feature of ...............toxicosis in dogs. The initial drop in blood glucose is associated with ..............hypersecretion but is later associated with hepatic failure.
It is an early feature of xylitol toxicosis in dogs. The initial drop in blood glucose is associated with insulin hypersecretion but is later associated with hepatic failure.
122
Up to 35% of dogs with congenital PSVA experience episodes of hypoglycemia. In these dogs hypoglycemia may be due to impaired hepatic ......................, decreased hepatic ............ stores, and/or reduced responsiveness to ............ Inadequate glycogen stores may reflect immaturity of the carbohydrate-metabolizing enzyme systems, or it may be a consequence of chronic stimulation of glycogenolysis.
Up to 35% of dogs with congenital PSVA experience episodes of hypoglycemia. In these dogs hypoglycemia may be due to impaired hepatic glucose production, decreased hepatic glycogen stores, and/or reduced responsiveness to glucagon. Inadequate glycogen stores may reflect immaturity of the carbohydrate-metabolizing enzyme systems, or it may be a consequence of chronic stimulation of glycogenolysis.
123
Hypoglycemia is a rare complication of end-stage chronic inflammatory liver disease and is a negative predictor of survival. Hypoglycemia may occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome in dogs with hepatic neoplasia. Proposed mechanisms for the hypoglycemia include?
Increased glucose utilization by the tumor or Secretion of an insulin-like growth factor that inhibits gluconeogenesis and promotes glycogenolysis. Insulin levels, when measured, have been normal.
124
Glycogen storage diseases (GSDs) may cause hypoglycemia. In dogs, a glycogen-debranching enzyme (type IIIa in Curly-Coated Retrievers and German Shepherds) and glucose-6-phosphate (type 1a in Maltese) have been associated with fasting hypoglycemia and the development of hepatomegaly due to ..................accumulation.
In dogs, a glycogen-debranching enzyme (type IIIa in Curly-Coated Retrievers and German Shepherds) and glucose-6-phosphate (type 1a in Maltese) have been associated with fasting hypoglycemia and the development of hepatomegaly due to glycogen accumulation.[65-67] These diseases are diagnosed by tissue-specific enzyme assays.
125
The liver has several functions in lipid metabolism. Plasma fatty acids released from adipose tissue are extracted by hepatocytes and are either converted to ................ or undergo mitochondrial ....................
The liver has several functions in lipid metabolism. Plasma fatty acids released from adipose tissue are extracted by hepatocytes and are either converted to triglycerides or undergo mitochondrial β-oxidation.
126
Triglycerides are either stored or packaged as ............................. and are released into the vasculature.
Triglycerides are either stored or packaged as very low-density lipoproteins and are released into the vasculature.
127
The liver also extracts ...................remnants and ...................................... from plasma. This is the major route by which cholesterol enters into the liver, although the liver is also capable of cholesterol synthesis.
The liver also extracts chylomicron remnants and low-density lipoproteins from plasma. This is the major route by which cholesterol enters into the liver, although the liver is also capable of cholesterol synthesis.
128
Hepatic cholesterol can be .............., ..........., and .................. in lipoproteins or stored in the liver. The majority of unesterified (free) cholesterol in the liver undergoes ............excretion.
Hepatic cholesterol can be esterified, packaged, and secreted in lipoproteins or stored in the liver. The majority of unesterified (free) cholesterol in the liver undergoes biliary excretion.
129
In the dog and cat, EHBDO is accompanied by increases in serum ............... Hypercholesterolemia is associated with increased hepatic .............. and/or decreased ......... excretion of cholesterol.
In the dog and cat, EHBDO is accompanied by increases in serum cholesterol. Hypercholesterolemia is associated with increased hepatic synthesis and/or decreased biliary excretion of cholesterol.
130
Hypocholesterolemia occurs in approximately 62% of dogs and 67% of cats with ......... and may be due to decreased cholesterol .......... or increased incorporation of cholesterol into ................... Hypocholesterolemia also occurs with ..........................liver disease in dogs.
Hypocholesterolemia occurs in approximately 62% of dogs and 67% of cats with PSVA and may be due to decreased cholesterol synthesis or increased incorporation of cholesterol into bile acids. Hypocholesterolemia also occurs with late-stage chronic liver disease in dogs.
131
Urinalysis: About 50% of dogs and 15% of cats with PSVA have ......................... crystalluria. Repeated examination of fresh urine specimens may be necessary to document the presence these crystals.
About 50% of dogs and 15% of cats with PSVA have ammonia biurate crystalluria. Repeated examination of fresh urine specimens may be necessary to document the presence these crystals.
132
Uric acid, a byproduct of ..............nucleotide catabolism, is converted to .............. by hepatic ............. oxidase. In hepatic disease, a deficiency of this enzyme may lead to ................. In the presence of concurrent hyperammonemia, increased concentrations of both ions appear in the urine, resulting in the precipitation of ammonia biurate crystals.
Uric acid, a byproduct of purine nucleotide catabolism, is converted to allantoin by hepatic urate oxidase. In hepatic disease, a deficiency of this enzyme may lead to hyperuricemia. In the presence of concurrent hyperammonemia, increased concentrations of both ions appear in the urine, resulting in the precipitation of ammonia biurate crystals.
133
Bilirubinuria indicates the presence of ................ bilirubin in urine. Is bilirubinuria in the dog abnormal? What about cats?
Bilirubinuria indicates the presence of conjugated bilirubin in urine. Bilirubinuria in the dog is not abnormal, because dogs have a low renal threshold for bilirubin, and their renal tubular epithelium is capable of bilirubin production. However, cats have a high renal threshold for bilirubin, and their kidneys do not produce it. Bilirubinuria in cats, therefore, is always abnormal and suggests the presence of a hepatobiliary or hemolytic disorder.
134
Bilirubinuria in cats is always abnormal and suggests the presence of?
a hepatobiliary or hemolytic disorder.
135
Anemia may be present in dogs or cats with hepatobiliary disease. ................. anemia is most often associated with blood loss. Although spontaneous bleeding associated with a coagulopathy is rare in dogs and cats with hepatic disease, blood loss may occur after provocative ...............or secondary to .........................ulceration.
Anemia may be present in dogs or cats with hepatobiliary disease. Regenerative anemia is most often associated with blood loss. Although spontaneous bleeding associated with a coagulopathy is rare in dogs and cats with hepatic disease, blood loss may occur after provocative procedures or secondary to gastrointestinal ulceration.
136
Nonregenerative anemia, a more common finding in hepatic disease, is usually ....................... and is often associated with inefficient utilization of systemic ...........stores (anemia of chronic disease).
Nonregenerative anemia, a more common finding in hepatic disease, is usually normocytic-normochromic and is often associated with inefficient utilization of systemic iron stores (anemia of chronic disease).
137
A microcytic, hypochromic, nonregenerative anemia is suggestive of ..................
A microcytic, hypochromic, nonregenerative anemia is suggestive of chronic gastrointestinal blood loss.
138
Erythrocyte microcytosis occurs in dogs and cats with congenital .........., in dogs with acquired shunting secondary to .............., and in some cats with idiopathic hepatic ............... Studies investigating the cause of this microcytosis in dogs with PSVA have documented a relative ........deficiency, which may be associated with impaired ...... transport. Target cells and poikilocytes may be seen in dogs and cats with hepatic disease. These morphologic changes may be associated with alterations in the erythrocyte plasma membrane lipoprotein content, resulting in altered cell deformability.
Erythrocyte microcytosis occurs in dogs and cats with congenital PSVA,[65] in dogs with acquired shunting secondary to cirrhosis, and in some cats with idiopathic hepatic lipidosis. Studies investigating the cause of this microcytosis in dogs with PSVA have documented a relative iron deficiency, which may be associated with impaired iron transport. Target cells and poikilocytes may be seen in dogs and cats with hepatic disease. These morphologic changes may be associated with alterations in the erythrocyte plasma membrane lipoprotein content, resulting in altered cell deformability.
139
Treatment: Why is it logical to use prednisolone (and not prednisone) in cases of liver disease? .
Since prednisone needs to be metabolized into prednisolone by the liver, it is logical to use prednisolone in cases of liver disease. Prednisolone can thus be regarded as the treatment of first choice for idiopathic chronic hepatitis. Corticosteroids have antiinflammatory effects but also antifibrotic and choleretic effects. Their principle indication, however, is immunomodulation. For stimulation of choleresis, UDCA (Ursodeoxycholic Acid) is much more effective, and the weak effect on formation of fibrosis does not justify the use of corticosteroids for treatment of fibrosis without mononuclear inflammation.
140
For cases in which a defect in copper metabolism is known, leading to copper storage and associated hepatotoxicity, specific ................. therapy instead of steroids is indicated.
For cases in which a defect in copper metabolism is known, leading to copper storage and associated hepatotoxicity, specific chelating therapy instead of steroids is indicated.
141
Glucocorticoids are contraindicated for ............ of the liver and .............system. They should be reserved for chronic hepatitis with ...............inflammation for which no infectious etiology is known and in the absence of ..............accumulation.
Glucocorticoids are contraindicated for infectious diseases of the liver and biliary system. They should be reserved for chronic hepatitis with mononuclear inflammation for which no infectious etiology is known and in the absence of copper accumulation. Acute hepatitis may be caused by toxins, viruses, and so on, but the specific etiology remains unknown in most cases. In the author's experience, about 20% to 30% of the cases of acute hepatitis become chronic. Most acute hepatitis cases recover spontaneously without treatment, or with only symptomatic support (antiemetics, fluid therapy).
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Side effects of glucocorticoids can be?
iatrogenic Cushing disease and gastrointestinal hemorrhage. In such cases H2 receptor antagonists may be given to reduce gastric acid production.
143
If immunosuppression is the desired action of therapy, and glucocorticoids lead to unacceptable adverse effects, ............. is the alternative drug. By combining ...............and glucocorticoids, the steroid doses can be much reduced, so side effects can be avoided or made acceptable.
If immunosuppression is the desired action of therapy, and glucocorticoids lead to unacceptable adverse effects, azathioprine is the alternative drug. By combining azathioprine and glucocorticoids, the steroid doses can be much reduced, so side effects can be avoided or made acceptable.
144
Disadvantages of azathioprine are that it can cause ..................... Moreover, it is more expensive than glucocorticoids, and it is also potentially...... to humans. Should be avoided in cats, because severe side effects are common
Bone marrow suppression
145
Ursodeoxycholic Acid UDCA is one of the natural .............. in the enterohepatic circulation. ..............are produced and conjugated in the liver and are kept very efficiently in the .............cycle. The primary .............., those primarily formed in the liver, are transformed by ................. bacteria into secondary and tertiary ................, so that a mixture of ............. circulate.
UDCA is one of the natural bile acids in the enterohepatic circulation. Bile acids are produced and conjugated in the liver and are kept very efficiently in the enterohepatic cycle. The primary bile acids, those primarily formed in the liver, are transformed by intestinal bacteria into secondary and tertiary bile acids, so that a mixture of bile acids circulate.
146
Some bile acids are highly toxic, especially in the liver, where they are much more highly concentrated than in any other tissue. The less ............., the more toxic the specific bile acid tends to be. The most toxic bile acid is ............. acid, and the hydrophilic UDCA is ................ in concentrations encountered in normal or diseased liver.
The less hydrophilic, the more toxic the specific bile acid tends to be. The most toxic bile acid is lithocholic acid, and the hydrophilic UDCA is nontoxic in concentrations encountered in normal or diseased liver.
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Toxic bile acids have a number of negative effects. They induce the ................ of hepatocytes by activation of the ........... receptor, which activates intracellular signaling of the apoptosis pathway. Liver cell necrosis is also induced by altered ......................of the mitochondrial membrane due to high concentrations of bile acids. Disruption of the mitochondrial electron-transport chain leads to formation of ..................... and oxidative damage to the cells.
Toxic bile acids have a number of negative effects. They induce the apoptosis of hepatocytes by activation of the Fas receptor, which activates intracellular signaling of the apoptosis pathway. Liver cell necrosis is also induced by altered permeability of the mitochondrial membrane due to high concentrations of bile acids. Disruption of the mitochondrial electron-transport chain leads to formation of free radicals and oxidative damage to the cells.
148
The proposed positive actions of the nontoxic bile acid UDCA are fourfold. What are they?
1. UDCA has been shown to prevent cells from entering the apoptosis pathway and to prevent mitochondrial damage. 2. Induction of an increased bile flow by UDCA. Active bile acid excretion into the bile canaliculi by hepatocytes is one of the main mechanisms by which bile is formed, because excretion of bile acids against a huge concentration gradient is followed by water, building the flow of bile. Addition of external bile acids to the pool induces the need for hepatocytes to excrete more bile acids, thereby enhancing the bile flow and the efflux of toxic bile acids. (The enhanced bile flow explains also why UDCA is contraindicated in cases of extrahepatic bile duct obstruction). 3. Modulating the immune system in different ways, resulting in reduction of the immune response, which may be favorable in cases where autoimmunity is part of the trigger for ongoing disease. 4. Increase the production of glutathione (GSH) and metallothionein in hepatocytes, which could help prevent oxidative damage.
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UDCA has virtually no side effects in therapeutic dosages. It is therefore a safe drug, which at least does no harm to the patient. At present, the main indication in analogy to use in human medicine seems to be?
Chronic, severe cholestatic diseases, such as destructive cholangitis in dogs and lymphocytic cholangitis in cats. In addition, the WSAVA Liver Standardization Group has defined UDCA as the most appropriate drug to compare with glucocorticoids to find the best treatment of idiopathic chronic hepatitis.
150
Oxidative stress and damage of cells by free-oxygen radicals is one of the disease mechanisms that has been extensively studied in recent years. Factors such as ....... blood perfusion, .............reactions, and accumulation of ....... or ....... in the liver may be incriminated in the development of hepatocyte necrosis and hepatitis.
Oxidative stress and damage of cells by free-oxygen radicals is one of the disease mechanisms that has been extensively studied in recent years. Factors such as reduced blood perfusion, inflammatory reactions, and accumulation of copper or iron in the liver may be incriminated in the development of hepatocyte necrosis and hepatitis.
151
Copper toxicosis exerts its toxic effect, resulting in chronic .................or............................... specifically by ............damage caused by free copper in the cell. Oxidation is also the principal mechanism by which ............., produced by the mushroom Amanita phalloides, and ..................(Paracetamol) cause severe, sometimes fulminant liver failure.
Copper toxicosis exerts its toxic effect, resulting in chronic hepatitis or hemolysis specifically by oxidative damage caused by free copper in the cell. Oxidation is also the principal mechanism by which phalloidin, produced by the mushroom Amanita phalloides, and acetaminophen (Paracetamol) cause severe, sometimes fulminant liver failure. Oxidative stress is also a key step in the pathogenesis of ethanol-associated liver injury in man.
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The main sources of free radicals are hepatocyte ................., cytochrome ........... enzymes, and endotoxin-activated ..................(.............-cells)
The main sources of free radicals are hepatocyte mitochondria, cytochrome P450 enzymes, and endotoxin-activated macrophages (Kupffer cells)
153
Free radicals take up ...............from neighboring molecules, which causes oxidative damage to ........, ............, and ...............
Free radicals take up electrons from neighboring molecules, which causes oxidative damage to lipids, proteins, and DNA.
154
The normal cellular defense mechanisms against oxidative stress are superoxide dismutase (..........), .........., and ..........peroxidase. Depletion of GSH may cause exhaustion of part of the cellular defense and do oxidative damage. Nutritional vitamins ... and ... act also as free-radical scavengers.
The normal cellular defense mechanisms against oxidative stress are superoxide dismutase (SOD), catalase, and GSH peroxidase. Depletion of GSH may cause exhaustion of part of the cellular defense and do oxidative damage. Nutritional vitamins C and E act also as free-radical scavengers.
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It is logical to separate liver diseases in which oxidation is the principle event leading to tissue damage and inflammation, such as ...........and ...............intoxication and copper storage diseases, and liver diseases such as ........... or ...............hepatitis, in which oxidative stress is one factor in a series of events, but not the key factor.
It is logical to separate liver diseases in which oxidation is the principle event leading to tissue damage and inflammation, such as Amanita and acetaminophen intoxication and copper storage diseases, and liver diseases such as viral or idiopathic hepatitis, in which oxidative stress is one factor in a series of events, but not the key factor.
156
The beneficial effect of antioxidant therapies has been well proven in Amanita- and acetaminophen-induced damage in experimental animal models and in human and veterinary medicine. For copper storage diseases in which free intracellular copper is the trigger for free-radical formation, the best therapy remains...?
Direct elimination of free copper by copper-chelating drugs such as penicillamine. There are no reports on the effect of antioxidant therapy in copper storage diseases of dogs, so there is no basis to recommend such therapies in addition to chelating drugs. The only event in copper storage diseases in which use of antioxidants is logical is hemolytic crisis
157
The use of antioxidant therapy in other liver diseases is much more speculative, because oxidative damage is only one factor in a complex pathogenesis. Main antioxidants available are?
Vitamin C, vitamin E, silymarin, and S-adenosyl-L-methionine (SAMe). In addition, zinc and UDCA have antioxidant function.
158
Vitamins C and E: can they be synthesized by dogs and cats?
These vitamins are normally synthesized by dogs and cats, whereas humans cannot make vitamin C (ascorbate).
159
S-Adenosyl-L-Methionine: SAMe is a natural metabolite in the hepatocytes. It is a precursor for ............, one of the amino acids of ......., which forms one of the main defense mechanisms of the cell against intoxications; depletion causes ............... SAMe is important in the defense against .......... radicals
S-Adenosyl-L-Methionine: SAMe is a natural metabolite in the hepatocytes. It is a precursor for cysteine, one of the amino acids of GSH, which forms one of the main defense mechanisms of the cell against intoxications; depletion causes oxidative stress. Depletion might occur by exhaustion due to exposure to toxic substances.
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The precursor of SAMe is ............, which is activated by SAMe .............. Theoretically, deficient capacity of this liver enzyme as a consequence of liver disease could cause inadequate production of ........... and .........
The precursor of SAMe is methionine, which is activated by SAMe synthetase. Theoretically, deficient capacity of this liver enzyme as a consequence of liver disease could cause inadequate production of SAMe and GSH. SAMe is nontoxic, and administration of exogenous SAMe could restore deficient GSH in the hepatocytes.
161
Silymarin, or silibinin, is the active component extracted from the fruit of Silybum marianum, commonly known as milk ............. It appears to be a strong ................... scavenger, increasing cellular SOD. There are many reports on its protective and even life-saving action on the liver after intoxication with the mushroom toxin ................. and .................., which exert their toxic effects by oxidation.
Silymarin, or silibinin, is the active component extracted from the fruit of Silybum marianum, commonly known as milk thistle. It appears to be a strong free-radical scavenger, increasing cellular SOD. There are many reports on its protective and even life-saving action on the liver after intoxication with the mushroom toxin phalloidine and acetaminophen, which exert their toxic effects by oxidation. In dogs the typical oxidative changes in the mitochondria can be prevented in experimental intoxication with these toxins. Treated dogs had much lower elevated liver enzymes, reduced prolonged prothrombin times. In conclusion, there is no evidence that antioxidants have a beneficial effect in liver diseases not primarily caused by oxidative damage; until there is evidence from randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled studies, they do not yet deserve a place in routine medication.
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Fibrosis is the unavoidable sequela of chronic liver disease, and untreated or untreatable chronic liver diseases end in fibrosis, cirrhosis, and incapacity of the liver to regenerate. Increased .......... peroxidation in hepatocytes activates the mesenchymal hepatic stellate cells (HSCs). Transforming growth factor ........... is the principal and most potent fibrogenic cytokine, and it is produced by Kupffer cells and HSCs. HSCs are also the primary target cells that produce extracellular collagen matrix.
Increased lipid peroxidation in hepatocytes activates the mesenchymal hepatic stellate cells (HSCs). Transforming growth factor beta-1 (TGF-β) is the principal and most potent fibrogenic cytokine, and it is produced by Kupffer cells and HSCs. HSCs are also the primary target cells that produce extracellular collagen matrix.
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Specific drugs to inhibit TGF-β are not yet clinically available. Presently the reduction of ................, which reduces HSC activation, is the only clinically available method of stoping fibrongenesis of the liver. One certain way to stop fibrogenesis of the liver to prevent cirrhosis is to treat the underlying disease and thereby stop progression of fibrosis. In veterinary and human medicine, ............. is the only specific drug used to stop and reduce fibrosis. It is thought to act via stimulation of .......... activity.
