M1 FINAL COACHING Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following represents the index of the protective power of colloids?
A. Nuggets
B. Lumina
C. Poise
D. Zsigmondy
A
D
2
Q
What is formed when an atom or cation acts as the center about which anions or molecules arrange themselves?
A.
Covalent compounds
B.
Ionic compounds
C.
Complexes
D.
Ionic-covalent compounds
A
C
3
Q
What does enthalpy refer to in thermodynamics
A.
Latent heat
B.
Heat content
C.
Degree of total molecular randomness
D.
Heat of fusion
A
B
4
Q
The following are characteristics of active transport, EXCEPT:
A.
Higher to lower concentration gradient
B.
Follow saturation kinetics
C.
Carrier mediated
D.
Expenditure of energy
A
A
5
Q
Calcium sulfate dihydrate is also names as
A.
Fluorspar
B.
Limestone
C.
Talc
D.
Selenite
A
B
6
Q
What is quartz?
A.
Silicon dioxide
B.
Magnesium oxide
C.
Carbon dioxide
D.
Aluminum oxide
A
A
7
Q
Which is the LIGHTEST of all metals
A.
Platinum
B.
Lithium
C.
Nickel
D.
Magnesium
A
B
8
Q
Which paired elements belong to Group VII-A
A.
F, Br
B.
Na, Ca
C.
F, Na
D.
Na, F
A
A
9
Q
. Which group is referred to as “alkali metals”?
A.
Group I-A
B.
Group II-A
C.
Group IV-A
D.
Group III-A
A
A
10
Q
Which are properties of ammoniated mercury?
I. Volatilizes at red heat
II. Occurs as white amorphous powder
III. Soluble in water and alcohol
IV. Decomposes without fusion
A.
II, III, IV
B.
I, II, IV
C.
I, II, III, IV
D.
I, III, IV
A
B
11
Q
Which of the following binary compounds is called arsine?
A.
CH3
B.
AsH3
C.
PH3
D.
NH3
A
B
12
Q
Which of the following represents the chemical formula of calomel?
A.
HgCl
B.
HgO
C.
HgCl2
D.
SnCl4
A
A
13
Q
Elements that can exists in two or more crystalline forms are said to be:
A.
Amphoteric
B.
Polymorphic
C.
Amorphous
D.
Allotropic
A
D
14
Q
Cream of tartar is known chemically as
A.
Potassium bitartrate
B.
Sodium potassium tartrate
C.
Zinc oxide
D.
Potassium nitrate
A
A
15
Q
The following elements form basic hydrides, EXCEPT:
A.
Calcium
B.
Sulfur
C.
Strontium
D.
Magnesium
A
B
16
Q
Which of the elements is the MOST electronegative
A.
I
B.
Br
C.
Cl
D.
F
A
D
17
Q
Amalgams is an alloy of which of the following elements?
A.
Mercury
B.
Iron
C.
Copper
D.
Zinc
A
A
18
Q
The following compose group V cations, EXCEPT:
A.
Manganese
B.
Lithium
C.
Potassium
D.
Sodium
A
A
19
Q
Which of the following elements are referred to as the triad of Group VIII?
I. Co
II. Mn
III. Ni
IV. Fe
A.
I, III, IV
B.
I, II, III
C.
I, II, IV
D.
II, III, IV
A
A
20
Q
Which of the following elements are referred to as volatile metals?
I. Cadmium
II. Mercury
III. Beryllium
IV. Zinc
A.
I, III, IV
B.
II, III, IV
C.
I, II, IV
D.
I, II, III
A
C
21
Q
Determine the valence of chromium in potassium chromate with the chemical formula: K2CrO4
A.
6
B.
5
C.
8
D.
7
A
A
22
Q
Which of the following elements are amphoteric?
I. Beryllium
II. Zinc
III. Aluminum
IV. Calcium
A.
I, III
B.
II, III
C.
III, IV
D.
