LL2 Flashcards
(160 cards)
1
Q
PREGNANCY, DEVELOPMENT, AND LACTATION
A
2
Q
____ is the term given to the collective changes sperm undergo to help increase the chance of fertilizing an ovum
A
capacitation
3
Q
during development the fetus floats around in the
A
amniotic sac
4
Q
what is the gestation period for cats?
A
56-69 days
5
Q
what part of the cotyledonary placental attachment is found on the uterine lining?
A
caruncle
6
Q
_____ is the term given to the physical act of breeding
A
copulation
7
Q
during pregnancy, what provides the life support system for the developing fetus?
A
placenta
8
Q
in which of the following would you find a zonary placental attachment?
A
dog
9
Q
the _____ is the structure that allows for actual exchange of nutrients and waste between fetal and maternal circulation
A
umbilical cord
10
Q
once the fertilized ova has reached the uterus it is called a ______ and is ready for implantation
A
blastocyte
11
Q
what is the gestation period for horses?
A
321-346 days
12
Q
what portion of sperm undergoes the most change once it enters the female reproductive tract?
A
acrosome
13
Q
once an ovum is fertilized, it is then called a ______
A
zygote
14
Q
in which of the following would you find a cotyledonary placental attachment?
A
sheep
15
Q
what is the gestation period for dogs?
A
59-68 days
16
Q
the life support system of the developing fetus is called the
A
placenta
17
Q
the gestational period for pigs is ______
A
3 months, 3 weeks, 3 days
18
Q
in which of the following would you find a diffuse placental attachment?
A
horse
19
Q
consumption of colostrum after birth is important to a neonates health, because
A
neonates require the immunoglobulin transfer
20
Q
URINALYSIS
A
21
Q
which of the following an occur if urine samples are not read in a timely manner?
A
all of the following
22
Q
which of the following would cause a high urine specific gravity?
A
dehydration
23
Q
calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals are commonly associated with which of the following?
A
ethelyene glycol toxicity
24
Q
a disadvantage of the free catch method of obtaining a urine sample is
A
contamination from the urethra, from areas around the urethral opening, and from the lower genital tract
25
which of the following crystals can you see in alkaline urine?
all of the following
26
a urine pH below 7 (increased H+) is
aciduric
27
typically speaking patients with PU/PD will have
low specific gravity
28
which of the following is the most common type of cast seen in a urine sediment examination?
granular
29
what is the normal urine output for dogs and cats?
1-2 ml/kg
30
urine with a SG in the range of 1.008-1.012 is _____ and indicates that the urine is being neither concentrated nor diluted compared to plasma
isothenuric
31
which of the following is the correct term for finding crystals in the urine?
crystalluria
32
when performing a urine sediment evaluation, a finding of increased numbers of leukocytes is an indication of _____
pyuria
33
uric acid crystals are most commonly found in which of the following breeds?
dalmation
34
which of the following commonly employed methods to collect a urine sample is considered least desirable in order to culture urinary bacterial?
collection from cage floor
35
what would be expected to occur regarding BUN levels and SG in a dehydrated patient who ahs properly functioning kidneys?
increased BUn and increased urine SG
36
a _____ is a quick and simple way to measure urine SG
refractometer
37
large amounts of sperm in the urine can give false positive for which of the following tests on a reagent strip?
protein
38
which of the following clinic findings is typically due to muscle cell lysis
myoglobinuria
39
collecting a urine sample for bacterial cultrue should be done before the rest of the urinalysis is peformed
to avoid contamination
40
in most species, normal urine should be clear. Exceptions are the
horse and rabbit
41
what is the major drawback of collecting urine by cystocentesis
blood contamination
42
which of the following is the scientific name of the bladder worm?
pearsonema plica
43
the accuracy of the refractometer should be periodically checked by using distilled water, which should show a SG of
1.000
44
Urine containing hemoglobin vs. blood can be differentiated by centrifuging the sample. A spun sample will reveal a red sediment with normal supernatant if _______ is present, while _______ will result in a uniform red sample with the supernatant remaining red.
hematuria; hemoglobinuria
45
which of the following tests would you see elevated on a chemistry panel in an animal with azotemia?