Specific drugs to inhibit TGF-β are not yet clinically available. Presently the reduction of lipid peroxidation, which reduces HSC activation, is the only clinically available method of stoping fibrongenesis of the liver. One certain way to stop fibrogenesis of the liver to prevent cirrhosis is to treat the underlying disease and thereby stop progression of fibrosis. In veterinary and human medicine, colchicine is the only specific drug used to stop and reduce fibrosis. It is thought to act via stimulation of collagenase activity. The disadvantage is that side effects have been reported, such as vomiting, diarrhea, and neurological signs.
164
Storage of opper in the liver can induce oxidative damage due to free intracellular copper. Copper toxicosis in Bedlington Terriers has been the historic example of this form of chronic hepatitis, which is caused by a deletion in the ................ gene. Copper may also accumulate as a result of impaired ..........secondary to................. diseases. Thus, hepatitis in Dobermans and Labrador Retrievers may be a primary copper metabolic disease or secondary copper accumulation due to intrahepatic cholestasis in the course of hepatitis.[42] In light of this, all of the above breeds must have primary copper storage diseases.
Storage of opper in the liver can induce oxidative damage due to free intracellular copper. Copper toxicosis in Bedlington Terriers has been the historic example of this form of chronic hepatitis, which is caused by a deletion in the COMMD1 gene. There are a number of forms of chronic hepatitis in different breeds that have been attributed to copper storage as the causative factor. (Bedlington Terriers, Skye Terriers,Dalmatians, West Highland White Terriers and Turkish Shepherds, Labrador Retrievers) Copper may also accumulate as a result of impaired biliary excretion secondary to cholestatic diseases. Thus, hepatitis in Dobermans and Labrador Retrievers may be a primary copper metabolic disease or secondary copper accumulation due to intrahepatic cholestasis in the course of hepatitis. In light of this, all of the above breeds must have primary copper storage diseases.
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Excessive copper is generally stored and encapsulated in the hepatocyte ....... and cannot be reached by ............... Since it is the free ................, and not the lysosomal, copper that causes oxidative damage, quantitative copper measurements do not necessarily reflect the success of chelating or other therapy.
Excessive copper is generally stored and encapsulated in the hepatocyte lysosomes and cannot be reached by chelating drugs. Since it is the free cytoplasmatic, and not the lysosomal, copper that causes oxidative damage, quantitative copper measurements do not necessarily reflect the success of chelating or other therapy.
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Only diseases in which copper accumulation is the primary defect require specific anticopper medication. If copper accumulates as the consequence of a ................disease, specific treatment of the underlying disease will reduce the amount of free cellular copper. The rationale for additional chelating medication has never been proven for such diseases. Chelating drugs should be used with some care, since dogs treated for long chelators can develop disease due to ...................
Only diseases in which copper accumulation is the primary defect require specific anticopper medication. If copper accumulates as the consequence of a cholestatic disease, specific treatment of the underlying disease will reduce the amount of free cellular copper. The rationale for additional chelating medication has never been proven for such diseases. Chelating drugs should be used with some care, since dogs treated for long chelators can develop disease due to copper deficiency.
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There are three forms of anticopper medications for primary copper storage diseases. Which ones?
1. Chelating drugs can actively bind free extracellular copper, upon which the complex is excreted into the urine by the kidneys. Chelators bind free copper actively, and thus are an effective way to remove the free intracellular copper that causes the hepatic damage. At present there are two copper chelators available. D-penicillamine has been the first drug successfully used. The alternative copper-chelating drugs are 2,3,2- and 2-2-2-tetramine tetra hydrochloride. 2. Zinc. In the intestinal tract, zinc induces metallothionein in the enterocytes. This protein binds copper, and the complex is sequestered with the senescent enterocyte into the intestinal lumen. Zinc should be used as a preventive drug to avoid accumulation of free copper in the liver. 3. The third potential form of medication for copper storage diseases is by giving antioxidants.
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Ascites typically is a late sign of decompensation in the course of chronic liver disease, such as chronic ...........,..........., and portal vein ........ (syn. microvascular dysplasia) in dogs.
Ascites typically is a late sign of decompensation in the course of chronic liver disease, such as chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and portal vein hypoplasia (syn. microvascular dysplasia) in dogs. Cats very rarely have ascites due to chronic liver disease.
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The portal blood pressure is only high enough to cause ascites without hypoalbuminemia in cases of acute complete obstruction of the portal vein by ............. and congenital .................. fistulas. Whatever the cause is, in all liver disease associated with ascites, the high portal pressure may also lead to formation of?
The portal blood pressure is only high enough to cause ascites without hypoalbuminemia in cases of acute complete obstruction of the portal vein by thrombosis and congenital arteriovenous fistulas. Whatever the cause is, in all liver disease associated with ascites, the high portal pressure may also lead to formation of portosystemic collateral vessels and various grades of hepatic encephalopathy (HE).
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The potential risk for HE brings the need to use diuretics with caution. The main complicating factors by which HE may quickly aggravate—even to comatose forms, which may be lethal—are ............... and ..............
The potential risk for HE brings the need to use diuretics with caution. The main complicating factors by which HE may quickly aggravate—even to comatose forms, which may be lethal—are alkalosis and hypokalemia.
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Only the ................form of ammonia penetrates cellular (neuronal) membranes. In any form of alkalosis, the reaction equilibrium (NH3 + H+ ↔ NH4+) shifts to the ......... Therefore ammonia is much more toxic in alkalosis.
Only the nonionized NH3 form of ammonia penetrates cellular (neuronal) membranes. In any form of alkalosis, the reaction equilibrium (NH3 + H+ ↔ NH4+) shifts to the left. Therefore ammonia is much more toxic in alkalosis.
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In hypokalemia, the plasma potassium is replenished by a shift of potassium from the cells in exchange with............ and ..........ions. The resulting hydrogen shift causes .............in the extracellular fluid and ...........in the cells, so that ammonia can easily penetrate cells. Intracellularly it becomes ..........., in which form it cannot leave the cell. Blood ammonia, which is the best parameter to monitor HE, may then be surprisingly ......... in relation to the severity of the HE, because most of it is trapped inside the cells. This cellular ammonia trap is easily activated with the use of most ........... It is therefore better to use potassium-sparing, aldosterone-receptor–antagonizing diuretics, such as spironolactone. If a dog eats well enough to have an adequate supply of alimentary potassium to substitute the renal loss, loop diuretics such as furosemide can be used. Combinations of furosemide and aldactone may be very effective to treat ascites. It is important to monitor blood pH and potassium and to correct potassium deficiency.
In hypokalemia, the plasma potassium is replenished by a shift of potassium from the cells in exchange with sodium and hydrogen ions. The resulting hydrogen shift causes alkalosis in the extracellular fluid and acidosis in the cells, so that ammonia can easily penetrate cells. Intracellularly it becomes ionized, in which form it cannot leave the cell. Blood ammonia, which is the best parameter to monitor HE, may then be surprisingly low in relation to the severity of the HE, because most of it is trapped inside the cells. This cellular ammonia trap is easily activated with the use of most diuretics. It is therefore better to use potassium-sparing, aldosterone-receptor–antagonizing diuretics, such as spironolactone. If a dog eats well enough to have an adequate supply of alimentary potassium to substitute the renal loss, loop diuretics such as furosemide can be used. Combinations of furosemide and aldactone may be very effective to treat ascites. It is important to monitor blood pH and potassium and to correct potassium deficiency.
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The most risky period with respect to ascites and HE is when free fluid is accumulating. In a relatively short period of several days or weeks, the newly formed abdominal free fluid can account for more than the entire circulating volume. In this period the .................................. is highly activated, resulting in sodium and water retention and .................... loss. Intravenous fluid therapy and potassium compensation is necessary when the dog does not eat and drink sufficiently. Complete paracentesis of the ascitic fluid is the best stimulation to avoid complications of HE.
The most risky period with respect to ascites and HE is when free fluid is accumulating. In a relatively short period of several days or weeks, the newly formed abdominal free fluid can account for more than the entire circulating volume. In this period the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is highly activated, resulting in sodium and water retention and potassium loss. Intravenous fluid therapy and potassium compensation is necessary when the dog does not eat and drink sufficiently. Complete paracentesis of the ascitic fluid is the best stimulation to avoid complications of HE.
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Cases of chronic hepatitis—and even cirrhosis, when there is still active inflammation—may improve so much upon treatment with corticosteroids that the disappearance of the inflammatory infiltrates gives enough reduction of the portal pressure to obtain complete remission of ascites. A ............. diet may help to keep the ascites controlled.
A low-sodium diet may help to keep the ascites controlled.
175
The source of the known toxins causing brain neurotransmitter changes known as hepatic encephalopathy (HE) is the protein digestion in the intestinal tract. Which are the 2 main factors? What do they require to reach the systemic circulation?
Ammonia and aromatic amino acids are the two main factors. Both require portosystemic collateral circulation, either congenital or acquired due to chronic portal hypertension, to reach the systemic circulation and the blood-brain barrier. The reserve capacity of the liver in dogs is enough to prevent HE in liver disease without collateral circulation
176
In cats that cannot make the essential amino acid ................, HE may occur without shunting as a result of ................
In cats that cannot make the essential amino acid arginine, HE may occur without shunting as a result of fasting. These cats often develop hepatic lipidosis simultaneously; both lipidosis and HE are a manifestation of their inability to synthesize several essential amino acids. There are large variations in susceptibility to these effects among different cats.
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What is arginine? Deficiency causes?
Arginine is an essential intermediate of the hepatic urea cycle, and deficiency causes inadequate detoxification of ammonia.
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Management of HE is different for dogs and cats with congenital or acquired portosystemic shunting and cats with HE due to fasting hyperammonemia resulting from arginine deficiency. Portosystemic encephalopathy, which is by far the most common form, should be treated with an appropriate diet and additional measures if needed. How should the ideal diet be?
Should have reduced protein content with specific reduction of sources of aromatic amino acids. Very strict reduction of proteins may be counterproductive; it has clearly been shown in dog studies that prevention of catabolism—that is, negative energy balance—is more important than strict maintenance of low protein intake. Another important factor is that lactulose and soluble fiber in the diet may help very efficiently to reduce ammonia uptake from the large intestines.
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There are many effects of lactulose and soluble fibers on ammonia metabolism, the most important being that---?
Ammonia is metabolized by the colonic bacterial flora to produce acids that reduce the pH of colonic content. Ammonia is then present in the ionic form, which is not absorbed and thus is lost with the feces.
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There are well-balanced commercial liver-support diets that meet these requirements for adequate energy content, sufficient reduction of protein with special emphasis on aromatic amino acids, and the presence of soluble fiber. These diets also contain low copper and sodium. Sodium reduction may be important if portal hypertension is present. Why?
There are well-balanced commercial liver-support diets that meet these requirements for adequate energy content, sufficient reduction of protein with special emphasis on aromatic amino acids, and the presence of soluble fiber. These diets also contain low copper and sodium. Because in these cases, not only HE but also ascites may form, with interrelated metabolic complications as described above. Low copper is not necessary in relation with HE or ascites, but it is important in the management of those forms of canine hepatitis that are thought to be caused by copper metabolic diseases.
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If diet alone is not sufficient to manage patients with portosystemic encephalopathy, the other main possibility to improve the HE status is by giving oral lactulose. Lactulose was developed to treat constipation. Why?
Since the disaccharide molecule is metabolized in the colon into multiple smaller molecules that increase the osmotic content of the colon and attract water into the feces. The best guideline for use of lactulose for management of HE is to give just enough twice daily to attain a slightly softer stool. The combination of diet and lactulose is often sufficient to manage chronic HE for many years in patients in which the underlying cause cannot be treated (inoperable portosystemic shunts, arteriovenous fistula, portal vein hypoplasia, or inactive cirrhosis). Specific commercial liver-support diets based on soy protein has recently been proven to be most effective
182
Deterioration of HE may occur due to several instances, the most important being...?
Catabolism, dehydration, alkalosis, hypokalemia, and formation of ascites. Sudden high intestinal ammonia production in the face of portosystemic collateral circulation may also cause sudden aggravation of HE. This may be caused by intestinal bleeding from gastroduodenal ulcers, which may be associated with chronic liver disease. Blood is the most ammoniagenic protein, and in sudden deterioration, it may be important to examine and treat possible gastrointestinal bleeding.
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Furthermore, keys to controlling HE are?
Measurement of blood pH, potassium, and ammonia; correction of hypokalemia and hypovolemia; and intravenous feeding to correct catabolism. It should be understood (see Treatment of Ascites) that the blood level of ammonia and potassium are reflections, but not exact representations, of what is going on in the neurons.
184
One of the factors in the pathogenesis of HE is an increased activity of the neuronal?
The neuronal GABA/benzodiazepine receptor system, which suppresses neuronal activity. For this reason extreme care should be taken with any sedation or anesthesia exploiting this receptor system. If necessary, inhalation anesthesia is most safe, because it exploits different receptors and does not depend on the liver function.
185
As mentioned before, cats can have portosystemic encephalopathy just as dogs and humans can. However, cats that are susceptible to developing .............. when fasting are also prone to develop HE due to deranged metabolism.
Liver lipidosis Having a shared metabolic basis, feline hepatic lipidosis and nonportosystemic HE require essentially the same therapy. General rules concerning the influence of hypokalemia and alkalosis also apply for HE in cats and will not be repeated here.
186
Hepatic lipidosis in cats is essentially a consequence of catabolism in anorexia due to any cause. Lipidosis can develop within a few days but may also take 2 weeks to occur. Some cats can withstand prolonged fasting without ever developing clinically significant lipidosis. The precise pathogenesis of lipidosis is not known in detail, but what do we know? Catabolism leads to decreased ...............ratio in the circulation, which stimulates hormone-sensitive........... to release fatty acids. The liver is the main place for their metabolism, and one of the principle routes by which the liver can make fat stores suitable for utilization in other tissues is by the formation of ................ One aspect of this complex metabolic disorder is the unavailability of essential .......... These are necessary for different liver functions, such as formation of .............. for composition of ..........—in which form accumulating triglycerides can be exported from the liver cells—and the urea cycle, in which ................ is essential.
Catabolism leads to decreased insulin–glucagon ratio in the circulation, which stimulates hormone-sensitive lipase to release fatty acids. The liver is the main place for their metabolism, and one of the principle routes by which the liver can make fat stores suitable for utilization in other tissues is by the formation of very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL). One aspect of this complex metabolic disorder is the unavailability of essential amino acids. These are necessary for different liver functions, such as formation of apoproteins for composition of VLDL—in which form accumulating triglycerides can be exported from the liver cells—and the urea cycle, in which arginine is essential.
187
For treatment of both HE and lipidosis, it is therefore essential to restore the energy balance, especially by giving proteins. High-energy diets containing predominantly fats or sugars do not help cats with hepatic lipidosis, but feeding liquified baby food or commercial high-energy and high-protein veterinary formulations are both good. The goal is?
To restore the energy balance and supplement amino acid deficiencies, especially arginine and taurine. L-carnitine may also be an important factor, because it may help the hepatocytes to exploit fatty acids in beta oxidation. This is the only form of HE requiring high instead of low protein feeding. Multivitamins. Force-feeding. Otherwise a gastrostomy tube is most adequate for long-term force-feeding without stress for the cat.
188
Why is it dangerous to stimulate appetite by diazepam administration?
Since the risk for HE is a contraindication for drugs activating the GABA/benzodiazepine receptor system, overstimulation of which is part of the pathogenenis of HE.
189
Cats with hepatic lipidosis can easily develop .......................with hyperglycemia, which may gradually increase glucose levels to those seen in diabetes mellitus.
Insulin resistance. This insulin resistance implies that very large doses of insulin would be needed, with the inherent risk for sudden hypoglycemia. A benefit of treatment with insulin has never been demonstrated, and it is advised to restrict the therapy to forced feeding.
190
Why is glucocorticoids contraindicated?
Because they stimulate lipolysis and fatty acid accumulation in the liver, induce catabolism, and increase the risk for hyperglycemia.
191
It is essential to try to identify the primary cause of anorexia. Not eating is very nonspecific and may be caused by multiple factors. Most frequent hepatobiliary disease causing lipidosis in cats?
Neutrophilic or lymphocytic cholangitis and hepatic lymphosarcoma are the most frequent hepatobiliary diseases causing lipidosis.
192
There are several copper-associated forms of chronic hepatitis in dogs, and with careful evaluation of the causes of hepatitis in different breeds, there may be more forms of hepatitis in which abnormal copper metabolism is primary that are being understood. The goal is not only to treat these cases successfully with chelating and other drugs but also?
To prevent disease.
193
PARENCHYMAL LIVER DISEASES: Parenchymal liver diseases may be divided into?
1. Metabolic diseases affecting the liver, such as steroid hepatopathy and lipidosis of the liver as occurs with diabetes or that induced by catabolism in fasting cats 2. Systemic diseases secondarily involving the liver, including hypoxic necrosis of the liver and nonspecific reactive hepatitis due to endotoxemia 3. Primary hepatitis (chronic or acute) of toxic, viral, or unknown etiology; copper storage diseases with secondary hepatitis; and the end-stage of each form of chronic hepatitis—cirrhosis.
194
Many of the metabolic diseases and diseases in which the liver is secondarily involved do not need specific treatment of the liver. The regenerative capacity of the liver will result in spontaneous recovery upon successful treatment of the underlying disease. Parenchymal liver diseases that need specific treatment are?
Acute and chronic hepatitis (including lobular dissecting hepatitis) Copper-associated hepatitis in dogs Cirrhosis in dogs Hepatic abscesses in dogs Liver lipidosis in cats.
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HEPATITIS IN DOGS: Acute Idiopathic Hepatitis. The etiology of hepatitis is not known in most cases. Viruses may be the cause of acute idiopathic hepatitis in dogs in analogy to many other species. This implies that treatments with immunosuppressive drugs (..........., ...........) used for chronic hepatitis are contraindicated for acute hepatitis, in which there may be florid viral infection. In fact, most cases of acute hepatitis recover spontaneously and need only supportive care with antiemetics and fluid therapy.
prednisolone, azathioprine
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Oxidative intracellular damage may in theory be part of the pathogenesis of many liver diseases, however, a positive effect of antioxidants has never been shown in acute idiopathic hepatitis. Acute hepatitis in dogs is almost never caused by bacterial infection, therefore there is no need to treat for an infectious agent with antibiotics. As a routine, idiopathic acute hepatitis, which is a histopathologic diagnosis, does not need specific treatment. Supportive care may be indicated. The most important point in making the diagnosis of acute idiopathic hepatitis is that the disease may progress into chronic hepatitis. Usually recovery from acute idiopathic hepatitis takes place in about 3 weeks. Beginning forms of chronic hepatitis can be treated very successfully with prednisolone preventing advanced fibrosis or cirrhosis.
Oxidative intracellular damage may in theory be part of the pathogenesis of many liver diseases, however, a positive effect of antioxidants has never been shown in acute idiopathic hepatitis. Acute hepatitis in dogs is almost never caused by bacterial infection, therefore there is no need to treat for an infectious agent with antibiotics. As a routine, idiopathic acute hepatitis, which is a histopathologic diagnosis, does not need specific treatment. Supportive care may be indicated. The most important point in making the diagnosis of acute idiopathic hepatitis is that the disease may progress into chronic hepatitis. Usually recovery from acute idiopathic hepatitis takes place in about 3 weeks. Beginning forms of chronic hepatitis can be treated very successfully with prednisolone preventing advanced fibrosis or cirrhosis.
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It is important to ask the pet owner if ............. or mushroom toxins (.............) may have been ingested recently. These toxic forms of hepatitis are caused by..............damage and require specific treatment. Phalloidin intoxication should be treated with ................ Any other antioxidant therapy, such as .........., should also be useful, but reports have focused on silymarin. Supportive care, induction of vomiting in very acute intoxication, and measures to prevent or reduce HE are also indicated. Many dogs die within 1 week due to ....... and ....... failure.
It is important to ask the pet owner if acetaminophen or mushroom toxins (phalloidin) may have been ingested recently. These toxic forms of hepatitis are caused by oxidative damage and require specific treatment. Phalloidin intoxication should be treated with silymarin. Any other antioxidant therapy, such as SAMe, should also be useful, but reports have focused on silymarin Supportive care, induction of vomiting in very acute intoxication, and measures to prevent or reduce HE are also indicated. Many dogs die within 1 week due to liver and kidney failure.