I, II
A
A
23
Q
What is liberated when potassium permanganate is reacted with hydrochloric acid?
A.
Manganous oxide
B.
Hypochlorous acid
C.
Chlorine
D.
Hydrogen
A
C
24
Q
When acids are in solution, which of the following is released?
A.
Positrons
B.
Neutrons
C.
Protons
D.
Electrons
E.
Photon
A
C
25
When water undergoes electrolysis forming hydrogen and oxygen molecules, which of the following phrases BEST describes this occurrence?
A.
Substitution reaction
B.
Chemical change
C.
Physical change
D.
Evaporation
B
26
Which law describes the relationship between pressure, volume, and temperature of gases as depicted in the equation: PV = nRT?
A.
Law of Definite Proportions
B.
Ideal gas law
C.
Gay Lussac’s law
D.
Boyle’s law
B
27
In sulfate conjugation, which of the following groups is transferred during functionalization phase of biotransformation of xenobiotics?
A.
Sulfide
B.
Sulfonate
C.
Sulfhydryl
D.
Sulfate
D
28
Which of the following is NOT a condition that can occur during metabolic acidosis
A.
Diabetic acidosis
B.
Renal failure
C.
Diarrhea
D.
Hypertension
D
29
Replacement therapy is needed when there is:
I. Heavy loss of water
II. Prolonged fever
III. Fracture
IV. Diarrhea
A.
I, II, III
B.
I, II, IV
C.
II, III, IV
D.
I, III, IV
B
30
Which of the following compounds exhibits amphoteric properties making it suitable to prevent systemic alkalosis?
A.
Aluminum hydroxide
B.
Calcium hydroxide
C.
Magnesium sulfate
D.
Barium sulfate
A
31
Which statements BEST describe the properties of elements in the Periodic Table, from the upper right corner, going down and then to the left?
I. Elements increase in metallic character
II. Elements become more electronegative
III. Elements become more basic
IV. Elements become less electronegative
A.
I, III, IV
B.
I, II, III
C.
II, III, IV
D.
I, II, IV
A
32
Which of the following is a wax obtained from whales used in the preparation of cosmetic creams and fine wax candles
A.
Spermaceti
B.
Carrageenan
C.
Fucoidan
D.
Prostaglandins
A
33
Which ion gives a Turnbull’s blue precipitate upon addition with potassium ferricyanide*
A.
Stannic
B.
Ferric
C.
Stannous
D.
Ferrous
D
34
Which among the following characteristics differentiates Calcium containing antacid forms from Aluminum containing antacids?
A.
Calcium is odorless
B.
Calcium does not cause alkalosis
C.
Calcium does not have amphoteric properties and does not cause systemic alkalosis
D.
Calcium does not have amphoteric properties
D
35
Which of the following elements is NOT found as component of extracellular fluids in humans?
A.
Calcium ion
B.
Sodium ions
C.
Iodide
D.
Chloride
C
36
Which salt is found in the bicarbonate buffer system of the extracellular fluid of the human body?
A.
Magnesium bicarbonate
B.
Potassium bicarbonate
C.
Sodium bicarbonate
D.
Sodium chloride
C
37
Surfactants are characterized by the presence of which of the following?
A.
Water solubilizing and fat solubilizing groups in the same molecule
B.
Positive and negative charges
C.
Water solubilizing groups only
D.
Fat solubilizing groups only
A
38
Which of the following refers to a substance that absorbs moisture but does not dissolve in it?
A.
Hygroscopic
B.
Dehydrating substance
C.
Efflorescent
D.
Deliquescent
A
39
Which of the following describes potential energy
A.
Boiling water
B.
Water inside a big dam
C.
Water flowing over a dam
D.
Burning gasoline
B
40
Which among the following is used as solar ray protective or sun block
A.
Barium sulfate emetic
B.
Titanium dioxide
C.
Sodium nitrite
D.
Antimony chloride
B
41
Which among the following is the allotropic form of phosphorus made by heating phosphorus at 200 degree Celsius under a pressure of 1.2 GPa?