BUN and Creatinine
46
squamous epithelial cells are large polygonal cells with small nuclei. Squamous cells are absent in urine samples collected by
cystocentesis
47
which of the following crystals is a normal finding in the urine of the horse and rabbit?
calcium carbonate crystals
48
which of the following is the most ideal urine sample for examination
first morning urine
49
PANSYSTEMIC DISEASES
50
When a patient dies from rabies it is due to neuron damage in the brain
false
51
which of the following vaccines will cause an animal to always test positive for the disease
FIV
52
which of the following is the treatment of choice for Toxoplasmosis
Clindamycin
53
which of the of the following tick-borne diseases causes a dermal rash around the bite wound that resembles a target?
lyme disease
54
which of the following is a zoonotic disease?
toxoplasmosis
55
toxoplasmosis is caused by
toxoplasma gondii
56
which disease is closely related to antigenically to canine parvo virus
panleukopenia
57
what is the predominant method for transmission of FIV in cats?
bite wounds
58
cats with FIV should be euthanized because of the risk that it posses for humans
false
59
which of the following diseases can only be diagnosed through testing of the brain tissue?
rabies
60
which of the following is the treatment of choice for Rickettsioses?
doxycycline
61
cats shed toxoplasmosis oocytsts for how long after infection?
1-2 weeks
62
what does a cat have to be exposed to inorder to contract FIP?
coronavirus
63
which of the following is the treatment of choice for RMSF?
doxycycline
64
which of the following contributes to lyme disease?
borrelia burgdorferi
65
is parvovirus an enveloped or a non-enveloped virus?
non-enveloped
66
what virus is associated with FIV infection?
lentivirus
67
what cells does Parvo virus infect?
rapidly, dividing cells of the lymphoid system, the intestinal tract, bone marrow, and the myocardium
68
hyperkeratosis of foot pads in dogs is commonly associated with canine parvo virus
false
69
how long does a tick have to attach to transmt B. burgdorferi?
at least 48 hours
70
canine parvo is spread by which of the following means/
feces
71
cats exposed to FIV typically respond in any of the following ways except?
becoming infected, appearing ill within 3 days, and dying within a week
72
which of the following may not be a sign of rabies in an animal?
diarrhea
73
canine distemper virus is caused by
paramyxovirus
74
the major source of infection for FIV is
fighting and bite wounds
75
canine parvo virus can remain viable in the environment for
greater than 3 years
76
a vaccinated animal who has bitten a person must be quarantined for how many days to rule out rabies infection at the time of the bite wound
10 days
77
parvovirus in dogs is caused by what virus?
parvo virus
78
feline leukemia has been reported in humans
false
79
the definitive host for toxoplasmosis gondii is
cat
80
kittens should be at least of what age for FIV testing
6 months
81
in which stage of rabies are humans at the greatest risk of exposure as behavioral changes can make some animals appear more friendly
prodromal
82
SQ fluids should be avoided in which of the following patients?
dogs with parvo
83
the brown dog tick is scientifically known as
rhipicephlaous sanguineus
84
TOXICOLOGY
85
silica gel packs can casue severe gastroenteritis and diarrhea
false
86
when dealing with corrosive substances that have been ingested
dilute with milk or water
87
this important step in treating permethrin intoxication should be accomplished as soon as the muscle tremors are somewhat controlled
bathing to remove dermal exposure
88
the atcive toxicants in chocolate include
caffeine and theobromine
89
which of the following nuts is known to cause hind end paresis in dogs?
macadamia nuts
90
NSAIDs in excessive doses will lead to all of the following except
hemolysis
91
where does insoluble calcium oxalate produced by plants such as philodendron and peace lilies cause problems when ingested by companion animals?
mouth
92
pennys minted prior to 1982 contain copper so there are no concerns for zinc toxicity
true
93
why is ethanol administered in cases of ethylene glycol toxicity
it decreases toxic metabolite production
94
ingestion of lilies can cause acute
_____ and death in cats
renal failure
95
ingestion of grapes and raisins can cause ____ in some dogs when eaten
kidney failure
96
how long is the antidote for anticoagulant rodenticide intoxication usually prescribed
30 days
97
the crystal that can be seen in patients with ethylene glycol toxicity is
calcium oxalate monohydrate
98
Amitraz tick collars can cause problems if ingested. Amitraz is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist and can cause sedation, bradycardia and hypotension. Fortunately, the signs can be reversed with
yohimbine or antipamezole
99
ethylene glycol ingestion will result in
renal failure
100
products containing this artificial sweetener can cause potential intoxications
xylitol
101
acetaminophen ingestion will lead to
methemoglobinnemia
102
cycad palms are noted for causing
liver failure
103
emesis should rapidly be induced in patients that have a recent history of ingesting products like toilet bowl cleaners
false
104
_____ is the toxic principle of castor beans and is considered to be one of the most potent plant toxins known
ricin
105
how long after ingestion of chocolate should emesis be attempted in dogs?
up to 8 hours after ingestion
106
which organization is available to call when poisoning is suspected?