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Acetaminophen intoxication should be treated similarly to phalloidin intoxication. There are several reports on the favorable effect of ..............treatment for acetaminophen intoxicationbut the classical treatment is with the combination of N-........., vitamin ... and ............. Historically, acetaminophen and phalloidin intoxication have had different treatments, but it is logical to expect good effect from both silymarin and SAMe in conjunction with symptomatic therapy. Dogs with acetaminophen intoxication may develop .............., and a blood transfusion may be required.
Acetaminophen intoxication should be treated similarly to phalloidin intoxication. There are several reports on the favorable effect of SAMe treatment for acetaminophen intoxicationbut the classical treatment is with the combination of N-acetylcysteine, vitamin C and cimetidine. Historically, acetaminophen and phalloidin intoxication have had different treatments, but it is logical to expect good effect from both silymarin and SAMe in conjunction with symptomatic therapy. Dogs with acetaminophen intoxication may develop hemolysis, and a blood transfusion may be required.
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Leptospirosis is an acute disease primarily of the ..........., but it causes also a nonspecific ........... hepatitis with intrahepatic ................. .............. is therefore common, although the symptoms arise mainly from acute nephritis. Each dog with acute disease displaying ............ together with acute .............. failure should be treated immediately with ampicillin or amoxicillin clavulanate.
Leptospirosis is an acute disease primarily of the kidneys, but it causes also a nonspecific reactive hepatitis with intrahepatic cholestasis. Icterus is therefore common, although the symptoms arise mainly from acute nephritis. Each dog with acute disease displaying icterus together with acute renal failure should be treated immediately with ampicillin or amoxicillin clavulanate. If the diagnosis is confirmed by high IgM titer, antibiotics are continued until kidney function is restored. Of course the acute renal failure should also be treated with fluid therapy.
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Liver abscesses are rare in dogs and cats. Treatment is by surgical removal of the abscess after pretreatment with antibiotics. The choice for specific antibiotics should be based on culture of an ultrasound-guided fine needle aspirate. Staphylococcus and Clostridium are most common Chronic hepatitis is one of the most common liver diseases in dogs. In most cases it is not possible to indicate a cause (idiopathic hepatitis). The inflammatory cells are lymphocytes and plasma cells, indicating that at least part of the pathogenesis may be immune mediated. The only well-documented therapy is with glucocorticoids. Prednisolone should be given until the inflammation (liver cell necrosis and infiltration with inflammatory cells) has recovered completely. Severe fibrosis or cirrhosis may require lifelong support by dietary measures and lactulose. Copper-associated forms of hepatitis: If there is active hepatitis, treatment should be with copper-chelating drugs such as penicillamine. Prevention of clinical disease in early diagnosed cases, or maintenance therapy when chelation therapy has stopped the inflammation, can be achieved with zinc salts Dobermans, especially females 5 to 7 years old, may display a specific form of hepatitis, called Doberman hepatitis. The prognosis of this disease has generally been reported to be bad. However, there are recent results of studies in Dobermans indicating that copper is the primary cause of hepatitis in these dogs. We have treated Doberman hepatitis only with penicillamine, and this has resulted in complete remission of the disease. Loblular dissecting hepatitis is a very severe form of hepatitis, developing very rapidly and usually lethal within 2 to 4 weeks. There is very pronounced fibrosis, which is the reason that, despite the acute course, this disease is classified under the chronic forms of hepatitis. Medication with immunosuppressive drugs is usually without success, and there is no report of a successful medical treatment for this disease.
Liver abscesses are rare in dogs and cats. Treatment is by surgical removal of the abscess after pretreatment with antibiotics. The choice for specific antibiotics should be based on culture of an ultrasound-guided fine needle aspirate. Staphylococcus and Clostridium are most common Chronic hepatitis is one of the most common liver diseases in dogs. In most cases it is not possible to indicate a cause (idiopathic hepatitis). The inflammatory cells are lymphocytes and plasma cells, indicating that at least part of the pathogenesis may be immune mediated. The only well-documented therapy is with glucocorticoids. Prednisolone should be given until the inflammation (liver cell necrosis and infiltration with inflammatory cells) has recovered completely. Severe fibrosis or cirrhosis may require lifelong support by dietary measures and lactulose. Copper-associated forms of hepatitis: If there is active hepatitis, treatment should be with copper-chelating drugs such as penicillamine. Prevention of clinical disease in early diagnosed cases, or maintenance therapy when chelation therapy has stopped the inflammation, can be achieved with zinc salts Dobermans, especially females 5 to 7 years old, may display a specific form of hepatitis, called Doberman hepatitis. The prognosis of this disease has generally been reported to be bad. However, there are recent results of studies in Dobermans indicating that copper is the primary cause of hepatitis in these dogs. We have treated Doberman hepatitis only with penicillamine, and this has resulted in complete remission of the disease. Loblular dissecting hepatitis is a very severe form of hepatitis, developing very rapidly and usually lethal within 2 to 4 weeks. There is very pronounced fibrosis, which is the reason that, despite the acute course, this disease is classified under the chronic forms of hepatitis. Medication with immunosuppressive drugs is usually without success, and there is no report of a successful medical treatment for this disease.
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DISEASES OF THE BILIARY SYSTEM: Destructive Cholangitis in Dogs: This is strictly not a form of hepatitis but an ..........reaction in dogs, nearly always to drugs containing .......... Necrosis of the smaller intrahepatic bile ductules is the result, and these dogs display extremely severe.................... The necrosis of the intrahepatic bile ductules is irreversible, and the only hope is that it is possible to save and exploit the remaining biliary system. In our experience it is essential to start treatment with ............ immediately.
Destructive Cholangitis in Dogs: This is strictly not a form of hepatitis but an idiosyncratic reaction in dogs, nearly always to drugs containing sulfonamides. Necrosis of the smaller intrahepatic bile ductules is the result, and these dogs display extremely severe intrahepatic cholestasis. The first action is immediate withdrawal of the sulfonamide medication. The necrosis of the intrahepatic bile ductules is irreversible, and the only hope is that it is possible to save and exploit the remaining biliary system. In our experience it is essential to start treatment with UDCA immediately. Long-term reaction in the liver: Chronic cholestasis may induce chronic damage to the liver with continuous loss of functional hepatocytes and activation of the deposition of fibrous tissue. This may finally produce porto-portal bridging fibrosis in the liver (biliary fibrosis) which, although the architecture of the liver lobules remains intact, can give rise to portal hypertension. Ascites and formation of acquired portosystemic shunting may result.
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Neutrophilic Cholangitis in Cats: This disease is characterized by a neutrophilic inflammation of the biliary tract, and synonyms are suppurative or acute cholangitis. This is essentially a septic disease, and it is therefore required to sample bile from the gall bladder by ultrasound-guided puncture (odling/cytologi). In the vast majority of cases, ................... is cultured, but .................or other bacteria may also be identified. It may in some cases be an infection superimposed on preexisting bile duct obstruction associated with ............., .............., or ..............disease. Bile duct obstruction requires surgical decompression and antibiotic medication guided by culture of bile. True, uncomplicated neutrophilic cholangitis is an acute disease characterized only by ..........infection of the bile ducts as evaluated with the combination of bile culture, liver histology, and ultrasonography. Uncomplicated neutrophilic cholangitis responds quickly to antibiotic therapy. Amoxicillin clavulanate, amoxicillin, or ampicillin may be the first choice treatment until the results of culture become available.
In the vast majority of cases, Escherichia coli is cultured, but staphylococci or other bacteria may also be identified. It may in some cases be an infection superimposed on preexisting bile duct obstruction associated with cholelithiasis, pancreatic, or intestinal disease. Bile duct obstruction requires surgical decompression and antibiotic medication guided by culture of bile. True, uncomplicated neutrophilic cholangitis is an acute disease characterized only by bacterial infection of the bile ducts as evaluated with the combination of bile culture, liver histology, and ultrasonography. Uncomplicated neutrophilic cholangitis responds quickly to antibiotic therapy. Amoxicillin clavulanate, amoxicillin, or ampicillin may be the first choice treatment until the results of culture become available.
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Lymphocytic cholangitis is a chronic disease of the bile ducts, both intrahepatic and extra hepatic. Secondarily, inflammation with fibrosis may also affect the portal tracts. Both in the bile system and in the portal tracts, lymphocytes are the predominant inflammatory cell type. Because the principle site of the disease is the bile system, not the liver, the standardized name is lymphocytic cholangitis, but it is also called cholangiohepatitis; chronic, lymphoplasmacytic, or nonsuppurative cholangitis; and sclerosing cholangitis. The cause is unknown, but a similar form of chronic cholangitis may be due to liver fluke infection, which occurs on all continents. The chronic bile duct inflammation of lymphocytic cholangitis causes irregularly distended ............... bile ducts that are prone to secondary bacterial infection. In patients with ................, treatment with UDCA is contraindicated, whereas it is one of the most useful medications for ......................... In most cases the difference can only be seen with histologic examination of a liver biopsy; the two diseases have different histologic characteristics. Liver fluke eggs may also be visible histologically in the bile ducts but should also be evaluated with fecal examination. There is rarely any response to even very long term, high-dose glucocorticoid medication. ...............may be the only generally advised drug for which there is at least a theoretical basis for use. As outlined earlier, it has beneficial effects on cholestatic diseases in different ways.
The chronic bile duct inflammation of lymphocytic cholangitis causes irregularly distended fibrotic bile ducts that are prone to secondary bacterial infection. In patients with obstruction, treatment with UDCA is contraindicated, whereas it is one of the most useful medications for lymphocytic cholangitis. In most cases the difference can only be seen with histologic examination of a liver biopsy; the two diseases have different histologic characteristics. Liver fluke eggs may also be visible histologically in the bile ducts but should also be evaluated with fecal examination. There is rarely any response to even very long term, high-dose glucocorticoid medication. UDCA may be the only generally advised drug for which there is at least a theoretical basis for use. As outlined earlier, it has beneficial effects on cholestatic diseases in different ways.
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Inflammatory Canine Hepatic Disease: CHRONIC HEPATITIS CH refers to canine hepatic disease that is chronic—that is, lasting more than ......to.......months—that has hepatocellular apoptosis or .............. associated with an inflammatory infiltrate (often mixed, but predominately lymphoplasmacytic), and typically progresses to ........... and .......... The etiology, if known, should be included as an adjective (e.g., drug-induced CH, copper-associated CH); otherwise the CH is termed idiopathic.
CH refers to canine hepatic disease that is chronic—that is, lasting more than 4 to 6 months—that has hepatocellular apoptosis or necrosis associated with an inflammatory infiltrate (often mixed, but predominately lymphoplasmacytic), and typically progresses to fibrosis and cirrhosis.[1] The etiology, if known, should be included as an adjective (e.g., drug-induced CH, copper-associated CH); otherwise the CH is termed idiopathic.
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CH has various causes including .........., .........., or ..............., and there are familial tendencies.
CH has various causes including copper, drugs, or infectious agents, and there are familial tendenciesand there are familial tendencies. Breeds reported to have an increased frequency of CH include Doberman Pinscher, Bedlington Terrier, West Highland White Terrier, Cocker Spaniel, Dalmatian, Skye Terrier, Standard Poodle, Labrador Retriever, German Shepherd Dog, Scottish Terrier, English Springer Spaniel, and Beagle.
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Immune mechanisms may be important for development of CH in some dogs, and .......... lymphocytes were the most common hepatic lymphoid cells of dogs with CH in two studies. Antinuclear antibodies (...........) and ................ to liver membrane proteins have occasionally been found in dogs with CH, but the ANA is extremely nonspecific. Major ................. class II antigen expression on hepatocytes from Dobermans with CH, but not unaffected control dogs, has also been suggested to support an immune mechanism.
Immune mechanisms may be important in some dogs and CD3+ lymphocytes were the most common hepatic lymphoid cells of dogs with CH in two studies. Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) and antibodies to liver membrane proteins have occasionally been found in dogs with CH, but the ANA is extremely nonspecific. Major histocompatibility complex class II antigen expression on hepatocytes from Dobermans with CH, but not unaffected control dogs, has also been suggested to support an immune mechanism
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Hepatic copper has been associated with CH in Boxers and Anatolian Shepherds. In Bedlington Terriers inability to excrete copper into the ...........causes formation of .............. species (hydroxyl radicals), which produce.............and ultimately cirrhosis. Copper also accumulates secondary to ..........., ............, and increased dietary ............, but cholestasis and inflammation seemingly cause relatively minor increases in hepatic copper.
Hepatic copper has been associated with CH in Boxers and Anatolian Shepherds. In Bedlington Terriers inability to excrete copper into the biliary tract causes formation of reactive oxygen species (hydroxyl radicals), which produce CH and ultimately cirrhosis. Copper also accumulates secondary to cholestasis, inflammation, and increased dietary copper intake, but cholestasis and inflammation seemingly cause relatively minor increases in hepatic copper. Fanconi syndrome has been found in dogs with copper-associated CH; however, it was not clear whether copper was responsible for the renal dysfunction.
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Iron can accumulate in the liver of dogs with hepatic disease. Iron accumulated in .............. and ............... but not ................ Iron accumulation seems secondary to ............., ..........., and/or ...............accumulation. It has been hypothesized that iron accumulation in the hepatic parenchyma may aggravate preexisting hepatic damage
Iron can accumulate in the liver of dogs with hepatic disease. Iron accumulated in Kupffer cells and macrophages but not hepatocytes. Iron accumulation seems secondary to inflammation, necrosis, and/or copper accumulation. It has been hypothesized that iron accumulation in the hepatic parenchyma may aggravate preexisting hepatic damage
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Alpha-1 antitrypsin (α1-AT), also known as ............... might cause canine CH. As hepatocytes accumulate α1-AT, they die and attract mononuclear cells whose cytokines cause production of more α1-AT.
Alpha-1 antitrypsin (α1-AT), also known as alpha-1 protease inhibitor, might cause canine CH. As hepatocytes accumulate α1-AT, they die and attract mononuclear cells whose cytokines cause production of more α1-AT.
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CH: Increased ALT activity is the primary clinical laboratory finding. SAP is often increased, but the pattern is often dissimilar from classic steroid hepatopathy, in which SAP is many times higher than ALT. If CH progresses to cirrhosis, hepatic enzymes may decrease to reference ranges. . Finding hypoalbuminemia and/or hypocholesterolemia suggests either hepatic ................................or ...................... Hyperglobulinemia occurs less commonly than hypoalbuminemia.
Finding hypoalbuminemia and/or hypocholesterolemia suggests either hepatic insufficiency (cirrhosis) or protein-losing enteropathy.
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CH: Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) may be due to?
Hepatic insufficiency Decreased protein intake, Excessive loss due to polyuria All of which occur in dogs with CH.
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CH: Hematologic abnormalities may include.......?
Anemia of chronic disease, sometimes with microcytosis, leukocytosis, and/or thrombocytopenia. Approximately to of patients have prolonged PT and PTT
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CH: If ascites is present, it is usually either .......
A modified transudate or a low protein transudate associated with fibrosis or cirrhosis.
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Copper chelation therapy typically involves penicillamine. Penicillamine also has ........... effects, and it inhibits .................
Copper chelation therapy typically involves penicillamine. Penicillamine also has antiinflammatory effects, and it inhibits fibrosis. Penicillamine therapy causes vomiting in approximately 30% of treated animals, but administering it with food may decrease such side effects
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Orally administered zinc decreases intestinal copper absorption. Excessive zinc can cause?
Hemolytic anemia, and blood zinc concentrations need to be checked periodically
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Fibrosis and cirrhosis may result from any severe or chronic hepatic insult. Inflammatory cells cause hepatocellular ............, which creates ............. (hepatocyte dropout) that is filled by more ............. cells. The liver's response to necrosis is to produce ............... and bile duct ...................... However, lysosomal ............... and ............... released by inflammatory cells disrupt normal hepatic extracellular matrix (ECM) and cellular membranes, causing release of substances such as ................., which attract collagen-producing cells (.......cells).
Inflammatory cells cause hepatocellular necrosis, which creates space (hepatocyte dropout) that is filled by more inflammatory cells. The liver's response to necrosis is to produce hepatocytes and bile duct epithelium. However, lysosomal proteases and radicals released by inflammatory cells disrupt normal hepatic extracellular matrix (ECM) and cellular membranes, causing release of substances such as transforming growth factor-β, which attract collagen-producing cells (Ito cells). Fibrosis causes ECM modification, and hepatocytes growing on it may have functional alterations.
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Fibrosis follows the course of inflammation and necrosis, and disease-producing portal inflammation that reaches out to lobules and other portal areas causes bridging fibrosis, a “bridge” of fibrous connective tissue from one portal area to another. Cirrhosis is when?
Is when bridging fibrosis causes permanent hepatic distortion, regenerative nodules, and portocentral vascular anastomoses. Fibrosis cutting across acinar zones causes micronodular cirrhosis. Fibrosis dividing the liver into groups of acini with more than one portal tract within each nodule causes macronodular cirrhosis. Fibrosis only surrounding bile ducts causes biliary cirrhosis. Excess collagen production limits the ability of vessels and sinusoids to distend, increasing resistance to blood flow. As cirrhosis persists, the type of collagen laid down may be less susceptible to collagenase activity, making it harder to remove
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Preventing fibrosis is an important long-term goal in any chronic inflammatory disease. Which medicines can be used to inhibit or delay fibrosis?
Prednisolone, azathioprine, penicillamine, zinc, and vitamin E appear to inhibit or delay fibrosis.
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Which medicine may be used if severe fibrosis already exists?
Colchicine, a microtubule assembly inhibitor, increases collagenase activity
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Bedlington Terriers have a high incidence of an autosomal recessive metabolic defect in .............. copper ............. The gene responsible for this defect: ................... Bedlingtons homozygous for the trait progressively accumulate copper in their livers, possibly beginning in utero
Bedlington Terriers have a high incidence of an autosomal recessive metabolic defect in biliary copper excretion. The gene responsible for this defect: COMMD1. Bedlingtons homozygous for the trait progressively accumulate copper in their livers, possibly beginning in utero. Initially, affected dogs asymptomatically accumulate copper in the centrolobular region (zone 3). When hepatic copper reaches 1500 to 2000 ppm, it is also found in zones 1 and 2 (midzonal and periportal areas), and histologic damage becomes evident. Once sufficient copper has accumulated in the liver, otherwise insignificant stress may trigger acute hepatic necrosis, which may be complicated by acute hemolysis and renal failure due to release of large amounts of copper.
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Clinical signs of copper intoxication may be those of acute hepatic disease, such as vomiting, anorexia, and lethargy, from which they may recover. Signs of chronic hepatic failure—anorexia, vomiting, depression, and loss of body condition—ultimately progress to obvious hepatic failure, with jaundice, ascites, and/or hepatic encephalopathy or acute hepatic failure coupled with hemolytic anemia and jaundice. Serum and plasma copper or ceruloplasmin concentrations are not useful; diagnosis requires?
Hepatic histopathology. Accumulation of copper in lysosomal granules is the first histologic abnormality. As hepatic copper levels increase, random areas of focal inflammation occur. Inflammatory infiltrates extend out from portal triads as disease progresses, with occasional bridging necrosis and some fibrosis. Finally cirrhosis occurs. Hepatic copper levels increase until about 6 years of age but then begin to decrease, possibly because copper-laden hepatocytes are replaced with scar tissue or regenerative nodules. Hepatic iron concentrations are also increased.
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Middle-aged, female Doberman Pinschers are at increased risk for severe CH and cirrhosis. These patients have altered ...............into the bile
These patients have altered copper excretion into the bile. Clinical presentation and clinical pathology findings are as described under CH, but PU/PD, splenomegaly, neutrophilic leukocytosis, normal to increased PCV, and bleeding may be more common than in affected patients of other breeds. Many patients presenting with clinical illness die within weeks of the first signs of disease Current thought is that copper is responsible for hepatic damage in Doberman hepatitis; but the pathogenesis is different than in Bedlington terriers with immune mechanisms playing a role. Hepatic iron concentrations tend to be increased
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Infectious Canine Hepatitis and Chronic Hepatitis: Which viruses for ex? Common? Infectious Canine Hepatitis and Chronic Hepatitis
Canine adenovirus 1 Parovirus Findings varies between different studies. Some have hypothesized that the viral infection initiates a self-perpetuating inflammatory hepatic disease.
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Lobular dissecting hepatitis is characterized by? Standard Poodles may be at increased risk, but it is uncertain whether their lesions are lobular dissecting hepatitis.
Inflammatory cells found diffusely throughout the hepatic lobule, as opposed to primarily in periportal regions, plus collagen and reticulin fibers dissecting around small groups or single hepatocytes. Copper may be found in the liver but appears to be a secondary event. Hepatic enzymes are typically increased, and ascites from portal hypertension is probably the most common presenting clinical sign. This syndrome appears most commonly in neonatal and juvenile dogs (mean of 11 months old in one series).