A.
Black phosphorus
B.
White phosphorus
C.
Red phosphorus
D.
Yellow phosphorus
A
42
Which of the following type of radiation has the greatest penetrating power?
A.
Beta radiation
B.
Gamma radiation
C.
Sun rays
D.
Alpha radiation
B
43
Which of the following pharmaceutical products requires that the method of preparation must be reflected in the label?
A.
Sterile water for injection USP
B.
Bacteriostatic water for injection USP
C.
Purified water USP
D.
Milk of magnesia
C
44
A drug receptor may be all of the following, EXCEPT?
A.
Isolable enzyme
B.
Functional component of a cell membrane
C.
Nucleic acid
D.
Chelate
D
45
Compounds that results from a combination of electron donor and a metal forming a ring structure
A.
Chelate
B.
Prodrug
C.
Lactam ring
D.
Ligand
A
46
Conformation of organic molecules is most commonly determined by which of the following analytical methods?
A.
Nuclear magnetic resonance
B.
Mass spectrophotometry
C.
Optical rotation
D.
pK determination
A
47
Which of the following statements describes cis- and trans isomerism?
I. Occurs only in organic compounds
II. Occurs in both organic and inorganic compounds
III. Trans-alkenes have lower solubility in inert solvents than their cis counterparts
IV. Cis- and Trans- isomers often have different physical properties.
A.
I, III, IV
B.
II, III, IV
C.
I, II, IV
D.
I, II, III
A
48
Which of the following characterizes facilitated diffusion?
A.
Energy requiring
B.
Involves shifting of solvent
C.
Carrier-specific
D.
The movement against a concentration gradient
C
49
Which are the pharmaceutical applications of partition coefficient?
I. Predicts where drug will concentrate in the body
II. Predicts adverse drug interactions in the body
III. Predicts solubility of a drug in water and fatty tissues in the body
IV. Predicts how well a chemical ingredient will mix with creams in consumer products
A.
II, III, IV
B.
I, II, IV
C.
I, II, III
D.
I, III, IV
D
50
Which of the following is the major organ for drug metabolism?
A.
Liver
B.
Small intestines
C.
Kidney
D.
Lungs
A
51
Which of the following therapeutic advantages CANNOT be obtained by the use of prodrugs?
Increase___
A.
Water solubility
B.
Oral absorption
C.
Duration of action
D.
Potency
D
52
Which of the following are benzodiazepine derivatives used as anxiolytics?
I. Imidazopyridine
II. Chlordiazepoxide
III. Alprazolam
IV. Diazepam
A.
I, II, III, IV
B.
I, II, IV
C.
I, III, IV
D.
II, III, IV
D
53
Which antibiotic is obtained from Streptomyces noursei?
A.
Amphotericin B
B.
Griseofulvin
C.
Clindamycin
D.
Nystatin
D
54
Simethicone is a component of several antacid formulation, how is it chemically classified?
A.
Wax
B.
Ketone
C.
Silicone
D.
Alcohol
C
55
Hydroxybenzoic acid is more commonly known as:
A.
Citric acid
B.
Oxalic acid
C.
Salicylic acid
D.
Lactic acid
C
56
Sensitivity of gram negative bacilli to amoxicillin is attributed to its:
A.
Carboxyl group
B.
Nitro group
C.
Hydroxyl group
D.
Amino group
D
57
Which of the following is a first generation urinary tract anti-infective
A.
Nalidixic acid
B.
Griseofulvin
C.
Salicylic acid
D.
Norfloxacin
A
58
Which of the following is the expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil Fagus grandiflora?
A.
Tyloxapol
B.
Guiafenes
C.
Potassium iodide
D.
Emetine
B
59
Which of the following is the metabolite of the red prontosil responsible for antimicrobial activity?
A.
Sulfacetamide
B.
Sulfamethoxazole
C.