ASPCA
107
Acetylcysteine is the antidote for which of the following toxic drugs?
acetaminophen
108
pesticides and rodenticides are common toxicities. For which of the following should emesis be induced outside in a well ventilated area?
mole bait
109
cats are roughly 10 times more sensitive to acetaminophen than dogs are
true
110
to treat permethrin intoxication in patients which drug has been shown to work the best?
methocarbamol
111
bromethalin intoxication will cause
brain edema and seizures
112
cold water or ice cubes should be administered by mouth or via a stomach tube to dogs that have ingested
bread dough
113
which of the following rodenticides causes soft tissue calcification?
cholecalciferol
114
the antidote for anticoagulant type rodenticides
vitamin K1
115
When an animal owner phones a veterinary practice expressing concern that the animal might have been poisoned, a veterinary technician should be able to do all of the following without input from the veterinarian except
call a local pharmacy and place an order for the appropraite antidote
116
zinc ingestion can lead to
hemolytic anemai
117
nicotine intoxication can lead to death due to
respiratory paralysis
118
Oleander, lily of the valley or foxglove ingestion will lead to vomiting, diarrhea, and cardiac arrhythmias-- the toxic principle would be
cardiac glycosides
119
which emetic medication can be administered via the conjunctival sac?
apomophine
120
this intoxication will produce depression, bradycardia, urinary incontinence, ataxia, and mydriasis
marijuana
121
the antidote for castor bean ingestion would be
no antidote
122
garlic, leeks, chives, and onions contain compounds that will cause
hemolytic anemia
123
which of the following chocolate types will have the greatest amount of methylxanthines?
bakers
124
common household sources of ____ includes: toilet bowl cleaners, drain openers, automobile battery fluid, and pool sanitizers
acids
125
EMERGENCY AND CRITICAL CARE
126
a client calls the hospital and indicates that a car has just hit his cat. the recommendation that should be made include
immediately bring the cat into the clinic to be examined by a vet
127
a client describes his male cat as lethargic and constipated; he has observed the cat straining in the litter box. You suspect that the cat is actually suffering from
urethral obstruction
128
which of the following changes on a chemistry panel would you expect to see in a FLUTD patient that has a urinary obstruction?
hyperkalemia
129
for which of the following types of pleural effusion would you most likely not perform a thoracentesis?
hemothorax
130
what is the preferred route of fluid adminisgtration in critically ill animals?
IV
131
a patient is experiencing cardiopulmonary arrest. The most desirable route of drug administration is
IV
132
what is not usually a sign of acute GDV?
profuse diarrhea
133
which is not an immediate consideration in CPCR?
analgesia
134
according to the principles of triage, which patient should be seen first?
dog with acute gastric dilatation/volvulus
135
when performing CPR on dogs and cats, it is important
to compress the chest 30-50% of the total width
136
the normal CRT of a canine patient is
1-2 sec
137
patients with burns will likely have scars the rest of their life
truet
138
the first drug of choice for a cat that experiences status epilepticus is
diazepam
139
which of these items would be least useful on a crash cart used for emergency situations?
otoscope
140
according to the principles of triage, which patient should be seen first/
dog in respiratory distress
141
which of the following is a vasopressor that can be used during CPCR
epinephrine
142
signs of cardiopulmonary arrest include all of the following except
alertness
143
the rapid IV adminstraiton of large amoutns of potassium can result in
cardiac arrest
144
during triage, which of the following should be seen first?
cat in respiratory distress
145
which of the following triage levels should be seen first?
1
146
the MM of a dog in septic shock are
hyperemic (injected)
147
the electrodes on many ECG machines are color codes. the ____ lead is placed on the right forelimb
white
148
which of the following topical medications should be avoided when treating a corneal ulcer
steroids
149
how should a patient with a potential spinal injury be transported?
lying on a flat board
150
skin staples provide a wound with a sturdy closure to help promote wound healing
false
151
which of the following systems is not evaluated during the initial in-hospital triage examination
musculoskeletal
152
a client calls and says that his Rottweiler has been shot in the abdomen with a BB gun, but he appears perfectly fine. what should be recommended?
see a veterinarian immediately
153
modified transudate material is the most common form of pleural effusion observed in out veterinary patients
true
154
four patients present to your clinic at the same time with emergency conditions. In which order should they be triaged?
dyspnea, dystocia, proptosis, laceration
155
which of the following conditions are you more likely to see after an animal experiences a severe blunt trauma, such as being hit by a car
diaphragmatic hernia
156
A client calls the hospital to say that his Pekingese has suffered an eye proptosis. Your advice to the client should include all of the following, except:
apply pressure to the globe to replace it in the socket
157
Which of the following routes of injectable drug administration is not recommended in dehydrated patients, especially in an emergency situation?
SQ!
158
Allergic reactions are commonly seen in emergency medicine. All of the following medications may be given to an animal suffering from an allergic reaction, except:
dexmedetomidine
159
during CPCR many drugs may be given. All of the following meds can be given IT except
naloxone
160
which of the following is the msot common type of shock observed in our vet patient?
hypovolemic