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DRUG-ASSOCIATED HEPATITIS Most hepatotoxic drugs cause hepatocellular degeneration, necrosis, or fibrosis with minimal inflammation. Inflammatory infiltrates have more commonly been associated with?
Trimethoprim/sulfadiazine phenobarbital diethylcarbamazine-oxibendazole amiodarone carprofen although they are usually relatively mild and do not closely resemble CH
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Cholangiohepatitis is defined by?
Mixed periportal (zone 1) inflammatory infiltrates, with inflammation usually extending through and into the bile ducts. Bacterial infections must be eliminated, usually by cytology or culture of bile. Serum bilirubin, ALT, SAP, and serum bile acids tend to be higher than expected with CH, but one cannot discriminate between CH and cholangiohepatitis based upon laboratory values. Drugs can sometimes be responsible.
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The most common clinical presentation of dogs with leptospirosis is acute renal failure. Depending upon the serovar involved, dogs may or may not have concurrent hepatic disease (increased SAP, hyperbilirubinemia). The characteristic hepatic lesion of acutely affected dogs usually consists of?
Edema and sinusoidal congestion with occasional, mild neutrophilic and eosinophilic infiltrates. Serovar grippotyphosa has been suggested to cause CH.
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Granulomatous hepatitis is an uncommon hepatopathy differing from CH in that ................... are a predominate finding. The lesion tends to be multifocal and can be caused by numerous bacteria and parasites. Many cases of canine granulomatous hepatitis are idiopathic.
macrophages
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Does leishmaniasis commonly cause signs of hepatic disease?
Dogs with leishmaniasis seldom have clinical signs of hepatic disease. Biochemical changes (e.g., hypoalbuminemia, increased SAP, hyperbilirubinemia) are occasionally found, but histologic changes are common. Most infected dogs have granulomatous or pyogranulomatous portal infiltrates.
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Does babesiosis commonly cause signs of hepatic disease?
Nonsuppurative hepatitis has been reported in dogs with babesiosis. However, classic signs of babesiosis, such as anemia and fever are typical, and the hepatic lesions are usually not confused with primary hepatic disease.
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Different variants of the previously termed cholangitis/cholangiohepatitis complex have been described based on histopathologic features of the lesions including the predominant nature of the inflammatory cellular infiltrate (i.e., neutrophilic or suppurative, lymphocytic or nonsuppurative) and bile duct proliferation and presence of fibrosis. Regardless terminology: the most striking feature of the lesions is generally whether......?
........they have a predominantly neutrophilic infiltration or whether the inflammatory infiltrate is predominantly lymphocytic in nature. (It has been postulated that lymphocytic cholangitis and neutrophilic cholangitis may be essentially part of the same disease syndrome, with lymphocytic cholangitis representing a chronic stage of an earlier neutrophilic cholangitis. However, in contrast to neutrophilic cholangitis, lymphocytic cholangitis occurs more often in young cats, with more than 50% of cases in cats younger than 4 years of age........) A small proportion of cats with inflammatory liver disease show a mixed-cell infiltrate consisting of both neutrophils and lymphocytes.
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Whether the predominantly neutrophilic infiltration or whether the inflammatory infiltrate is predominantly lymphocytic in nature is the basis for the WSAVA classification scheme; which broadly classifies cholangitis into three distinct forms: Which ones?
Lymphocytic cholangitis, neutrophilic cholangitis, and cholangitis associated with liver fluke. These different forms broadly correlate with different clinical presentations, and this classification system has some practical relevance to the management of affected cats
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Inflammatory lesions are a feature of some other feline disorders that affect the liver, but other pathologic features dominate. These include?
These include infectious diseases such as feline infectious peritonitis (FIP), protozoal infections (most notably toxoplasmosis), bartonellosis, and hepatotoxicities particularly associated with drugs including diazepam and tetracyclines.
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The WSAVA Liver Standardization Group suggests that the term cholangitis rather than cholangiohepatitis be used because?
Inflammatory disruption of the limiting plate to involve hepatic parenchyma is not a consistent feature and, if present, is usually an extension of a primary cholangitis.
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The dominant histopathologic feature in neutrophilic cholangitis is?
A primarily neutrophilic infiltrate within the bile duct lumen and/or epithelium, although there may also be a range of inflammatory cells including lymphocytes and plasma cells. Neutrophilic cholangitis can be further divided into acute and chronic phases: In the acute stage there may be disruption of the limiting plate with infiltrate extending into the portal areas. The neutrophilic inflammation may extend to the hepatic parenchyma and may result in hepatic abscesses. Periportal necrosis is common. The bile ducts themselves show necrosis and degeneration. Fibrosis and bile duct proliferation may occur in the more chronic stages, together with a more mixed inflammatory infiltrate in portal areas with neutrophils, lymphocytes, and plasma cells.
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Other specific disease entities frequently accompany neutrophilic cholangitis. The most commonly reported of these is?
Pancreatitis, characterized histologically by periductal infiltration, acinar degeneration, fibrosis, and nodular hyperplasia. The extent of the pancreatitis is generally mild. Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)
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The term triaditis has been used to describe a syndrome of concurrent cholangitis, pancreatitis, and IBD. The association of these entities may indicate a common underlying disease process in some cases. Neutrophilic cholangitis is believed to result from?
Ascending infection of the biliary tract from the intestine
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Ascending infection from the intestine is also believed to be an important factor in the development of pancreatitis. The pancreatic and bile ducts are joined before entering the ........... and this may predispose to concurrent development of pancreatitis and neutrophilic cholangitis. It is possible that the presence of ......... may predispose to ascending infection
The pancreatic and bile ducts are joined before entering the duodenum and this may predispose to concurrent development of pancreatitis and neutrophilic cholangitis. It is possible that the presence of IBD may predispose to ascending infection. In triaditis the predominant clinical features are most often associated with the cholangitis, with the pancreatitis and IBD being identified as complications.
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In lymphocytic cholangitis (previously also termed nonsuppurative cholangitis/cholangiohepatitis, lymphocytic cholangiohepatitis, lymphocytic portal hepatitis) the inflammatory infiltrate is predominantly lymphocytic. Histologically findings?
There is a consistent infiltration of small lymphocytes in and restricted to the portal areas, often associated with variable portal fibrosis and biliary ductular proliferation. Lymphocytes centering around bile ducts or present in the biliary epithelium may be seen. In a proportion of these cases with lymphocytic cholangitis, solitary plasma cells and eosinophils may also be present. A distinct pathologic process that has also been noted in cats is that of lymphocytic portal hepatitis. It is not clear whether what has been termed lymphocytic portal hepatitis is a distinct separate entity or a variant of lymphocytic cholangitis.
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Association between IBD and pancreatitis, and lymphocytic cholangitis?
IBD and pancreatitis have been reported to be common in cases described as lymphocytic portal hepatitis. Pancreatitis has been recognized in combination with lymphocytic cholangitis, but previous reports do not reveal any evidence of a striking associations. The etiology of lymphocytic cholangitis is unknown, although an immune-mediated mechanism is believed to contribute to the pathogenesis.
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Liver fluke infestation resulting in chronic cholangitis is commonly encountered in cats in endemic areas. The fluke lifecycle requires two intermediate hosts; ..........; and a variety of ........ Cats become infected by ingestion of raw fish. Following ingestion flukes migrate from the intestine, up ........... and into the ......... This results in dilated large ........... with papillary projections and ................ and ........... fibrosis. A mixed mild to moderate inflammatory infiltrate may be present within bile ducts and portal areas. Liver flukes and eggs may be present within bile ducts, but these are rarely evident.
Liver fluke infestation resulting in chronic cholangitis is commonly encountered in cats in endemic areas. The fluke lifecycle requires two intermediate hosts; water snails; and a variety of fish. Cats become infected by ingestion of raw fish. Following ingestion flukes migrate from the intestine, up bile ducts and into the liver. This results in dilated large bile ducts with papillary projections and periductal and portal fibrosis. A mixed mild to moderate inflammatory infiltrate may be present within bile ducts and portal areas. Liver flukes and eggs may be present within bile ducts, but these are rarely evident.
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Cholelithiasis is occasionally seen in cases of neutrophilic cholangitis, and the majority of reported cases of cholelithiasis have been associated with neutrophilic cholangitis.
(Rarely, another underlying primary cause of cholelithiasis may be identified. For example, pyruvate kinase deficiency, an inherited hemolytic disorder encountered in Somali and Abyssinian cats, has been reported to cause bilirubin cholelithiasis associated with chronic haemolysis) Rarely, another underlying primary cause of Gallstones can be radiolucent, although calcification is a common feature
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The two main presenting signs in lymphocytic cholangitis are?
(1) jaundice and (2) progressive ascites, with jaundice appearing to be more common. Occasionally both clinical signs are present. However, in some cats the only reported clinical sign is progressive weight loss despite a normal or increased appetite, and in others hepatomegaly is detected as an incidental finding with minimal clinical signs reported.
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Diagnosis of lymphocytic cholangitis?
An increase in liver enzymes (ALT, ALP, and GGT) and bile acids that can be severe is usually seen. Bilirubin levels may be increased, frequently corresponding with jaundice. . Serum globulin levels are often raised. (may reflect an increase in γ globulins) The most consistent change on hematology is lymphopenia (mild anemia etc might also be seen) If ascitic fluid is present, abdominal paracentesis will show this to be clear to yellow tinged. It is generally thick with a high protein content, the majority of which is globulin. Histopathology is required to make a definitive diagnosis.
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Treament?
Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment used based on countering immune-mediated damage to the liver. Other immunosuppressive agents are occasionally used (e.g., cyclosporine, chlorambucil, methotrexate, cyclophosphamide). Colchicine may be used. Choleretics, SAMe, and nutritional support may be helpful.
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Neutrophilic cholangitis occurs more frequently in middle-aged and older cats. Most cats in which a diagnosis of acute neutrophilic cholangitis is made are presented as sick cats with acute illness. They are usually .....
...anorexic, lethargic, and pyrexic. Jaundice is usually present and is caused by intrahepatic cholestasis, sometimes with extrahepatic biliary obstruction. There may also be evidence of abdominal pain and resentment on abdominal palpation, as well as vomiting and ptyalism.
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The most consistent changes on routine laboratory evaluation in cats with neutrophilic cholangitis are?
Increases in ALT and bilirubin. Cholestatic enzymes, ALP, and γGT are usually but not always increased, and usually raised fasting or postprandial (or both) serum bile acid concentrations are found. The most common finding on hematology is leukocytosis with neutrophilia and left shift. There may be suppression of hepatic production of clotting factors in the form of prolonged clotting times and increased PIVKA levels. The principal abnormalities on imaging are related to the extrahepatic biliary tract. Evidence of gallbladder distension usually exists, and the bile duct may appear prominent.
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Antibiotic treatment is the priority for neutrophilic cholangitis. The choice of antibiotic should ideally be based on the results of culture of bile and sensitivity tests. However, initial selection of antibiotic must be made before results of bacteriologic culture are available. Commonly found bacterias?
Escherichia coli is the most frequently isolated organism, but a mixed growth of other organisms that constitute the normal small intestinal bacterial flora (most commonly Enterococcus spp., Streptococcus spp., Clostridium spp., and Bacteroides spp.) are frequently found, reflecting ascending infection from the gut. Cholecystectomy may be necessary in some cases to remove inspissated bile.
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The ideal feature of an antibiotic selected for empiric use is that?
It should be broad spectrum, be bactericidal, achieve therapeutic levels in bile, and not require hepatic metabolism for activation or excretion
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Other treatments of neutrophilic cholangitis?
Buprenorphine generally provides good analgesia. Choleretics are of value in promoting bile flow, and this is indicated if extrahepatic biliary obstruction is not present. The beneficial effects of ursodeoxycholic acid include changing the composition of the bile acid pool by reducing the proportion of hydrophobic bile acids that have toxic effects on hepatocellular membranes in addition to potential antiinflammatory, immunomodulatory, and antifibrotic properties. Vitamin K supplementation is indicated if defects in clotting function are identified. S-adenosyl-L-methionine (SAMe): One beneficial effect is believed to be the restoration of glutathione levels that are reduced in liver disease, leading to increased oxidative damage and exacerbation of liver disease. Other beneficial effects may be to increase levels of cysteine and taurine, which are required for bile acid conjugation and a cytoprotective effect
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Hepatic Vascular Anomalies: Portosystemic shunts (PSSs): These anomalies provide a direct venous communication between...?
The portal vein and the systemic circulation, bypassing the hepatic sinusoids and liver parenchyma.
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Normally, blood draining the spleen, pancreas, stomach, and intestine enters the ........., perfuses the liver through the .............network, and finally drains through the ......... into the caudal vena cava (CVC).
Normally, blood draining the spleen, pancreas, stomach, and intestine enters the portal vein, perfuses the liver through the sinusoidal network, and finally drains through the hepatic veins into the caudal vena cava (CVC).
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Portal blood carries many substances to the liver including? .................. The fetal liver has limited function to process these products, and a large shunting vessel, the ......................, bypasses the hepatic circulation as a protective mechanism. This vessel typically closes shortly after birth, establishing the mature hepatic circulation. If the ............... remains patent, or other congenital communications exist, portosystemic shunting occurs.
Trophic hormones (intestinal and pancreatic), nutrients, bacterial products, and intestinal-derived toxins. The ductus venosus
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When blood bypasses the liver, trophic factors (particularly .......... and ...........) are not available to encourage hepatic growth, resulting in......?
When blood bypasses the liver, trophic factors (particularly insulin and glucagon) are not available to encourage hepatic growth, resulting in poor hepatic development, deficient protein production, reticuloendothelial dysfunction, altered fat and protein metabolism, hepatic atrophy, and eventually liver failure.
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Clinical signs are associated with the volume and origin of blood bypassing the liver, resulting in?
Impaired hepatic function, hepatic encephalopathy, chronic gastrointestinal (GI) signs, lower urinary tract signs, coagulopathies, and delayed growth. These problems are the result of the body accumulating both exogenous and endogenous toxins that are normally metabolized or eliminated by the liver, as well as the failure of normal hepatic function (e.g., gluconeogenesis, urea cycle, uric acid cycle, glycogenolysis).
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In dogs, the ............... carries oxygenated maternal blood from the placenta to the fetal systemic circulation, b............... the hepatic circulation. This fetal vessel located on the left side of the liver normally closes by approximately .........to ....... days of age.
In dogs, the ductus venosus carries oxygenated maternal blood from the placenta to the fetal systemic circulation, bypassing the hepatic circulation. This fetal vessel located on the left side of the liver normally closes by approximately 3 to 10 days of age.
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Numerous nonfunctional portocaval and portoazygous communications are present in the fetus but are not patent in the adult unless portal hypertension occurs, allowing for the development of multiple acquired extrahepatic shunts. When developmental errors occur from abnormal communications in these two systems, congenital extrahepatic portosystemic shunts (EHPSS) result Closure of the ductus venosus is initiated by?
Closure is initiated by blood pressure changes after umbilical venous flow ceases. There is evidence in some species that thromboxane or various adrenergic compounds can stimulate contraction of the musculature of the ductus venosus and may aid in the vessel's closure.
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How is congenital intrahepatic PSS (IHPSS) developed?
Abnormal vessel patency, or other abnormal developments in the vitelline venous system, results in congenital intrahepatic PSS (IHPSS). The majority of IHPSSs are not necessarily subsequent to a patent ductus venosus, and the cause of other left, right, and central divisional IHPSS or EHPSS is currently unknown.
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The portal vein is formed by the confluence of the cranial and caudal..............., providing up to 80% of the blood and 50% of the oxygen content to the liver, with the remainder being supplied by the hepatic ...........
The portal vein is formed by the confluence of the cranial and caudal mesenteric veins, providing up to 80% of the blood and 50% of the oxygen content to the liver, with the remainder being supplied by the hepatic arterial blood. Blood from the GI tract, spleen, and pancreas is drained by their respective veins, which join the portal vein. The portal vein enters the liver branching into left and right vessels that supply the various liver lobes. (The main right branch supplies the right lateral and caudate process of the caudate lobe, and the main left branch supplies all other lobes, giving off a central branch that supplies the right medial lobe). In the cat, the portal vein separates directly into left, central, and right branches.
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The portal vein branches into smaller venules where the blood enters the parenchyma via the ..................... That blood travels through the hepatic ...................., is cleansed by the ................ system, and then drains into the ................veins that converge to form larger hepatic ...............and ultimately hepatic .............. that empty into the ............
The portal vein branches into smaller venules where the blood enters the parenchyma via the portal triads. That blood travels through the hepatic sinusoids, is cleansed by the reticuloendothelial system, and then drains into the central veins that converge to form larger hepatic venules and ultimately hepatic veins that empty into the CVC. When the path is interrupted by an anomalous vessel, blood is diverted away from the liver, traveling the path of least resistance, reaching the systemic circulation prior to transversing the hepatic circulation.
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Categorization of liver vascular anomalies is often confusing and contradictory. The most recent classification suggests three separate categories of liver vascular disease:
(1) congenital IHPSSs and EHPSSs (2) disorders associated with abnormal hepatic blood flow or portal hypertension, currently termed primary hypoplasia of the portal vein (PVH) (3) disturbances in outflow.
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The second category (PVH) remains the most confusing and includes processes that may or may not result in portal hypertension. These are termed PVH ................ and PVH ............................
These are termed PVH with portal hypertension and PVH without portal hypertension. Examples of PVH with portal hypertension include noncirrhotic portal hypertension (NCPH) and hepato-portal fibrosis/venoocclusive disease. PVH without portal hypertension was previously termed microvascular dysplasia (MVD).
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PSSs can either be congenital or acquired in nature. Congenital PSS most commonly occurs as a single vessel that provides direct vascular communication between the ................ supply and the systemic ............circulation (....... or .............veins), bypassing the liver.
PSSs can either be congenital or acquired in nature. Congenital PSS most commonly occurs as a single vessel that provides direct vascular communication between the portal venous supply and the systemic venous circulation (CVC or azygous veins), bypassing the liver. This commonly occurs as a single intrahepatic or extrahepatic communication (80%).
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There are several types of congenital PSS found in both dogs and cats including.....?
Intrahepatic portocaval shunts Extrahepatic portocaval shunts Extrahepatic portoazygous shunts Portal vein atresia with resultant multiple portal-cabal anastomoses Hepatic arteriovenous malformations (HAVMs), and microintrahepatic PSS (PVH without portal hypertension, formally termed microvascular dysplasia).
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Approximately 25% to 33% of congenital PSSs are intrahepatic (IHPSSs) in both dogs and cats. Most IHPSSs occur in .................dogs, whereas most EHPSSs occur in .............breeds.
Approximately 25% to 33% of congenital PSSs are intrahepatic (IHPSSs) in both dogs and cats. Most IHPSSs occur in larger-breed dogs, whereas most EHPSSs occur in smaller breeds. Some EHPSSs, like splenocaval shunts, may be associated with less severe clinical signs because splenic blood is not of GI origin and less portal blood is being shunted away from the liver. Dogs with IHPSSs generally have the largest volume of diverted portal blood, allowing them to develop more severe clinical signs at an earlier age than those with EHPSSs or PVH.
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Acquired shunts (20%) most commonly occur secondary to?
Secondary to chronic portal hypertension in which increased portal pressures lead to the opening of fetal, vestigial blood vessels. These have also been seen as congenital abnormalities. These vessels provide an alternative to handle an increase in the hydrostatic pressure present within the portal system.
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Acquired shunts are usually multiple, tortuous, extrahepatic, and located near the kidneys. The most common causes of acquired extrahepatic shunts are?
Hepatic fibrosis (cirrhosis) Portal vein hypoplasia with portal hypertension (congenital NCPH) or HAVMs.
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Portal vein hypoplasia (also termed idiopathic noncirrhotic portal hypertension (NCPH) with portal hypertension is diagnosed when?
When there is intraabdominal portal hypertension with a patent portal vein and a noncirrhotic liver. The underlying cause of this condition is unknown but speculations include severe, diffuse intrahepatic vascular malformations without concurrent cirrhosis, resulting in portal hypertension and multiple EHPSSs.
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What is PVH without portal hypertension (previously termed MVD)?
This is a microscopic malformation of the hepatic microvasculature. It is characterized by small intrahepatic portal vessels, portal endothelial hyperplasia, portal vein dilation, random juvenile intralobular blood vessels, and central venous hypertrophy and fibrosis. These lesions may allow for abnormal communications between the portal and systemic circulation at a microvascular level. This can occur as an isolated disease, or in combination with macroscopic PSS.