Sulfanilamide
D.
Sulfapyridine
C
60
Which of the following combination therapy is the treatment of choice for P. carinii pneumonia (PCP)
A.
Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole
B.
Emetine and Dehydroemetine
C.
Metronidazole and iodoquinol
D.
Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
A
61
A combination of non-ionic surfactant with iodine is known as:
A.
Povidone iodine
B.
Tincture of iodine
C.
Iodine in potassium iodide solution
D.
Strong iodine solution
A
62
Which of the following is the strongest acid? (BEQ)
A.
Lactic acid
B.
Benzoic acid
C.
Trichloroacetic acid
D.
Acetic acid
C
63
Paracetamol chemically is a/ an:
A.
Salicylate derivative
B.
Azocaine derivative
C.
Aniline derivative
D.
Pyrazolone derivative
C
64
Although the prostaglandins are hormone like, they may be closely resemble which of the following chemically?
A.
Proteins
B.
Porphyrins
C.
Lipids
D.
Enzymes
C
65
What statement can BEST describe fats chemically?
A.
Fats are steroids with one or more hydroxyl groups
B.
Fats are esters of glycerin and fatty acids
C.
Fats are compounds of glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid, and choline
D.
Fats are polypeptides
C
66
Which one of the following acid will undergo the least amount of ionization in water?
A.
Acetic acid
B.
Lactic acid
C.
Salicylic acid
D.
Boric acid
C
67
Petrolatum USP is NOT soluble in:
A.
Chloroform
B.
Ethyl alcohol
C.
Ether
D.
Benzene
B
68
All of the following substances are present in opium extract, EXCEPT:
A.
Thebaine
B.
Papaverine
C.
Codeine
D.
Methadone
D
69
Derivatives of benzylsulfonyl urea are useful as:
A.
Diuretic
B.
Oral hypoglycemic
C.
Anti-inflammatory
D.
Spasmolytics
B
70
Which of the following anesthetics is NOT a volatile liquid?
A.
Halothane
B.
Ethyl chloride
C.
Ether
D.
Cyclopropane
D
71
The following are preservatives, EXCEPT:
A.
Potassium sorbate
B.
Undecylenic acid
C.
Methyl paraben
D.
Benzoic acid
B
72
Piperazine citrate, gentian violet, pyrvinium pamoate, and thiabendazole are examples of:
A.
Antibiotics
B.
Antiseptics
C.
Anthelmintics
D.
Dyes
C
73
Which are the uses of antimalarials?
I. Prevention of infection in individuals visiting malaria-endemic region
II. Treatment of malaria in individuals with suspected or confirmed infection
III. Prevention of antimalarial resistance
IV. Routine intermittent treatment of certain groups in endemic regions
A.
II, III, IV
B.
I, II, III
C.
I, II, IV
D.
I, III, IV
A
74
Which of the following antimalarials are used for chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum?
I. Pyrimethamine
II. Sulfonamide
III. Mefloquine
IV. Atovaquone
A.
II, III
B.
I, III
C.
I, II
D.
III, IV
D
75
Which of the following Angiotensin II receptor blockers has the greatest bioavailability?
A.
Irbesartan
B.
Losartan
C.
Candesartan
D.
Olmesartan
A
76
All of the following physicochemical constants may be useful to predict the solubility of a compound, EXCEPT:
A.
pH of solution
B.
pKa of the compound
C.
Dielectric constant
D.
Valence of the atoms
D
77
What is the role of citric acid in promoting the analgesic potency of fentanyl effervescent tablets?
A.
It improves the palatability of the fentanyl buccal tablet so it can be used in children
B.
It increases salivary pH
C.
It promotes the formation of fentanyl free base needed for absorption
D.
It promotes dissolution of fentanyl into saliva
D
78
Which of the following is NOT a solvent for polyethylene glycol?
A.
Ethyl alcohol
B.
n-propanol
C.
Water
D.
Mineral oil
D
79
Which of the ff is NOT an alcohol?
A.
Terpin hydrate
B.
Sorbitol
C.
Menthol
D.
Eucalyptol
D
80
Which of the following are classified as GABA receptor modulators
I. Benzodiazepines
II. Barbiturates
III. Chloral hydrate
IV. Ethanol
A.
II, III, IV
B.
I, II, III
C.
I, II, IV
D.
I, III, IV
C
81
Which of the following functional group is susceptible to hydrolysis
A.
R-CO-R
B.
R-COOH
C.
R-O-R
D.
R-COOR
D
82
Mescaline is a/ an __ derivative
A.
Steroid
B.
Xanthine
C.
Indole-ethylamine
D.
Phenyl-ethylamine
D
83
Which of the following antineoplastic agents are obtained from biological sources?
I. Vinblastine
II. Nitrogen mustard
III. Alkyl sulfonate
IV Paclitaxel
A.
I, IV
B.
I, III
C.
I, II
D.
II, III
A
84
Which of the following terms BEST describes a cofactor that is firmly bound to an apoenzyme?
A.
Prosthetic group
B.
Transferase
C.
Holoenzyme
D.
Cofactor
C
85
Which of the following statements best characterize gamma amino butyric acid?
I. It is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain
II. It is biosynthesized from glutamic acid
III. High levels of GABA may be linked to anxiety or mood disorders
IV. GABA is degraded by a pyridoxal-dependent enzyme, producing butyric acid and succinic acid semi-aldehyde
A.
III, IV
B.
II, III
C.
I, IV
D.
I, II
D
86
Which of the following antineoplastic agents are alkylating agents?
I. Nitrosoureas
II. Purine antagonists
III. Methyl hydrazine
IV. Taxanes
A.
I, III
B.
III, IV
C.
II, III
D.
I, II
A
87
Weight of solute in a given quantity of solvent is referred to as:
A.
Solvation
B.
Volume
C.
Solubility
D.
Concentration
D
88
The milliequivalent weight of an acid depends on its:
A.
Number of moles
B.
Number of replaceable hydroxyl ions
C.
Molecular weight
D.
Number of replaceable hydrogen atoms
D
89
In the preparation of standard silver nitrate solution, care must be observed because it easily:
A.
Dissolved and liquefies
B.
Reduced by light
C.
Oxidized by light
D.
Adsorbed
C
90
Iodometry is an indirect analysis of:
A.
Acids
B.
Reducing agents
C.
Oxidizing agents
D.
Complex salts
C
91
In quantitative analysis, a burette with a glass stopcock is used to accurately measure ___ solutions
A.
Acid
B.
Blank
C.
Alkali
D.
Buffer
A
92
Which of the following is used as a precipitant for barbiturates?
A.
Ethyl alcohol
B.
Nitric acid
C.
Fehling’s solution
D.
Magnesia mixture
B
93
The method used for observing changes in the crystalline form of a drug is:
A.
Visual appraisal
B.
X-ray diffraction
C.
Microscopic examination
D.
Differential thermal analysis
B
94
In the bisulfite method of analysis, which among apparatus listed is used in the assay of aldehyde or ketone content of volatile oils?
A.
Babcock bottle
B.
Cassia flask
C.
Biuret
D.
Distilling apparatus
B
95
Chlorides may be precipitated by:
A.
Potassium nitrate
B.
Calcium chloride
C.
Sodium nitrate
D.
Silver nitrate
D
96
Ferric thiocyanate, produced by the reaction of ferric salts with ammonium thiocyanate has a __ color
A.
Dark blue
B.
Light violet
C.
Dark yellow
D.
Blood red
D
97
Which of the following is the concentration of a solution that contains one gram equivalent weight of solute in a liter of solution?
A.
Formal solution
B.
Molal solution
C.
Normal solution
D.
Molar solution
C
98
Elements in atmosphere (BEQ)
I. Hydrogen is 14 times lighter than air
II. Nitrogen is heavier than Oxygen
III. Hydrogen was discovered by Cavendish
A.