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What is HAVM? (hepatic arteriovenous malformation).
HAVM is a rare condition of multiple high-pressure arterial and low-pressure venous communications. This condition, previously termed hepatic arteriovenous fistula, is more appropriately named a malformation because most are composed of numerous communications (malformation) rather than a single communication (fistula). They are usually congenital and have been described in both dogs and cats
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Hepatic encephalopathy: Most of the clinical signs associated with PSSs are due to hepatic encephalopathy (HE). HE is a neuropsychiatric syndrome involving a number of neurologic abnormalities that occurs when more than ......% of liver function is lost.
HE is a neuropsychiatric syndrome involving a number of neurologic abnormalities that occurs when more than 70 % of liver function is lost. The healthy liver serves a filtration function against a multitude of neurotoxic substances that are absorbed across the GI barrier. When liver function is altered, the liver cannot appropriately perform its role in substance clearance or metabolism, permitting toxic substances to enter the systemic circulation. This results in dramatic effects on other organs, particularly the central nervous system (CNS), creating an encephalopathic state. Multiple aspects of CNS metabolism have been implicated in the pathophysiology of HE.
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More than 20 different compounds have been identified as increased in the systemic circulation when liver function is impaired. A few of these include?
Ammonia, tryptophan, glutamine, aromatic amino acids, short-chain fatty acids, gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), and endogenous benzodiazepines
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These substances (that increase in the circulation when liver function is impaired) may lead to...?
Impede neuronal and astrocyte function, cause astrocytes to swell Depress electrical activity Inhibit membrane pumps or ion channels, Increase intracellular calcium concentrations, Interfere with neuronal oxidative metabolism.
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Of the different compounds that have been identified as increased in the systemic circulation; which one may be considered the most important?
Ammonia may be considered most important because increased concentrations trigger a sequence of metabolic events implicated in HE. Ammonia is the easiest substance to measure in animals, and treatment to decrease ammonia seems to reduce signs of HE.
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Ammonia is normally produced by GI flora and converted in the normal liver to .........and .............via the urea cycle. Ammonia is exitotoxic; it is associated with an increase release of ..............., the major excitatory neurotransmitter of the brain, and overactivation of .............. receptors, mainly N-methyl-D-aspartate receptors. This has been implicated as a cause of HE-induced seizures. With chronicity, the .............. factors surpass the excitatory stimulus, causing signs more suggestive of coma or CNS depression. These inhibitory factors include ............ and endogenous ....................
Ammonia is normally produced by GI flora and converted in the normal liver to urea and glutamine via the urea cycle. Ammonia is exitotoxic; it is associated with an increase release of glutamate, the major excitatory neurotransmitter of the brain, and overactivation of glutamate receptors, mainly N-methyl-D-aspartate receptors. This has been implicated as a cause of HE-induced seizures. With chronicity, the inhibitory factors surpass the excitatory stimulus, causing signs more suggestive of coma or CNS depression. These inhibitory factors include GABA and endogenous benzodiazepines.
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Chronic liver failure, as seen in portosystemic shunting, may be associated with longstanding metabolic dysfunction, alterations in neuronal responsiveness, and energy requirements.[ Clinical signs associated with HE are variable and most are suggestive of?
Neuroinhibition, although excitatory phenomenon like seizures, aggression, and hyperexcitability can occur.
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It is theorized that the combination of synergistic and complex metabolic derangements that occur in hepatic insufficiency are responsible for the variable signs. These include, but are not limited to?
The combination of Systemic toxins (e.g., nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), high-protein meals) and Metabolic derangements (hypoglycemia, dehydration, hypokalemia, alkalemia, GI ulceration, problems with stored blood transfusions, constipation, and drugs [sedatives, analgesics, benzodiazepines, antihistamines]).
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In cats, .............s are more commonly identified, though........................s have been reported
In cats, EHPSSs are more commonly identified, though IHPSSs have been reported
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Most dogs and cats with PSSs have signs of chronic or acute illness before ..........to ........years of age, though some have been older than 10 years of age
before 1-2 years
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The history typically suggests the PSSs pet has......?
“Failed to thrive” since birth, is small in stature (or the runt of the litter), has weight loss or failure to gain weight, has anesthetic intolerance, is dull or lethargic at times, and displays “bizarre” behavior, stargazing, head pressing, staring into walls or corners, random barking, intermittent blindness, pacing or aggression). Some pets have a history of dysuria. A complaint of polyuria and polydipsia (PU/PD) is common in dogs.
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Various theories have been proposed to explain the PU/PD in PSSs animals, including?
Poor medullary concentration gradient due to a low blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Increased renal blood flow Increased ACTH secretion and associated hypercortisolism Psychogenic polydipsia from HE.
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The three most common systems affected in PSSs animals are?
The central nervous, The GI The urinary systems
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PSSs: Why are formation of ammonium urate calculi common?
Due to decreased urea production, increased ammonia excretion, and decreased uric acid metabolism, formation of ammonium urate calculi are common and can be associated with bacterial urinary tract infections
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Clinicopathologic Hematologic changes commonly seen in PSSs animals?
Mild to moderate, microcytic, normochromic, nonregenerative anemia (The cause of the microcytic anemia is not fully understood, although studies suggest a defective iron-transport mechanism, decreased serum iron concentrations, decreased total iron-binding capacity, and increased hepatic iron stores in Kupffer cells. This may suggest iron sequestration). Erythrocyte target cells are common on morphology evaluation in dogs and poikilocytes in cats. Leukocytosis, due to inadequate hepatic endotoxin and bacteria clearance from the portal circulation
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Serum biochemical abnormalities are extremely common in animals with PSSs. Such as?
Most are due to decreased hepatic synthesis: low albumin, low BUN, hypocholesterolemia, and hypoglycemia. In cats hypoalbuminemia is uncommon but low BUN and creatinine are common. Excess serum liver enzyme activities are also common. These are usually mild to modest increases (twofold to threefold) in alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT). These abnormalities are typical of any hepatic vascular anomaly. Interestingly, the ALP is typically higher than the ALT in dogs with PSSs, likely due to the contribution of bone isoenzyme in growing animals. Hepatic organelle injury and increased release or decreased elimination of canalicular ALP has also been proposed
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Urinalysis abnormalities include?
A low urine specific gravity (>50% are hyposthenuric or isosthenuric) and ammonium biurate crystalluria. The low specific gravity likely results from the polydipsia, as well as the poor medullary concentration gradient that occurs with the low BUN subsequent to a deficient urea cycle. Hyperammonuria, also resulting from the deficient hepatic urea cycle, combined with hyperuricacidemia due to a deficiency in hepatic purine and pyrimidine metabolism (uric acid cycle), results in excessive ammonia and urate excretion in the kidneys. These compounds can precipitate into crystals or stones in the kidney or bladder. Ammonium biurate crystalluria is common. Proteinuria is often seen in dogs with PSSs, suspected to be secondary to glomerular sclerosis or another underlying glomerulopathy.
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Fasting (12 hour) and 2-hour postprandial serum bile acid (SBA) is the test of choice for evaluating liver function in animals suspected as having PSSs. Bile acids are synthesized in the liver from ............ and, following conjugation, are secreted into the............... and stored in the ................. until released into the duodenum.
Fasting (12 hour) and 2-hour postprandial serum bile acid (SBA) is the test of choice for evaluating liver function in animals suspected as having PSSs. Bile acids are synthesized in the liver from cholesterol and, following conjugation, are secreted into the bile canaliculi and stored in the gallbladder until released into the duodenum.
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Bile acids aid lipid absorption via intestinal fat ..................and ............, are reabsorbed from the ................, transported into the portal venous system, and extracted by ............. for recirculation. Production, excretion, and enterohepatic recirculation are all evaluated through .............. ..................
They aid lipid absorption via intestinal fat emulsification and metabolism, are reabsorbed from the ileum, transported into the portal venous system, and extracted by hepatocytes for recirculation.[60-63] Production, excretion, and enterohepatic recirculation are all evaluated through bile acid concentrations.
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Bile acid concentration measurements can be affected by?
The timing of the gallbladder contraction, the rate of intestinal transport, the degree of bile acid deconjugation in the small intestine, the rate and efficiency of bile acid absorption in the ileum, the portal blood flow, and the function of the hepatocyte uptake and canalicular transport.
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Increases in postprandial bile acids have been found to be 100% sensitive for detecting PSSs in dogs and cats in some studies. Other “false”-positive results unrelated to PSSs are due to?
Inappropriate sample timing, other hepatobiliary diseases/cholestasis, glucocorticoid or anticonvulsant therapy, tracheal collapse, seizures, and GI disease. Falsely lowered results can occur with delayed intestinal absorption from prolonged transport time, lack of gallbladder contraction, inadequate food intake/delayed gastric emptying, and malabsorption or maldigestion. Gallbladder contraction can occur between meals, resulting in higher preprandial than postprandial bile acid levels.
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The persistent bile acid concentration elevations identified in animals with PSSs are due to?
The shunting of the reabsorbed SBA (serum bile acids) to the systemic circulation. When false-negative test results are suspected, an ammonia tolerance test can be obtained. Two samples are evaluated: prior to and 30 minutes following ammonium chloride administration This test has been documented to have a sensitivity of 95% to 100% for hepatic insufficiency. The test should be considered carefully and is contraindicated in animals with HE. Ammonia concentrations are not as sensitive (62% to 88% PSS animals are abnormal) as the SBA test. Both false-positive and false-negative baseline ammonia levels have been documented, making a high ammonia level supportive, but not diagnostic, for PSSs
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The primary source of blood ammonia is from the GI tract, with more than 75% being generated by bacterial metabolism in the colon. The portal blood delivers ammonia to hepatocytes, where it is converted to urea via the urea cycle. In animals with PSSs, or other liver deficiencies, this conversion does not occur efficiently, resulting in increased concentrations. In cats with hyperammonemia, and HE, an inborn error in ammonia metabolism due to an?
Due to an enzyme deficiency (ornithine transcarbamylase) in the urea cycle, has been reported. Other causes of hyperammonemia in young animals include methylmalonic acidemia, other urea cycle enzyme deficiencies, and urethral obstruction-induced hyperammonemia. These conditions are not associated with PSSs.
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Prolonged coagulation times are recognized in most dogs with PSSs prior to repair, though spontaneous bleeding is rare and does not usually occur until surgical intervention is attempted. Because liver parenchymal cells synthesize most clotting factors (...............................), animals in liver failure, as seen in PSSs, would be expected to have some deficiencies and resultant coagulopathies. Approximately .................... of factor loss occurs before prolongation in the prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is observed. The liver is also involved in the regulation of coagulation by aiding in the clearance of the activated factors so that regeneration of inactivated factors and fibrinolytic factors can occur. Animals with chronic liver disease, as with PSSs, typically have prolongation only in the .........., whereas animals with acute liver disease may have prolongations in ........... ...........
(I, II, V, IX, X, XI, XIII [and VIII via the liver vascular endothelium]), 65% to 80% factor loss before prolongation in PT and PTT is observed. Animals with chronic liver disease, as with PSSs, typically have prolongation only in the PTT, whereas animals with acute liver disease may have prolongations in both PT and PTT. The prolonged PTT in PSSs is suspected to be due to a variety of factors: impaired hepatic synthesis, qualitative abnormalities, and clearance of coagulation factors (Interestingly, the deficient factors include those involved in the common (Factors II, V, and X) and extrinsic pathways (Factor VII), leading one to expect the PT to be prolonged as well. One speculation is a factor XII deficiency that can cause prolongation in PTT alone without resultant symptomatic bleeding.) Dogs with PSSs have abnormally low platelet counts preoperatively, which is worse postoperatively. No decrease in platelet count was low enough to cause clinical bleeding. This may be supportive of a postoperative consumptive coagulopathy.
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Ascites is rarely seen in dogs with single congenital PSSs, unless there is....?
Unless there is severe hypoproteinemia, severe GI bleeding, or portal hypertension associated with HAVM, NCPH, or acquired multiple EHPSS (chronic liver disease/cirrhosis). Typically the fluid for any of these conditions would be a pure transudate that is clear and relatively acellular with total protein <1000 nucleated cells/µL.
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Potassium supplementation is often necessary to PSSs dogs. Why?
Due to potassium depletion from chronic diarrhea or decreased intake, and hypokalemia may also contribute to HE
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........................... may contribute to HE and should be corrected slowly with fluid therapy and, rarely, sodium bicarbonate. It is important to verify that concurrent .......................does not exist prior to sodium bicarbonate therapy.
Metabolic acidosis may contribute to HE and should be corrected slowly with fluid therapy and, rarely, sodium bicarbonate. It is important to verify that concurrent respiratory acidosis does not exist prior to sodium bicarbonate therapy. Glucose should be supplemented in the IV fluids, particularly in young puppies with PSS, where glycogen stores and gluconeogenesis are minimal.
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Therapy for acute, severe HE includes?
Feeding nothing PO, cleansing enemas with warm water and/or lactulose, oral lactulose therapy, antibiotic therapy (metronidazole, ampicillin, or neomycin), and anticonvulsant therapy if necessary.
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GABA and its receptors have been implicated in the pathogenesis of HE. Using a benzodiazepine antagonist like flumazenil has been shown to be of benefit in humans with HE-induced comas. Mannitol should be considered in pets with severe HE or after seizure activity. In people there is an association between HE and cerebral edema. Seizure control is often initiated with.....?
With low-dose midazolam (a benzodiazepine that is preferred to diazepam due to the lack of propylene glycol as a carrying agent, which requires liver metabolism).
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Lactulose, a disaccharide that is metabolized by colonic bacteria to organic acids, can be administered either by enema or per os. How does it work?
It promotes the acidification of colonic contents, trapping ammonia in the form of ammonium, while decreasing bacterial numbers and eliminating ammonium and bacteria in the feces. The osmotic effect will result in catharsis, reducing fecal transit time and exposure to bacteria for proliferation and ammonia production.
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Antibiotics, such as metronidazole, neomycin, or ampicillin, will decease ......................., allowing for a reduction in ammonia production as well. Metronidazole and ampicillin also decrease risk of bacterial translocation and systemic infections. In pets with signs of bleeding or anemic, packed red blood cells, whole blood, or fresh frozen plasma may be of benefit. If there is evidence of HE, ......................blood is preferred as .................blood contains a decreased number of clotting factors and elevated .............. levels, potentially worsening HE.
Antibiotics, such as metronidazole, neomycin, or ampicillin, will decease GI bacterial numbers, allowing for a reduction in ammonia production as well. Metronidazole and ampicillin also decrease risk of bacterial translocation and systemic infections. In pets with signs of bleeding or anemic, packed red blood cells, whole blood, or fresh frozen plasma may be of benefit. If there is evidence of HE, fresh whole blood is preferred as stored blood contains a decreased number of clotting factors and elevated ammonia levels, potentially worsening HE.
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Nutritional management is important, particularly in young animals with poor body condition. Diets should be readily digestible, contain a protein of .................., supply enough essential fatty acids, maintain palatability, and meet the minimum requirements for vitamins and minerals.
.....protein of high biologic value (enough to meet the animal's needs, but not to encourage HE)
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Gastric bleeding/ulceration should be treated with?
Acid receptor blockade (famotidine or omeprazole) with sucralfate.
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Ascites is rarely seen in animals with PSSs unless there is severe ........................ If ascites is due to poor oncotic pressures, ............therapy should be considered. If ascites is due to portal hypertension, ................ therapy and ........... diets should be considered.
Ascites is rarely seen in animals with PSSs unless there is severe hypoalbuminemia. If ascites is due to poor oncotic pressures, colloidal therapy should be considered. If ascites is due to portal hypertension, diuretic therapy and low sodium diets should be considered. Additional sodium sources (particular treats) may exacerbate the ascites and should be avoided. Spironolactone is the initial diuretic of choice for its potassium-sparing effects. Furosemide may be necessary as well but should be used with caution because it potentiates further hypokalemia.
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Ursodeoxycholic acid is recommended for most inflammatory, oxidative, and cholestatic liver diseases and is often used in NCPH. It has ..............,................,................, as well as increasing fluidity of biliary secretions, promoting .............and decreasing the toxic effects of hydrophobic bile acids on hepatocytes.
antiinflammatory, immunomodulatory, and antifibrotic Promoting choleresis
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Silymarin is the active extract in milk thistle. Effects in hepatic patients?
Antioxidant and free radical scavenging properties of silymarin. Specifically, it has been shown to inhibit lipid peroxidation of hepatocyte and microsomal membranes and protect against gene damage by suppression of hydrogen peroxide, super-oxide, and lipoxygenase. Silymarin also increases hepatic glutathione content, appears to retard hepatic collagen formation, and has hepatoprotective effects through inhibition of Kupffer cell function.
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Toxic, Metabolic, Infectious, and Neoplastic Liver Diseases The liver occupies a central position in drug metabolism and disposition. It derives 75% of its circulation directly from splanchnic venous drainage and thus receives direct and concentrated delivery of drugs and environmental chemicals (...............) absorbed from the gut. Many ................ are capable of causing some degree of liver injury, resulting in intrinsic or idiosyncratic reactions
xenobiotics. Intrinsic hepatotoxicity results from the direct action of a xenobiotic or its metabolite on vital cell targets (e.g., acetaminophen). Many damage zone 3 and the most common pathophysiologic response is necrosis without an inflammatory infiltrate. Although we think of drug-metabolizing enzymes in their role of detoxifying xenobiotics and toxins, they may also enhance the toxicity of some.
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Figure 280-1: Schematic illustrating acinar versus lobular structure of liver. Acinus describes a 3-D cone-shaped unit that receives blood from the portal vein (PV) and hepatic arteriole (HA), which flows through the parenchyma toward the terminal hepatic venule (THV). The zones reflect different areas of susceptibility to bloodborne toxins versus hypoxia. The lobule centers around a THV and is bordered by triads of a bile ductile (BD), PV and HA. The parenchyma around the portal triads is affected by processes occurring in these three structures, especially the biliary tree.

Schematic illustrating acinar versus lobular structure of liver. Acinus describes a 3-D cone-shaped unit that receives blood from the portal vein (PV) and hepatic arteriole (HA), which flows through the parenchyma toward the terminal hepatic venule (THV). The zones reflect different areas of susceptibility to bloodborne toxins versus hypoxia. The lobule centers around a THV and is bordered by triads of a bile ductile (BD), PV and HA. The parenchyma around the portal triads is affected by processes occurring in these three structures, especially the biliary tree.

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Unlike intrinsic toxicity, idiosyncratic injury is thought to commonly involve ...............mechanisms
immune-mediated mechanisms. Because the liver has an enormous regenerative capacity, replacement of lost hepatocytes may mask detection of drug-induced injury. The outcome of intrinsic and idiosyncratic xenobiotic hepatotoxicity varies widely, ranging from cell survival to apoptosis or complete cytolytic necrosis. Nutritional status affects xenobiotic toxicity, with obesity favoring the accumulation of lipid-soluble toxic metabolites as opposed to anorexia or protein: calorie restriction in which there is a reduction of hepatic glutathione (GSH) concentrations that can augment hepatotoxicity associated with oxidant injury.
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Drug-induced liver injury can mimic all forms of spontaneous liver disease involving hepatocellular ..............., changes consistent with toxic .........., ...........or ..........., and ........... (canalicular stasis ± periportal inflammation).
Drug-induced liver injury can mimic all forms of spontaneous liver disease involving hepatocellular necrosis, changes consistent with toxic hepatitis, steatosis or lipidosis, and cholestasis (canalicular stasis ± periportal inflammation). Xenobiotic-induced hepatic necrosis may be zonal (often zone 3) or panlobular.
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“Toxic hepatitis” is characterized by?
Diffuse or multifocal hepatic necrosis and degeneration with or without canalicular cholestasis. While hepatic acinar structure is maintained, areas of necrosis and degeneration are surrounded by viable hepatocytes and an inflammatory infiltrate (neutrophils, macrophages, or eosinophils). Illness can range from asymptomatic increases in transaminases to signs of overt liver failure and jaundice.
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Steatosis (cytosolic fatty vacuolation) reflects?
Abnormal accumulation of triglycerides (TG) in the hepatocyte cytoplasm within membrane-bound vesicles in either a macrovesicular or microvesicular pattern. Microvesicular steatosis reflects severe metabolic disruptions associated with abnormal mitochondrial function and impaired TG egress from the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. When diffuse, this lesion often accompanies inflammation and hepatocellular necrosis.
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Cholestasis induced by xenobiotic toxicity results from?
Disrupted bile production or flow and may present as a periportal inflammatory lesion causing hepatocanalicular cholestasis or a less obtrusive canalicular dysfunction without inflammation and necrosis. Clinical evidence of this form of injury involves sequential increases in alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) activity, and development of hyperbilirubinemia.
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Specific Hepatic Xenobiotic Toxicities: Antimicrobials: ........... reactions are the best recognized examples in dogs. Also ................can induce hepatocellular lipid retention, as well as fulminant hepatic failure in both dogs and cats.
Antimicrobials: Sulfonamide reactions are the best recognized examples in dogs: causing acute parenchymal damage with moderate to severe increases in ALT activity, acute cholestasis associated with jaundice, or a combination of these responses. Also tetracyclines can induce hepatocellular lipid retention, as well as fulminant hepatic failure in both dogs and cats.
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Anticonvulsants: Such as?
Phenobarbital, Phenytoin, and Primidone Phenibarbital: Initial clinical signs of phenobarbital hepatopathy include sedation and ataxia caused by impaired drug metabolism. With severe liver injury, anorexia, jaundice, ascites, and coagulopathy are variably recognized. Diazepam-associated hepatotoxicity in cats is an idiosyncratic reaction causing panlobular hepatocellular necrosis sparing the biliary epithelium.
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Oxibendazole and Mebendazole:
Administration of a combination heartworm-hookworm preventative containing diethylcarbamazine and oxibendazole has been associated with lethal hepatotoxicity in dogs.
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Methimazole can cause cholestatic hepatotoxicity; this usually occurs within the first month of therapy and is suggested by increased .........., ..... and jaundice. Liver injury is .................. if the drug is discontinued. Because metabolism of toxic intermediates involves ....., it is postulated that cats with subnormal hepatic ......concentrations may be at increased risk for methimazole hepatotoxicity. Additionally, because catabolism and protein deficiency states can enhance hepatic .............. depletion, some symptomatic hyperthyroid cats may be at higher risk for methimazole toxicity.
Methimazole can cause cholestatic hepatotoxicity; this usually occurs within the first month of therapy and is suggested by increased transaminases, ALP, and jaundice. Liver injury is reversible if the drug is discontinued. Because metabolism of toxic intermediates involves GSH, it is postulated that cats with subnormal hepatic GSH concentrations may be at increased risk for methimazole hepatotoxicity. Additionally, because catabolism and protein deficiency states can enhance hepatic GSH depletion, some symptomatic hyperthyroid cats may be at higher risk for methimazole toxicity. For example, cats with preexisting gut or liver disease associated with GSH depletion (e.g., cholangitis, cholangiohepatitis) may be predisposed.
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Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can be associated with idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity, as well as dose-dependent ...... bleeding and exacerbation of .....insufficiency. Virtually all NSAIDs are capable of causing some form of liver injury. Although hepatocellular injury (necrosis) is most common, ........... injury, mixed ........../necrotic injury, ............., and granulomatous inflammation also are recognized (human). Because many toxic metabolites are normally detoxified by ......... some metabolites of NSAIDs become more toxic when hepatic ...........stores are depleted (e.g., animals with preexisting chronic necroinflammatory and cholestatic liver disease). ..........and .............. are directly hepatotoxic
Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can be associated with idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity, as well as dose-dependent GI bleeding and exacerbation of renal insufficiency. Virtually all NSAIDs are capable of causing some form of liver injury. Histologic lesions vary within and between NSAID drug classes. Although hepatocellular injury (necrosis) is most common, cholestatic injury, mixed cholestatic/necrotic injury, steatosis, and granulomatous inflammation also are recognized (human). Because many toxic metabolites are normally detoxified by GSH, some metabolites of NSAIDs become more toxic when hepatic GSH stores are depleted (e.g., animals with preexisting chronic necroinflammatory and cholestatic liver disease). Aspirin and phenylbutazone are directly hepatotoxic
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Carprofen is a lipophilic, propionic acid class NSAID. Additional problems (besides hepatic?)
Some dogs have occult hepatic injury yet lack clinical signs. Modest to markedly increased transaminase activity, exceeding the increases in ALP activity, are common. Renal toxicity (granular casts, glucosuria in the absence of hyperglycemia, and proteinuria) may also develop
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Acetaminophen is recognized as a hepatotoxin acting through metabolism by cytochrome p450 oxidases to its reactive metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NADPQI). In most species, overdose of acetaminophen is associated with hepatotoxicity characterized by centrilobular necrosis. Which deficiencies can lead to lethal cellular injury?
Acetaminophen is primarily metabolized in the liver by sulfation and glucuronidation; conjugated products are water soluble and subsequently eliminated in urine. Conjugation with GSH or cysteine protects the liver from toxicity through renal excretion of mercapturic or cysteine conjugates. If an individual is both GSH and cysteine deficient this can cause lethal cellular injury. Mitochondrial effects reduce cellular ATP and impair availability of mitochondrial GSH, resulting in cellular oxidation and hepatocyte death. Species sensitivity to acetaminophen hepatotoxicity reflects NAPQI formation and their inherent susceptibility to either hepatotoxicity or hematotoxicity. Dogs have an apparent predisposition to acetaminophen-induced liver injury likely related to their intrinsically low hepatic GSH concentrations. Dogs surviving initial hepatotoxicity also can develop hematotoxicity, whereas cats are relatively resistant to hepatotoxicity.
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Both dogs and cats demonstrate acetaminophen-induced hematotoxicity (e.g., hemolytic anemia, methemoglobinemia) in part due to deficient ................
N-acetylation. Cats, having higher hepatic GSH concentrations but whose red blood cells (RBCs) are more susceptible to oxidation due to the orientation of their hemoglobin sulfhydryl groups, are more susceptible to hematotoxicity. Cats also demonstrate signs consistent with endothelial toxicity (facial edema, pulmonary edema). Treatment involves removal of acutely ingested drug and administration of a thiol donor to supplement cysteine and restore circulating and liver GSH.
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CCNU can cause delayed, cumulative, dose-related, chronic hepatotoxicity that is ................ and that can be .........
CCNU can cause delayed, cumulative, dose-related, chronic hepatotoxicity that is irreversible and that can be fatal.
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Other potential agents causing hepatotoxicityP
Aflatoxin (like aflatoxin-contaminated dog food). The sugar substitute xylitol (most commonly found in baked goods, desserts, toothpaste, other oral care products): dogs can experience marked insulin release with potential for subsequent hypoglycemia. At a dose >0.5 g/kg acute severe fulminant hepatic failure occurs. Sago Palms or cycads are often used as ornamental plants, houseplants, or bonsai. Cycad neurotoxicosis and hepatotoxicosis have been described in many animals. Natural or Herbal Remedies.
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METALS AND LIVER DISEASE Because the liver is the first organ perfused by portal blood containing absorbed minerals, it can serve as a metal “sink” or “reservoir.” A neutral copper balance is achieved through biliary copper excretion. Consequently, any metabolic abnormality that interferes with normal copper egress from the liver or compromises bile management (e.g., ............) can result in hepatocellular copper accumulation. Both ........and.........are known to accumulate in liver tissue of dogs and cats with necroinflammatory liver disorders, where they enhance hepatic vulnerability to oxidant injury.
A neutral copper balance is achieved through biliary copper excretion. Consequently, any metabolic abnormality that interferes with normal copper egress from the liver or compromises bile management (e.g., cholestasis) can result in hepatocellular copper accumulation. Both copper and iron are known to accumulate in liver tissue of dogs and cats with necroinflammatory liver disorders, where they enhance hepatic vulnerability to oxidant injury.
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Because copper is a transition metal, it has both .......oxidant and ..........oxidant effects. Pathologic hepatocellular copper retention is well described in the Bedlington Terrier as an autosomal recessive trait resulting in the deletion of the ........... gene. Irrespective of cause, abnormally increased hepatic copper concentrations can contribute to liver injury.
Because copper is a transition metal, it has both prooxidant and antioxidant effects. Pathologic hepatocellular copper retention is well described in the Bedlington Terrier as an autosomal recessive trait resulting in the deletion of the COMMD1 (MURR-1) gene
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Approximately 80% of dogs and >50% of cats with chronic necroinflammatory liver disease have high tissue iron concentrations (>1500 µg/g dry liver). Although this iron is morphologically isolated within hepatic Kupffer cells, other macrophages, or lipogranulomatous inflammatory foci, it remains biologically active contributing to ROS formation and hepatic fibrosis. Iron is profibrogenic and, in the dog and cat, Kupffer cells play a central role in iron accumulation, activating nearby stellate cells (Ito cells, perisinusoidal cells) to directly mediate collagen gene activation. Treatment?
Because hepatocytes depleted of GSH have increased susceptibility to iron-mediated lipid peroxidation and because high hepatic iron is associated with subnormal vitamin E availability and a reduced tissue GSH/GSSG balance, supplementation with both vitamin E and thiol donors is recommended
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METABOLIC DISORDERS AFFECTING THE LIVER Amyloidosis: Amyloidosis involving the liver is uncommon but may occur as part of systemic amyloidosis, a syndrome involving multiorgan extracellular amyloid deposition. Systemic amyloidosis in dogs and cats is associated with?
Associated with the precursor protein amyloid A (AA), an amino terminal fragment of the acute-phase protein, serum amyloid A (SAA). This protein accumulates secondary to sustained acute-phase reactions associated with chronic inflammatory, infectious, or neoplastic processes or as a familial trait. In systemic amyloidosis, clinical signs vary according to the extent of tissue involvement. In familial AA amyloidosis of Chinese Shar-Pei dogs and Abyssinian cats, most clinical signs reflect renal involvement.
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How is the presentation of amloidosis in cats?
Diffuse hepatic amyloid deposition in cats predisposes to spontaneous liver lobe fracture owing to increased organ fragility and coexistent symptomatic coagulopathy due to inhibition or deficiency of specific factors, binding of ionized calcium, or vitamin K deficiency. Cats present following acute death or with hypothermia from hypovolemic, hemorrhagic shock associated with massive hemoabdomen. A regenerative anemia, Howell-Jolly bodies due to amyloid impaired splenic function, “stress” leukocytosis, poikilocytes, thrombocytopenia, and abnormally prolonged clotting times are common. Although an increased ALT may be observed, some cases lack biochemical features indicating hepatic involvement.
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In Chinese Shar-Pei dogs with amyloid secondary to “Shar-Pei fever,” ............. is used. ............... attenuates inflammatory responses by reducing tumor necrosis factor receptor externalization, inflammatory mediator release, neutrophil recruitment, and deposition of amyloid fibrils.
In Chinese Shar-Pei dogs with amyloid secondary to “Shar-Pei fever,” colchicine is used. Colchicine attenuates inflammatory responses by reducing tumor necrosis factor receptor externalization, inflammatory mediator release, neutrophil recruitment, and deposition of amyloid fibrils.
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Feline Lipoprotein Lipase Deficiency and Hepatic Lipid Deposition: ..........................regulates the dispersal of fatty acids to muscle and adipose. Feline familial ........... deficiency, an autosomal recessive trait, disturbs fat metabolism leading to ..........triglyceridemia, ............chylomicronemia, and systemic sequela including hepatic ........ accumulation. Affected cats have a more than tenfold increase in circulating TG yet normal total cholesterol concentration.
Lipoprotein lipase (LPL) regulates the dispersal of fatty acids to muscle and adipose. Feline familial LPL deficiency, an autosomal recessive trait, disturbs fat metabolism leading to hypertriglyceridemia, hyperchylomicronemia, and systemic sequela including hepatic lipid accumulation. Affected cats have a more than tenfold increase in circulating TG yet normal total cholesterol concentration. Affected kittens do not exhibit clinical signs other than fasting lipemia
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Canine Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia is more commonly recognized in certain breeds. Metabolic hyperlipidemia in dogs predisposes to?
development of diffuse vacuolar hepatopathy (hepatocellular TG and glycogen) or biliary mucocele. Biliary mucocele formation may reflect the influence of hypercholesterolemia on bile composition but is augmented by cystic epithelial hyperplasia of the gallbladder wall and possibly gallbladder dysmotility.
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Biliary Mucocele In the developmental stage, biliary mucoceles are asymptomatic and serendipitously discovered during abdominal ultrasonography. Symptomatic patients present for signs reflecting .............cholecystitis or are investigated for persistent high ........ activity.
In the developmental stage, biliary mucoceles are asymptomatic and serendipitously discovered during abdominal ultrasonography. Symptomatic patients present for signs reflecting necrotizing cholecystitis or are investigated for persistent high ALP activity. The appearance of a “kiwi fruit” echo image within the gallbladder lumen is diagnostic for a firm, well-established mucocele; however, sludge within the gallbladder and accompanying peritonitis are more common changes. In dogs with gallbladder inflammation or ischemia, a thickened wall or a wall with a bilaminar or trilaminar appearance may be observed. The latter pattern seemingly predicts risk of gallbladder rupture. Surgical removal is indicated, with urgency depending on clinical evidence of necrotizing cholecystitis (hyperbilirubinemia, high liver enzymes, cranial abdominal pain, leukocytosis, bilaminar or trilaminar wall). Underlying causes include disorders causing hyperlipidemia or hypercholesterolemia (hypothyroidism, protein-losing nephropathy, diabetes mellitus, hyperadrenocorticism, sex hormone adrenal hyperplasia, and idiopathic hyperlipidemia).
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Canine “Steroid or Glycogen” Vacuolar Hepatopathy High-dose glucocorticoid administration usually induces a significant increase in ...... and ....... activity within 2 to 3 days if given by injection and within 1 to 2 weeks if given orally. Individual variation in response, different potencies of glucocorticoid agents, and route of exposure (endogenous, parenteral, oral, cutaneous, ocular) influence changes in hepatic morphology, clinicopathologic features, and clinical signs. Typically, increased ...... and ........ activities develop in parallel as these enzymes undergo induction and subsequent release from sinusoidal and canalicular membranes. A similar scenario occurs in dogs with ........ hyperplasia syndromes, where high ...sex hormone or high ..........production occurs.
.High-dose glucocorticoid administration usually induces a significant increase in ALP and ALT activity within 2 to 3 days if given by injection and within 1 to 2 weeks if given orally. Individual variation in response, different potencies of glucocorticoid agents, and route of exposure (endogenous, parenteral, oral, cutaneous, ocular) influence changes in hepatic morphology, clinicopathologic features, and clinical signs. Typically, increased ALP and GGT activities develop in parallel as these enzymes undergo induction and subsequent release from sinusoidal and canalicular membranes. A similar scenario occurs in dogs with adrenal hyperplasia syndromes, where high steroid sex hormone or high cortisol production occurs. Clinical assessment may fail to disclose an underlying health problem or cortisol values consistent with classic hyperadrenocorticism in a dog with a prominent vacuolar hepatopathy and high ALP activity (often with modestly increased SBA concentrations).
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Feline Hepatic Lipidosis: Cats are so predisposed to accumulating TG in their hepatocytes that systemically ill cats generally develop some degree of hepatocellular fatty vacuolation. Hepatic TG accumulation is not problematic until the degree of vacuolation is morphologically severe. In a normal feline liver, neutral fat comprises
the rate of hepatic synthesis exceeds their dispersal into the systemic circulation or their use in fatty acid oxidation. Hepatic TGs are synthesized from fatty acids delivered from the systemic circulation (dietary lipids, adipose stores) and from de novo hepatic synthesis. Overnutrition augments hepatic fat accumulation; feeding a high proportion of dietary carbohydrates may have an inhibitory influence on mitochondrial fat oxidation favoring hepatic fat accumulation. Feline obesity predisposes to development of HL: In inappetant obese cats, release of fatty acids from their ample peripheral adipose stores challenges the liver's capacity for fat utilization and dispersal.
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The metabolic balance of lipolysis and storage of TGs is influenced by blood glucose concentrations, as well as diverse hormonal and neural mechanisms. ................ (......... promoting adipocyte lipolysis) and ............. (promoting fat uptake into adipocytes) directly influence adipocyte fat metabolism.
Hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL, promoting adipocyte lipolysis) and LPL (promoting fat uptake into adipocytes) directly influence adipocyte fat metabolism.
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................., ..................., ......................, ..................., .................., and................. increase HSL activity, whereas ............ inhibits it. Because cats release catecholamines readily, stress may augment HSL activation. Because this effect is enhanced in the absence of insulin, occult or overt hepatic TG ................. in unregulated ................ is common. Although LPL promotes fat uptake into adipocytes in the well-fed condition, during starvation, .......... activity declines and ............ increases, creating a hormonal balance favoring hepatocellular fat accumulation. In this way, an obese individual undergoing self-imposed starvation (anorexia) has increased risk for peripheral fat mobilization and excessive hepatic TG retention.
Norepinephrine, epinephrine, growth hormone, glucagon, corticosteroids, and thyroxin increase HSL activity, whereas insulin inhibits it. Because cats release catecholamines readily, stress may augment HSL activation. Because this effect is enhanced in the absence of insulin, occult or overt hepatic TG accumulation in unregulated diabetics is common. Although LPL promotes fat uptake into adipocytes in the well-fed condition, during starvation, LPL activity declines and HSL increases, creating a hormonal balance favoring hepatocellular fat accumulation. In this way, an obese individual undergoing self-imposed starvation (anorexia) has increased risk for peripheral fat mobilization and excessive hepatic TG retention.
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The fate of fatty acids in the liver includes utilization in ..........-oxidation, conversion to .............., and use in formation of various ...............-c.................moieties (TG, cholesterol esters, lipoproteins).
The fate of fatty acids in the liver includes utilization in beta-oxidation, conversion to phospholipids, and use in formation of various lipid-containing moieties (TG, cholesterol esters, lipoproteins).
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A key in TG dispersal is via formation of .......................... A variety of subcellular activities regulate ..............formation and dispersal, including lipid transport through subcellular compartments, packaging with apoprotein, formation of secretory particles and vesicles, and expulsion into the perisinusoidal space. Impairment at any step or imbalance between lipoprotein components may compromise this process favoring hepatic .........accumulation.
A key in TG dispersal is via formation of very low density lipoproteins (VLDL). A variety of subcellular activities regulate VLDL formation and dispersal, including lipid transport through subcellular compartments, packaging with apoprotein, formation of secretory particles and vesicles, and expulsion into the perisinusoidal space. Impairment at any step or imbalance between lipoprotein components may compromise this process favoring hepatic TG accumulation. The essential interaction of fatty acids and L-carnitine at mitochondrial membranes influences both the intraorganelle activation of fatty acids and their availability for beta-oxidation
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Theoretical explanation for regional carnitine deficiency in cats with hepatic lipidosis: Increased delivery of long-chain free fatty acids requires ............... for transport across organelle walls. Supplementation with..................... appears to hasten clinical recovery in cats with hepatic lipidosis.
Theoretical explanation for regional carnitine deficiency in cats with hepatic lipidosis: Increased delivery of long-chain free fatty acids requires carnitine for transport across organelle walls. Supplementation with L-carnitine appears to hasten clinical recovery in cats with hepatic lipidosis.
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Deficiency of hepatocellular ......... in cats with HL may reflect intramitochondrial ..............insufficiency where it is necessary for redox-balance to sustain continued energy production. Finding hepatic .......... deficiency in cats with HL implicates dysfunction of the transsulfuration pathway with diminished SAMe availability.
Deficiency of hepatocellular GSH in cats with HL may reflect intramitochondrial GSH insufficiency where it is necessary for redox-balance to sustain continued energy production. Finding hepatic GSH deficiency in cats with HL implicates dysfunction of the transsulfuration pathway with diminished SAMe availability. Additionally, B12 deficiency is a common feature in HL cats secondary to primary gut disease. Perhaps B12 deficiency and dysfunction of the transmethylation pathway may be a causal factor. Because.............. increases fatty acid oxidation in normal and obese cats, and in cats with modeled HL, it is reasonable to include it in treatment.
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Hematologic features in cats with HL include a .......................anemia and a stress leukogram reflecting the primary illness causing anorexia. ................. is common and may reflect altered RBC membrane lipids, metabolism, or oxidative stress affecting cell membrane flexibility. Biochemical changes reflect cholestasis and, to a lesser degree, altered hepatocellular membrane permeability and viability. Most cats have a markedly increased ALP activity with lesser magnitudes of increase in transaminases. Rarely, a cat with HL will have high transaminases with only modest ALP activity. Finding high GGT activity in a cat with HL increases suspicion of underlying ............, ............................ Hyperbilirubinemia and high serum bile acid concentrations are common. ........kalemia reflects inappetence. ...........chloremia may reflect vomiting. ............phosphatemia reflects intercompartmental shifts in phosphate and most commonly heralds onset of a ............. syndrome. Urinalysis typically reports .............. with bilirubin pigmenturia and bile crystalluria. Ultrasound evaluation characteristically shows a hyperechoic hepatic parenchyma.