I only
B.
I and II
C.
I and III
D.
II and III
E.
I, II, III
C
99
States that the entropy of a pure, crystalline solid at absolute zero temperature is zero
A.
Third law of thermodynamics
B.
Second law of thermodynamics
C.
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
D.
First law of thermodynamics
A
100
If the ion product is greater than Ksp, the solution is: (BEQ)
A.
Saturated
B.
Supersaturated
C.
Unsaturated
D.
Cannot be determined
B
101
Has greatest factor among the quantum numbers in determining the atomic radius:
A.
Principal quantum number
B.
Azimuthal quantum number
C.
Magnetic quantum number
D.
Spin quantum number
A
102
Property that reflects how strongly an atom attracts a shared pair of electrons.
A.
Electron affinity
B.
Ionization energy
C.
Electronegativity
D.
Ionization Strength
C
103
Arrange the elements according to increasing electronegativity (BEQ)
A.
I > Br > Cl > F
B.
Cl > Br > F > I
C.
Br > Cl > I > F
D.
F > Cl > Br > I
A
104
Which halogen has the highest reactivity? (BEQ)
A.
Cl
B.
Br
C.
F
D.
I
C
105
Which of the elements is the most metallic? (BEQ)
A.
Br
B.
I
C.
Cl
D.
F
B
106
Which of the following is the most acidic? (BEQ)
A.
HF
B.
HCl
C.
HBr
D.
HI
D
107
Which of the following do not cause a shift in chemical equilibrium?
A.
Catalyst
B.
Cations
C.
Anions
D.
Concentration
A
108
Second law of thermodynamics deals with which state function?
A.
Free Gibbs energy
B.
Enthalpy
C.
Entropy
D.
AOTA
C
109
Substances that shows strong conductivity property and a high degree of ionization: (BEQ)
A.
HCl, NaOH, NaCl
B.
Glucose, ethanol
C.
Ammonia, HF
D.
Buffer
E.
Two of the above
A
110
Which of the following refers to the amount of a strong acid or base that must be added to a liter of solution to change the pH by one unit?
A.
Ionization constant
B.
Equilibrium constant
C.
Concentration
D.
Buffer Capacity
D
111
Which has the formula = moles solute/ kg solution
A.
Osmolality
B.
Molality
C.
Normality
D.
NOTA
D
112
If hydrogen bonds in a molecule increased in number, the polarity ________ & water-solubility _______
A.
Increases; decreases
B.
Increases; increases
C.
Decreases; increases
D.
Decreases; decreases
B
113
Which of the following statements is NOT true about half – life of radioisotopes?
A.
The faster the isotope decays, the more stable it is
B.
Half-life is the time it takes for the amount of radioactivity to reduce by 50%
C.
The faster the isotope decays, the more unstable it is
D.
The half-life is unique for any given isotope
A
114
The alcohol resulting from hydrolysis of octyl acetate is used as:
A.
Lubricant
B.
Cleansing
C.
Standard for partition coefficient analysis
D.
Co-solvent for tinctures
C
115
The greater the value of distribution coefficient (D), the higher the hydrophilicity of the drug. Lipid solubility is usually expressed by the partition between water & octanol.
A.
First statement is true, second is false
B.
Second statement is true, first is false
C.
Both statements are false
D.
Both statements are true
B
116
What metal is unaffected by body fluids hence it is used in surgical repair of bones, nerves, & muscles? (BEQ)
A.
Aluminum
B.
Tantalum
C.
Cobalt
D.
Palladium
B
117
The following are Group V cations, EXCEPT:
A.
Manganese
B.
Lithium
C.
Potassium
D.
Sodium
A
118
In the process of purifying water by chlorination, what is the rationale of adding chlorine dioxide? (BEQ)
A.
To ensure the pH of the water is 7
B.
To destroy unpleasant odor & taste
C.