Hematologic features include a nonregenerative anemia and a stress leukogram reflecting the primary illness causing anorexia. Poikilocytosis is common and may reflect altered RBC membrane lipids, metabolism, or oxidative stress affecting cell membrane flexibility. Biochemical changes reflect cholestasis and, to a lesser degree, altered hepatocellular membrane permeability and viability. Most cats have a markedly increased ALP activity with lesser magnitudes of increase in transaminases. Rarely, a cat with HL will have high transaminases with only modest ALP activity. Finding high GGT activity in a cat with HL increases suspicion of underlying pancreatitis, pancreatic neoplasia, cholangiohepatitis, major bile duct obstruction, cholelithiasis or choledochitis, or biliary tree neoplasia. Hyperbilirubinemia and high serum bile acid concentrations are common. Hypokalemia reflects inappetence and is significantly associated with failure to survive if uncorrected. Hypochloremia may reflect vomiting. Hypophosphatemia reflects intercompartmental shifts in phosphate and most commonly heralds onset of a refeeding syndrome. Urinalysis typically reports urobilinogen with bilirubin pigmenturia and bile crystalluria. Ultrasound evaluation characteristically shows a hyperechoic hepatic parenchyma. Aspirat from the liver
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The most important treatment is?
Provision of a balanced, high-protein feline diet delivering adequate energy (goal feeding of 40 to 60 kcal/kg/day). Cats with HL are often deficient in vitamin K as proven by PIVKA (proteins induced in vitamin K absence or antagonism) testing or prothrombin time (PT) tests. Lack of dietary intake, altered intestinal bacterial flora subsequent to antimicrobial treatment, and impaired vitamin K epoxidase cycle associated with hepatic dysfunction are underlying causes. Supplement with 250 to 500 mg L-carnitine per day. Fat-soluble vitamin deficiency is suspected in severe HL. Most critical is vitamin K.
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STORAGE DISORDERS INVOLVING THE LIVER: Lysosomal Storage Disorders Lysosomal storage disorders comprise a group of inherited juvenile or adult-onset disorders that show different clinical features depending on the particular metabolic aberration. Most of these are autosomal recessive traits and expressed as a consequence of line breeding. Normal lysosomes ........cellular and extracellular macromolecules, providing amino acids, fatty acids, nucleic acids, and carbohydrate residues for reuse. Primary lysosomes, derived from the ............., may fuse with other membrane-bound vesicles forming secondary lysosomes. Storage diseases are defined by the nature of the .............. deficiency and resultant accumulated metabolic substrates or products.
Normal lysosomes degrade cellular and extracellular macromolecules, providing amino acids, fatty acids, nucleic acids, and carbohydrate residues for reuse. Primary lysosomes, derived from the Golgi apparatus, may fuse with other membrane-bound vesicles forming secondary lysosomes. Storage diseases are defined by the nature of the lysosomal hydrolase deficiency and resultant accumulated metabolic substrates or products. Disorders are suspected based on clinical signs, including progressive neurologic dysfunction, ocular abnormalities, visceromegaly (including hepatomegaly), and skeletal abnormalities; signs may overlap clinically with nonlysosomal storage disorders. Different disorders may be associated with hepatocellular or Kupffer cell storage product accumulation. The mucopolysaccharidoses (MPSs) and disorders associated with interrupted catabolism of oligosaccharides can be crudely determined by specific urine tests. Treatment is limited for these disorders.
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HEPATOBILIARY INFECTIONS: The central position of the liver between the enteric and systemic circulation allows it to guard against infectious agents. Normally, enteric flora enter the portal venous circulation by transmural migration and are killed or extracted by hepatic macrophages (Kupffer cells) or migrating macrophages or neutrophils with some being eliminated in bile. Locally produced immunoglobulins, primarily IgA, cooperate in providing innate immune defense.
Ischemic injury and hypovolemia reduce hepatic perfusion and impair macrophage function; interrupted choleresis enables enteric opportunists to invade hepatic structures. Infection, sepsis, and endotoxemia also cause hepatic injury and cholestasis.
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Hematologic abnormalities of hepatobiliary infections may include:
a nonregenerative anemia (chronic inflammation), leukopenia, or leukocytosis associated with a left shift and toxic change in neutrophils. Biochemical abnormalities include increased transaminase and ALP activities and variable hyperbilirubinemia. Sepsis-induced biochemical jaundice is encountered especially in cats, but sepsis-related hypoglycemia is rare in this species.
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Hepatic Involvement in Systemic Infectious Disease A number of systemic infectious diseases can involve the liver. Agents with tropism for endothelium, parenchymal hepatic cells, or macrophages are particularly prone to secondarily involve the liver. Infectious canine hepatitis caused by .................. is a unique pathogen because it is the only recognized virus with primary tropism for the liver. Along with severe hepatic necrosis and initiation of chronic hepatitis, glomerulonephritis, corneal edema, and uveitis may develop. Recently, virulent.......... forms have presented as devastating but restricted outbreaks in several centers. This agent includes in its pathology disseminated hepatocellular necrosis with mild inflammatory infiltration.[75],[76]
Infectious canine hepatitis caused by adenovirus type 1 is a unique pathogen because it is the only recognized virus with primary tropism for the liver. Recently, virulent calicivirus forms have presented as devastating but restricted outbreaks in several centers.
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Granulomatous hepatic inflammation is an uncommon diagnosis characterized by multiple discrete and sharply defined .................consisting of aggregates of ................. (± epithelioid cells). It is surrounded by, or intermixed with, ............. and .............. Lesions may be focal, multifocal, or diffuse. Underlying causes include many infectious agents.
Granulomatous hepatic inflammation is an uncommon diagnosis characterized by multiple discrete and sharply defined nodular infiltrates consisting of aggregates of macrophages (± epithelioid cells). It is surrounded by, or intermixed with, lymphocytes and plasma cells. Lesions may be focal, multifocal, or diffuse. Underlying causes include many infectious agents. Noninfectious disorders that may associate with hepatic granulomatous or pyogranulomatous lesions include drug reactions, lymphangiectasia, histiocytosis or histiocytic neoplasia, lymphosarcoma, immune-mediated inflammation, and copper-associated hepatic necrosis. Immune-mediated inflammation may be associated with a positive antinuclear antibody test
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HEPATOBILIARY NEOPLASIA Tumors of the liver and the biliary tree in dogs and cats may be primary or metastatic to the liver. The primary have one of four origins: hepatocellular, bile duct, mesenchymal, and neuroendocrine.
Hepatocellular, bile duct, mesenchymal, and neuroendocrine. In cats, benign tumors are more common, whereas in dogs, tumors are more often malignant.
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Hepatic tumors metastasize first to? (dogs resp cats)
Hepatic tumors metastasize first to regional lymph nodes and then lung, and peritoneum in the dog and peritoneum in the cat. Biliary tumors in the cat may extend into the pancreas. Metastatic extension to brain, spinal cord, bone, kidney, adrenal gland, and spleen is less common in each species.
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Secondary metastasis to the liver is common in both species and represents the largest proportion of hepatic cancers in dogs. ..................of this organ also occurs in both species but represents the largest proportion of hepatobiliary cancer in cats.
Lymphoreticular neoplasia
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Clinical signs of hepatic neoplasia are often vague and nonspecific including?
Including chronic lethargy, inappetence, dehydration, PU/PD, and fever. Less commonly, vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice, and ascites (dogs) may develop. PU/PD is more commonly linked to primary liver tumors (up to 50% of dogs). Rarely, neurologic signs develop in dogs reflecting hypoglycemia or hepatic encephalopathy.
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................. may be a dominant marker of large tumor mass (metabolic consumption) or reflect paraneoplastic phenomena such as production of an ...................... Hypoalbuminemia, more common in dogs than cats, may reflect a .................. acute phase response, ............. and ..........nutritional intake, or ................insufficiency.
Hypoglycemia may be a dominant marker of large tumor mass (metabolic consumption) or reflect paraneoplastic phenomena such as production of an insulin-like substance. Hypoalbuminemia, more common in dogs than cats, may reflect a negative acute phase response, catabolism and poor nutritional intake, or hepatic insufficiency.
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Diseases of the Gallbladder and Extrahepatic Biliary System: The gallbladder is a reservoir where bile is stored, modified, and eventually expelled. Bile is formed in the ............ and is actively secreted into the bile ......... From the canaliculi, bile flows to the ......... ducts and ultimately to the ...........ducts. The lobar ducts give rise to the left and right hepatic ducts. The ................duct is an offshoot of the hepatic ducts and travels toward the gallbladder. The .............duct is an important landmark in that it distinguishes the otherwise continuous hepatic ducts from the common bile duct
The gallbladder is a reservoir where bile is stored, modified, and eventually expelled. Bile is formed in the hepatocytes and is actively secreted into the bile canaliculi. From the canaliculi, bile flows to the interlobular ducts and ultimately to the lobar ducts. The lobar ducts give rise to the left and right hepatic ducts. The cystic duct is an offshoot of the hepatic ducts and travels toward the gallbladder. The cystic duct is an important landmark in that it distinguishes the otherwise continuous hepatic ducts from the common bile duct.
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Bile is composed of?
Cholesterol, lecithin, phospholipids, and bile salts.
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Bile emulsifies............and neutralizes .......... in partially digested food. The synthesis of bile acids and their secretion provides an important method for the excretion of ...........
Bile emulsifies fat and neutralizes acid in partially digested food. The synthesis of bile acids and their secretion provides an important method for the excretion of cholesterol.
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When the gallbladder contracts, bile is released into the ........... bile duct and enters the duodenum through the .................. In the dog, the common bile duct joins the ...... ...............duct at the ............... In the cat, the common bile duct joins the ............... ......... duct before entering the duodenum.
When the gallbladder contracts, bile is released into the common bile duct and enters the duodenum through the sphincter of Oddi. In the dog, the common bile duct joins the minor pancreatic duct at the major duodenal papilla. In the cat, the common bile duct joins the major pancreatic duct before entering the duodenum.
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The gallbladder has a very thin wall composed of several layers. The layers include the .........................
mucosa, lamina propria, smooth muscle, and serosa
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The rounded apical and most distended part of the gallbladder is designated the ........... The middle portion of the gallbladder comprises the ........ and the neck tapers into the ......... duct.
The rounded apical and most distended part of the gallbladder is designated the fundus. The middle portion of the gallbladder comprises the body and the neck tapers into the cystic duct.
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Gallbladder contraction is primarily initiated by .................., a peptide hormone secreted in the .............. in response to ........ and ............... entering the small intestine. ..........................innervation also plays an important role in contraction. -------- and ........are involved in contraction, but their exact role is not completely understood in the domestic animal.
Gallbladder contraction is primarily initiated by cholecystokinin, a peptide hormone secreted in the duodenum in response to fats and proteins entering the small intestine. Vagal parasympathetic innervation also plays an important role in contraction. Gastrin and motilin are involved in contraction, but their exact role is not completely understood in the domestic animal.
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........., released by the.......... and ............. epithelium in response to ........... in the small intestine, is a potent .............. of gallbladder contraction and facilitates gallbladder ............ ..............., .............., and ..................cause gallbladder relaxation
Somatostatin, released by the pancreas and gastrointestinal epithelium in response to fats in the small intestine, is a potent inhibitor of gallbladder contraction and facilitates gallbladder filling. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP), nitric oxide, and pancreatic polypeptide cause gallbladder relaxation
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CHOLELITHIASIS Choleliths, or stones in the gallbladder, are one of the more commonly recognized abnormalities in the gallbladder. Older female dogs are predisposed to choleliths. Breeds most commonly affected include Miniature Schnauzers and Miniature Poodles. Choleliths are composed of?
Varied precipitated bile components. In the dog, cholesterol, bilirubin, and mixed stones have been reported. Calcium-based stones are rare due to the ability of the canine gallbladder to absorb free calcium in bile. Feline choleliths contain cholesterol, bilirubin derivatives, and calcium salts.
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Cholesterol is strongly ............., necessitating transport in ............ to remain suspended in solution. When there is an imbalance between ................. and cholesterol, bile becomes more............. Supersaturation occurs, leading to the formation of .................
Cholesterol is strongly hydrophobic, necessitating transport in micelles to remain suspended in solution. When there is an imbalance between bile salts and cholesterol, bile becomes more viscous. Supersaturation occurs, leading to the formation of gallstones. Various abnormalities may promote supersaturation and cholelithiasis. These include gallbladder dyskinesia, hypercholesterolemia, hypertriglyceridemia, hyperbilirubinemia, endocrine disease, cholesterol absorption, and transport defects in the gallbladder. Gallstones may cause obstruction or inflammation of the gallbladder or can be incidental findings on abdominal ultrasound. If the obstruction is severe, the gallbladder or bile duct ruptures, leading to bile peritonitis
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CHOLEDOCHOLITHIASIS Choledocholiths, stones in the..............bile duct, may either be primary or secondary. Primary stones develop directly in the ..........bile duct. Secondary stones are more common and form in the gallbladder, later passing into the ............... bile duct.
Choledocholiths, stones in the common bile duct, may either be primary or secondary. Primary stones develop directly in the common bile duct. Secondary stones are more common and form in the gallbladder, later passing into the common bile duct.
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Laboratory findings range widely with cholelithiasis.
A stress leukogram is the most common finding. However, a neutrophilic leukocytosis with a left shift is typical in patients with biliary rupture. Mild to moderate nonregenerative anemias are common in patients with chronic disease. The total bilirubin, ALP, and GGT are commonly elevated. Bilirubinuria is often evident and generally precedes clinical jaundice. Due to the short half-life of ALP in the cat (6 hours compared with 72 hours in dogs), even mild increases are significant. ALT and AST elevations, when present, are less dramatic than rises in ALP and GGT. Mild hypercholesterolemia occurs with cholestasis and severe elevations are observed with biliary obstruction. Azotemia occurs secondary to dehydration and vomiting. Hypoalbuminemia and hypoglycemia may occur if sepsis or endotoxemia are present. (Abdominal radiographs are often of limited diagnostic value because most stones do not contain sufficient calcium to be visualized; use US).
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Cholecystitis has been used to define both inflammatory conditions of the gallbladder, as well as gallbladder-related symptoms in the absence of gallstones. The term encompasses a wide variety of acute and chronic diseases with or without bacterial or parasitic infections. Predisposing factors include....?
Bile stasis, gallbladder mucoceles, ascending bacterial or parasitic diseases, and biliary neoplasia. In addition, infarction and hematogenous spread of bacteria may be involved. Choleliths are concurrently identified in some patients. Some patients with cholecystitis develop necrotizing cholecystitis. Cholecystitis may be either acute or chronic in nature. Mild cases are often asymptomatic. The predominant symptoms of moderate to severe acute cholecystitis include anorexia and vomiting, with abdominal pain and fever. Similar to cholelithiasis, laboratory findings vary widely with cholecystitis. Most clinicopathologic changes are consistent with cholestasis or posthepatic biliary disease
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Analysis of bilious effusion is characterized by suppurative inflammation with or without bile pigment. Intracellular and extracellular bacteria are common. A comparison of total ..............in the effusion versus total circulating bilirubin may help confirm bile peritonitis. If the ............in the effusion is greater than twice that of circulating blood, then a biliary rupture is present.
bilirubin
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There are two general types of primary bilious tumors:
Biliary cystadenoma and biliary adenocarcinoma (cholangiocarcinoma).(however both are rarely seen)
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PARASITIC DISEASE OF THE BILIARY SYSTEM ETIOLOGY Some species of flukes readily infect the biliary tree and liver of cats. Signs?
The clinical signs of parasitic biliary disease depend on the degree of liver injury and biliary obstruction. Many cats are asymptomatic carriers. Weight loss, anorexia, and vomiting are the most common complaints in symptomatic cats. Jaundice and abdominal distention
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A gallbladder mucocele is defined as? the presence of bile-laden semisolid to immobile mucoid material within the gallbladder. Expansion of the mucocele within the gallbladder lumen is thought to stretch the gallbladder wall or disrupt blood flow, resulting in pressure necrosis of wall and subsequent bile peritonitis. However, the exact etiology has not been definitively determined. Predisposing factors include? Potential complications of mucoceles include......?
Predisposing factors include dyslipidemias, dysmotility of the gallbladder, endocrine disease, and exogenous steroid administration. (Breed predispositions include Shetland Sheepdogs, Cocker Spaniels, and Miniature Schnauzers. Mucoceles occur most commonly in older canine patients). Potential complications of mucoceles include extrahepatic bile duct obstruction, cholecystitis, necrotizing cholecystitis, bile peritonitis, and pancreatitis.
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Treatment?
Surgery Medical therapy for gallbladder mucoceles has been successful in seven patients and in particular those with hypothyroidism. A combination therapy of cholerectics and antibiotics are most frequently attempted. Cholerectics, such as ursodiol and SAMe, alter the microenvironment of the gallbladder and increase bile flow. Care should be taken in patients with biliary obstruction because cholerectics may induce rupture of the gallbladder or biliary tree.
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Canine Pancreatic Disease: Exocrine pancreatic disease occurs quite frequently in dogs, The most frequent lesion in one study was nodular hyperplasia. The next most common findings in the 208 pancreata evaluated were lymphocytic infiltration, fibrosis, and atrophy. All three of these lesions are considered suggestive of a chronic pancreatic inflammatory disease process. It remains to be determined what degree of inflammatory infiltration of the pancreas is clinically significant. By far, the most common exocrine pancreatic disease is ................
pancreatitis. Contrary to previous reports, chronic pancreatitis appears to be more common than acute pancreatitis. Other diseases of the exocrine pancreas, such as exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, pancreatic neoplasia, or fluid accumulations of the exocrine pancreas, occur less frequently.
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Acute pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas not associated with permanent changes. Chronic pancreatitis is associated with pancreatic .......... and ...........
Chronic pancreatitis is associated with pancreatic fibrosis and atrophy. Acute and chronic pancreatitis cannot be differentiated clinically and it is crucial to recognize that either acute or chronic pancreatitis may be associated with neutrophilic or lymphocytic-plasmacytic infiltration. Either can be associated with systemic complications and either can be associated with local complications, such as pancreatic necrosis and pancreatic fluid accumulations. However, chronic pancreatitis is less commonly associated with local and systemic complications and is usually a milder disease process.
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The cause of pancreatitis in a given dog often remains unknown, but the following potential causes and risk factors should be considered:
Hyperlipidemia and hypertriglyceridemia (cause or an effect?) Hereditary pancreatitis is well-documented in humans Drugs?? L-asparaginase, azathioprine, estrogen, furosemide, potassium bromide, salicylates, sulfonamides, tetracyclines, thiazide diuretics, and vinca alkaloids. Iatrogenic hypercalcemia zinc toxicosis Obese animals (hypothyroidism and hyperadrenocorticism) Obstruction of the pancreatic duct system Reflux of duodenal juice into the pancreatic ducts can also cause pancreatitis. Under normal circumstances such reflux is unlikely to occur because the duct opening is surrounded by a specialized compact smooth mucosa over the duodenal papilla and is equipped with an independent sphincter muscle. However, these protective mechanisms may fail in situations where there is abnormally high duodenal pressure, for example, during vomiting or after blunt trauma to the abdominal cavity. Surgical manipulation and blunt abdominal trauma are also potential causes of pancreatitis Severe pancreatic ischemia due to severe dehydration or during shock Pancreatitis has been recognized as a potential complication of canine babesiosis Autoimmune mechanisms
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Traditionally, it is hypothesized that pancreatitis develops as a consequence of autodigestion, resulting from premature zymogen activation within acinar cells. Ultrastructurally, one of the first indications of autodigestion is a decrease in secretion of pancreatic juice, followed by an abnormal fusion of lysosomes and zymogen granules to form giant vacuoles. A decrease of pH in these giant vacuoles and/or the activation of zymogens by lysosomal enzyme-mediated hydrolysis then leads to active digestive enzymes that can lead to destruction of acinar cells. The autodigestion then stimulates an inflammatory reaction that leads to both local and systemic complications. Several mechanisms prevent autodigestion of the pancreas. Such as?
Proteolytic and phospholipolytic enzymes are synthesized, stored, and secreted in the form of inactive zymogens. These zymogens are activated by enzymatic cleavage of a small peptide (the activation peptide) from the amino terminal of the polypeptide chain. Under physiologic conditions, activation of these zymogens occurs in the duodenum. Also, premature activation of zymogens is inhibited by their segregation from lysosomal enzymes. Furthermore, should significant activation occur, acinar cells contain a specific trypsin inhibitor, pancreatic secretory trypsin inhibitor (PSTI, also known as SPINK 1), that is synthesized, stored, and secreted together with trypsinogen. Thus, whenever premature activation of trypsinogen to trypsin occurs, PSTI is believed to inhibit trypsin activity, blocking a chain reaction of enzyme activation. Pancreatic juice reaches the duodenum through the pancreatic duct, which only allows for unidirectional flow. This unidirectional flow is important in preventing pancreatic enzymes from causing damage to the acinar cells. Finally, plasma protease inhibitors, including α1-proteinase inhibitor and α2-macroglobulins, scavenge proteases that may have reached the vascular space. Once all of these protective mechanisms have been surpassed, damage to acinar cells occurs.
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Numerous inflammatory mediators and free radicals are released with an important role in the progression of pancreatitis. These mediators are mostly released from neutrophils and macrophages and include?
tumor necrosis factor-α (TNF-α), interleukin-1 (IL-1), IL-2, IL-6, IL-8, IL-10, interferon-α (IFN-α), IFN-β, nitric oxide (NO), and platelet-activating factor (PAF).
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The most common finding (59%) reported on a complete blood count in dogs with severe pancreatitis is?
thrombocytopenia. Several different findings when analyzing blood, but no finding on complete blood count, serum chemistry profile, or urinalysis is specific for pancreatitis.
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Markers for Pancreatitis Assays for several pancreatic enzymes and zymogens in serum or urine have been evaluated as aids in diagnosing canine pancreatitis. These include?
amylase and lipase activities, serum trypsinlike immunoreactivity (cTLI), pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity (cPLI), trypsin-α1-proteinase inhibitor complexes, and serum and urinary trypsinogen activation peptide (TAP) Serum amylase and lipase activities have been used to aid in diagnosing canine pancreatitis for decades, despite studies repeatedly showing a lack sensitivity and specificity. Many cell types of the body synthesize and secrete lipases, enzymes that hydrolyze lipids. Assays for serum lipase activity are not specific for pancreatic lipase, but immunoassays that quantify canine pancreatic lipase (cPLI) are specific for pancreatic exocrine function and for pancreatitis. Two small studies have reported a sensitivity of serum cPLI concentration for canine pancreatitis of about 82%. Thus, serum cPLI concentration is the most sensitive and specific test for canine pancreatitis currently available.
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Antiemetic Agents for pancreatitis patients: Until recently, metoclopramide, a .................., was widely used. However, the effect of metoclopramide on splanchnic perfusion remains in question and the use metoclopramide in dogs with pancreatitis may not be wise. Dolasetron and ondansetron, both.................antagonist, are effective antiemetic agents in dogs. Maropitant, an ..................., can be used.
Until recently, metoclopramide, a dopamine inhibitor, was widely used. However, the effect of metoclopramide on splanchnic perfusion remains in question and the use metoclopramide in dogs with pancreatitis may not be wise. Dolasetron and ondansetron, both 5-HT3 antagonist, are effective antiemetic agents in dogs. Maropitant, an NK1 antagonist, can be used.
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Mild Chronic Pancreatitis Many dogs have mild forms of chronic pancreatitis. Often, these dogs have concurrent conditions, most notably ......... Little is known about appropriate therapy for these dogs and management is often limited to evaluation and treatment of the concurrent condition. Serum ........ and ......... concentrations should always be evaluated in order to identify any risk factors that can potentially be addressed. Also, use of ............... diets is recommended.
Many dogs have mild forms of chronic pancreatitis. Often, these dogs have concurrent conditions, most notably IBD. Little is known about appropriate therapy for these dogs and management is often limited to evaluation and treatment of the concurrent condition. Serum calcium and triglyceride concentrations should always be evaluated in order to identify any risk factors that can potentially be addressed. Also, use of ultra-low-fat diets is recommended.
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Pancreatic and peripancreatic fluid accumulations have been categorized into pancreatic pseudocysts and pancreatic abscesses. What is the difference between these?
A pancreatic pseudocyst is a collection of sterile pancreatic fluid enclosed by a wall of fibrous or granulation tissue. It is considered a complication of pancreatitis. A pancreatic abscess is a circumscribed collection of pus, usually in close proximity to the pancreas. This is considered a complication of pancreatitis. A bacterial infection may or may not be present.
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Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI) is a syndrome that is caused by the insufficient synthesis and secretion of pancreatic enzymes. The most common cause of EPI is?
The most common cause of EPI in dogs is pancreatic acinar atrophy (PAA), which is almost exclusively seen in German Shepherd Dogs, Rough-Coated Collies, and Eurasians. (an autosomal recessive trait?) The second most common cause of EPI in dogs is chronic pancreatitis. As with other organs, chronic inflammation can lead to atrophy and fibrosis, which ultimately can lead to destruction of enough exocrine pancreatic mass to cause clinical signs of EPI. (Another potential cause of EPI is an obstruction of the pancreatic duct by a tumor, which, if complete, can lead to lack of digestive enzymes in the small intestinal lumen, despite their normal production. Long term, an obstructed pancreatic duct can lead to either pancreatitis, pancreatic atrophy, or both. This can lead to clinical signs of EPI. Obstructions of the pancreatic duct have been described in humans but have never been conclusively demonstrated in dogs). Pancreatic aplasia and hypoplasia could also cause clinical signs of EPI and these conditions are sometimes suspected when EPI is diagnosed at an early age, but no case has been conclusively demonstrated in a dog.
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Result of EPI?
Pancreatic secretory products and pancreatic enzymes are crucial for digestion of food. When pancreatic acinar cells are lacking, regardless of the cause, maldigestion ensues. It is important to note that the GI tract is highly redundant and for most pancreatic digestive enzymes there are other enzymes with the same function that are synthesized and secreted by other organs. Also, the exocrine pancreas has a huge functional reserve. It has been estimated that clinical signs of EPI only occur if more than 90% of exocrine pancreatic function have been lost. Maldigestion leads to undigested food components in the intestinal lumen. This leads to diarrhea, proliferation of the small intestinal microflora, and weight loss. These clinical signs are not solely due to maldigestion. Deficiency of other pancreatic functions may also play a role: -For example, the pancreas secretes large quantities of bicarbonate necessary to buffer gastric acid. -The pancreas is believed to synthesize and secrete trophic factors that help maintain normal GI mucosa. -The exocrine pancreas also is the major source of intrinsic factor in the dog.
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Which pancreatic enzymes are lacking?
As a result, all pancreatic digestive enzymes are lacking. Rarely, a single enzyme may be lacking. Lack of a single enzyme, however, even if complete, most likely would not lead to clinical signs. Pancreatic lipase is an exception because pancreatic lipase deficiency has been reported as a cause of clinical signs of EPI in humans and in one dog.
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Clinical signs in EPI dogs?
EPI can be subclinical, and isolated dogs with severely decreased serum cTLI concentrations without any clinical signs may be seen. Dogs with severely decreased pancreatic size on exploratory laparotomy have been demonstrated to not have clinical signs. The most consistent clinical sign in dogs with EPI is weight loss. Loose stools are also commonly observed, but watery diarrhea is rather uncommon. Often, these dogs have a poor hair coat, borborygmus, and flatulence. Many dogs with EPI show an increased appetite, coprophagia, or even pica.
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A diagnosis of EPI is made based on?
Based on the demonstration of a lack of exocrine pancreatic function: Serum canine TLI concentration remains the gold standard for the diagnosis of EPI in dogs. An assay for the measurement of serum pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity in dogs (cPLI) has been developed and validated. The PLI assay is highly species specific and measures the mass concentration of pancreatic lipase in serum. Pancreatic lipase is much larger than trypsinogen and is also positively charged. Pancreatic lipase is thus repelled from the glomerular membrane and is only slowly excreted by the kidneys. Therefore, a larger residual amount of pancreatic lipase remains in the vascular space and the assay is thus less sensitive for EPI
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Exogenous replacement of digestive enzymes is the mainstay of therapy for EPI. Pancreatic enzymes can be replaced by a variety of different formulations. Should these dogs be given a low-fat diet? High fiber diet?
While feeding a low-fat diet has been recommended by some, experimental studies have shown that dogs treated with pancreatic enzyme supplements do not digest fat normally. Fat restriction would, therefore, increase risk of fat-soluble vitamin and essential fatty acid deficiencies. Therefore, a high-quality maintenance diet would be best. However, diets with high fiber content should be avoided because dietary fiber may interfere with fat absorption. One study demonstrated that 82% of dogs with EPI are cobalamin deficient. Therefore, dogs with EPI should be evaluated for cobalamin deficiency and, if identified, supplementation is necessary. Serum concentrations of most fat-soluble vitamins have also been shown to be decreased in dogs with EPI. However, fat-soluble vitamin supplementation has not been investigated and oversupplementation with fat-soluble vitamins may cause side effects. It has been reported that dogs with EPI also commonly have SIBO. Tylosin is recommended for the treatment of SIBO but other antibiotic agents, such as metronidazole or oxytetracycline, can also be used.
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EXOCRINE PANCREATIC NEOPLASIA: Neoplastic diseases of the exocrine pancreas can be primary or secondary. Primary neoplastic diseases of the exocrine pancreas can be classified as benign or malignant. Pancreatic adenomas are usually benign primary solitary tumors. Adenomas can be differentiated from pancreatic nodular hyperplasia by the presence of a ............. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma is a primary malignant tumor of the ......................
Neoplastic diseases of the exocrine pancreas can be primary or secondary. Primary neoplastic diseases of the exocrine pancreas can be classified as benign or malignant. Pancreatic adenomas are usually benign primary solitary tumors. Adenomas can be differentiated from pancreatic nodular hyperplasia by the presence of a capsule. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma is a primary malignant tumor of the exocrine pancreas. Clinical presentation: A variety of nonspecific changes may be seen on a complete blood count and/or a serum chemistry profile. Increases in serum hepatic enzyme activities are commonly identified.[104] Hyperglycemia, when present, is related to concurrent destruction of pancreatic beta cells. Serum activities of lipase and amylase have not been commonly reported, but some are increased, in dogs with pancreatic adenocarcinoma
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Feline Pancreatic Disease: Several pathologies involving the feline exocrine pancreas have been identified : (Figure 283-1 Pathogenesis of feline exocrine pancreatic disease)
(Figure 283-1 Pathogenesis of feline exocrine pancreatic disease)
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Acute Necrotizing Pancreatitis (ANP): characterized by?
Characterized by pancreatic acinar cell and peripancreatic fat necrosis (>50% of the pathology), with varying amounts of inflammation, hemorrhage, mineralization, and fibrosis. Inflammation may be present, but necrosis is the predominant feature.
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Acute Suppurative Pancreatitis Acute suppurative pancreatitis (ASP) differs from ANP in that......?
Neutrophilic inflammation accounts for >50% of the pancreatic pathology. Necrosis may be present, but neutrophilic inflammation is the predominant feature. ASP is less common than ANP, appears to affect younger animals, and may have a differing pathogenesis.
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Chronic Nonsuppurative Pancreatitis This lesion is characterized by?
Lymphocytic inflammation, fibrosis, and acinar atrophy. Necrosis and suppuration may be present in small amounts, but lymphocyte infiltration is the predominant feature. Antemortem differentiation of chronic pancreatitis (CP) and ANP cannot be made on the basis of clinical, clinicopathologic, or imaging findings. histopathology remains the only dependable method of differentiating these two disorders. Chronic nonsuppurative pancreatitis and ANP may vary in their pathogeneses or they may represent a continuum of disease from necrosis to inflammation and fibrosis
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Pancreatic Nodular Hyperplasia
Nodules of pancreatic acinar or duct tissue are distributed throughout the pancreatic parenchyma. (Fibrosis, inflammation, necrosis, and hemorrhage are not features of this condition). The clinical significance of this lesion is unknown. Pancreatic nodular hyperplasia is often detected at the time of routine abdominal ultrasonography or as an incidental finding at necropsy.
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Pancreatic Neoplasia Neoplastic disorders of the pancreas may be primary (e.g., adenoma, adenocarcinoma) or secondary, and they are classified as benign or malignant. .................is the most common malignancy of the feline exocrine pancreas.
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
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Pancreatic pseudocyst is a?
A nonepithelial-lined cavitary structure containing fluid, pancreatic cells, and/or enzyme. Rarely seen in cats (and dogs)
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Pancreatic abscess is a?
A circumscribed collection of purulent material involving the right or left lobe of the pancreas. Like pseudocyst, pancreatic abscessation appears to be a complication of pancreatitis in humans and dogs. The incidence and significance of this lesion in the cat are unknown.
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Atrophy may result from degeneration, involution, necrosis, or apoptosis of the exocrine pancreas. Most cats with this condition are believed to have end-stage ........ The .............portion of the gland may or may not be involved in the same process. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is the clinical syndrome that results from losing >---------% of exocrine pancreatic function. Affected animals develop a classic ................. syndrome characterized by weight loss, steatorrhea, and diarrhea
Atrophy may result from degeneration, involution, necrosis, or apoptosis of the exocrine pancreas. Most cats with this condition are believed to have end-stage CP. The endocrine portion of the gland may or may not be involved in the same process. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is the clinical syndrome that results from losing >95% of exocrine pancreatic function. Affected animals develop a classic maldigestion syndrome characterized by weight loss, steatorrhea, and diarrhea
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ACUTE NECROTIZING PANCREATITIS The etiologies of ANP are probably not yet completely recognized but might include.....?
Concurrent biliary tract pathology has a known association with ANP in the cat. Cholangitis is the most important type of biliary tract disease for which an association has been made, but other forms of biliary tract pathology (e.g., stricture, neoplasia, and calculus) have known associations. The pathogenesis underlying this association is not entirely clear but relates partly to the anatomic and functional relationship between the major pancreatic duct and common bile duct in this species. Unlike the dog, the feline pancreaticobiliary sphincter is a common physiologic and anatomic channel at the duodenal papilla. Mechanical or functional obstruction to this common duct readily permits bile reflux into the pancreatic ductal system. Like concurrent biliary tract disease, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is an important risk factor for the development of ANP in cats. Several factors appear to contribute to this association: (1) high incidence of IBD; (2) clinical symptomatology of IBD; (3) pancreaticobiliary anatomy, and (4) intestinal microflora. Bacteria readily proliferate in the feline small intestine because of differences in gastrointestinal motility and immunology. If chronic vomiting with IBD permits pancreaticobiliary reflux, a duodenal fluid containing a mixed population of bacteria, bile salts, and activated pancreatic enzyme would perfuse the pancreatic and biliary ductal systems. Ischemia (e.g., hypotension, cardiac disease) is a cause or consequence of obstructive pancreatitis in the cat. Inflammation and edema reduce the elasticity and distensibility of the pancreas during secretory stimulation. Sustained inflammation increases pancreatic interstitial and ductal pressure, which serves to further reduce pancreatic blood flow, organ pH, and tissue viability Obstruction of the pancreatic duct (e.g., neoplasia, pancreatic flukes, calculi, duodenal foreign bodies) is associated with the development of ANP in some cats. Pancreatic ductal obstruction has marked effects on pancreatic acinar cell function. During ductal obstruction, ductal pressure exceeds exocytosis pressure and causes pancreatic lysosomal hydrolases to colocalize with digestive enzyme zymogens within the acinar cell. Infectious agents (Toxoplasma gondii, feline herpesvirus I, feline infectious peritonitis) have been implicated in the pathogenesis of feline ANP, although none have been reported as important causes of ANP. Virulent calici viral infections have been reported in multiple cat households or research facilities. Pancreatic and liver fluke infections. Trauma Organophosphate Poisoning (such as treatment for ectoparasites) Idiosyncratic Drug Reactions: Therapy with azathioprine, l-asparaginase, potassium bromide, and trimethoprim sulfa drugs have been associated with the development of ANP in the dog. Similar associations have not been made in the cat. (Hypercalcemia) (Nutrition (High-fat feedings and obesity have been associated with the development of pancreatitis in the dog, but similar associations have not been made in the cat)
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Pathogenesis of Feline Acute Necrotizing Pancreatitis : The acinar and ductal cells of the exocrine pancreas are interspersed between the islet cells of the endocrine pancreas. Like the endocrine pancreas, the exocrine pancreas is a secretory organ with several physiologic functions. Exocrine pancreatic fluid contains?
Digestive zymogens, which initiate protein, carbohydrate, and lipid digestion; Bicarbonate and water, which serve to neutralize pH in the duodenum Intrinsic factor, which facilitates cobalamin (vitamin B12) absorption in the distal ileum; Antibacterial proteins, which regulate small intestinal bacterial flora. Digestive zymogens are secreted primarily by acinar cells, while bicarbonate, water, intrinsic factor, and antibacterial proteins are secreted primarily by ductal cells.
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The two most common disorders of the exocrine pancreas, acute pancreatic necrosis and exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, are readily understood on the basis of these mentioned physiologic functions. Describe how:
With acute pancreatic necrosis, premature activation of digestive zymogen within pancreatic acinar cells leads to acinar cell necrosis (trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase), hemorrhage (elastase digestion of blood vessel elastin fibers), and fat necrosis and saponification (lipase digestion of pancreatic, peripancreatic, and mesenteric fat). With exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, affected cats develop severe nutrient maldigestion, acid injury to the duodenal mucosa, cobalamin and fat soluble vitamin malabsorption, and bacterial proliferation in the gut. A large body of experimental, and some clinical, evidence suggests that the initiating event of acute pancreatitis is the premature activation of digestive zymogens within the acinar cell. Premature activation of digestive zymogen results in acinar cell necrosis and pancreatic autodigestion. A variety of inflammatory mediators and cytokines, interleukins, nitric oxide, and free radicals are involved in the further evolution of pancreatic acinar cell necrosis and inflammation, which can affect the outcome
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Special Tests of Pancreatic Function: which test to be used for diagnosing feline exocrine pancreatic insufficiency resp ANP?
Serum trypsinlike immunoreactivity (TLI) mainly measures trypsinogen but also detects trypsin and some trypsin molecules bound to proteinase inhibitors. Serum TLI concentration is the diagnostic test of choice for feline exocrine pancreatic insufficiency because it is highly sensitive and specific. The use of this test in the diagnosis of feline ANP is less useful. Serum trypsinogen-like immunoreactivity (TLI) concentrations are transiently elevated in experimental feline acute pancreatitis, but increases in clinical cases are less consistent. The poor sensitivity (i.e., 33%) of this test precludes its use as a definitive assay for feline ANP.
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Why measure Trypsinogen Activation Peptide? (maybe in the future...?)
When trypsinogen is activated to trypsin, a small peptide, trypsinogen activation peptide (TAP), is split from the trypsinogen molecule. Under normal conditions, activation of trypsinogen takes place only in the small intestine and TAP is undetectable in the blood. During pancreatitis, trypsinogen is activated prematurely in pancreatic acinar cells and TAP is released into the vascular space. Urine TAP assays have shown some promise in experimental models of feline pancreatitis, whereas serum TAP assays have shown some utility in preliminary clinical
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Pancreatic Lipase Immunoreactivity Radioimmunoassay and ELISA assays for the measurement of pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity (fPLI) has been developed and validated in the cat. Of value for diagnosing ANP?
Abnormal increases in fPLI have been cited in preliminary reports of feline ANP, but the true sensitivity and specificity of fPLI in the diagnosis of feline ANP have not yet been reported. As with fTLI assays, there are likely many false positives and false negatives with fPLI in the diagnosis of feline ANP.
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Complications of Acute Necrotizing Pancreatitis include?
Chronic Nonsuppurative Pancreatitis, Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency Hepatic Lipidosis Diabetes Mellitus
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Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI) is an uncommon cause of chronic diarrhea in cats. Insufficiency results from failure of synthesis and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes. The natural history of feline EPI is poorly understood, but most cases are believed to result from...?
As with dogs, clinical signs reported in cats with EPI include weight loss, soft voluminous feces, and ravenous appetite. Affected cats may have an antecedent history of recurring bouts of acute pancreatitis (e.g., anorexia, lethargy, vomiting) culminating in CP and EPI
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Several studies have related severe CP to the development of diabetes mellitus. ANP per se may not necessarily be a risk factor for the development of diabetes mellitus, but disease progression to the chronic nonsuppurative form may increase that risk.
Several studies have related severe CP to the development of diabetes mellitus. ANP per se may not necessarily be a risk factor for the development of diabetes mellitus, but disease progression to the chronic nonsuppurative form may increase that risk.