To further disinfect the water
D.
To act as bleaching agent
C
119
Which test is used for nitrate, giving a positive blue color?
A.
Marsh test
B.
Turmeric paper test
C.
Perchromic acid test
D.
Lunge test
D
120
Which anion evolves a gas with a fruity odor when treated with concentrated sulfuric acid & ethanol?
A.
ClO4-
B.
SO4-2
C.
CH3COO-
D.
BrO3-3
C
121
Mineral chameleon is the synonym of this powerful oxidizing agent (BEQ)
A.
Manganese dioxide
B.
Potassium nitrate
C.
Potassium permanganate
D.
Sodium iodide
C
122
Which of the following is the chemical name for Baker’s Ammonia?
A.
Ammonium Hydroxide
B.
Ammonium Chloride
C.
Ammonium Carbonate
D.
Ammonium Molybdate
C
123
Which of the following common names is the other name for Beryl?
A.
Borax
B.
Lime
C.
Marble
D.
Aquamarine
D
124
Which of the following reduces Iodine?
A.
Sodium Hydroxide
B.
Magnesium Sulfate
C.
Sodium Thiosulfate
D.
Potassium iodide
C
125
Form of sulfur used for Vleminckx’s solution
A.
Precipitated sulfur
B.
Sublimed sulfur
C.
Sulfurated potash
D.
NOTA
B
126
Fehling’s & Benedict’s reagent, used to determine the presence of reducing sugars, contain what salt?
A.
CaSO4
B.
CuSO4
C.
MgSO4
D.
SrSO4
B
127
Which of the following elements is found in Grignard Reagent?
A.
Co
B.
Pb
C.
Fe
D.
Mg
D
128
Antidote for barium poisoning
A.
NaCl
B.
Magnesium sulfate
C.
Sodium bicarbonate
D.
Sodium Formaldehyde Sulfoxylate
B
129
Which of the following will be used to correct acute metabolic alkalosis?
A.
NaCl
B.
NaHCO3
C.
CaCl2
D.
KCl
C
130
Used as treatment for mental ailments
A.
NaHCO3
B.
Li2CO3
C.
MgSO4
D.
Na2CO3
B
131
Which of the following gases are official & used as artificial atmosphere?
I. Nitrogen
II. Oxygen
III. Neon
IV. Carbon Dioxide
A.
II, III, IV
B.
I, III, IV
C.
I, II, IV
D.
I, II, III
C
132
Homolytic cleavage results to
A.
Electrophiles
B.
Radicals
C.
Nucleophiles
D.
A & C
B
133
Which of the following is NOT soluble or miscible in Alcohol, USP?
A.
Ether
B.
Phenobarbital
C.
Formaldehyde
D.
Acacia
D
134
Which of the following is the type formula for aldehydes?
A.
RCOOH
B.
RCOX
C.
RCHO
D.
ROH
C
135
Which of the following is the strongest acid? (BEQ)
A.
Lactic acid
B.
Benzoic acid
C.
Trichloroacetic acid
D.
Acetic acid
C
136
The hydrogen will be received by the less stable vinyl carbon based on the
A.
Markovnikov rule
B.
Huckel’s rule
C.
Hund’s rule
D.
Zaitsev’s rule
A
137
Chromic acid (OA) will convert acetaldehyde to
A.
Ethanol
B.
Ethanoic acid
C.
Acetic acid
D.
Two of the above
D
138
Arrange from least to most water soluble
A.
Toluene < methanol < acetone
B.
Methanol < toluene < acetone
C.
Toluene < acetone < methanol
D.
methanol < toluene < acetone
C
139
What class of organic compounds will result after a Friedel-Crafts acylation?
A.
Carboxylic acid
B.
Alkyl halide
C.
Aldehyde
D.
Ketone
D
140
The following depicts the structures of isoproterenol & metaproterenol, respectively. They are what type of isomers?
A.
Geometric
B.
Optical
C.
Positional
D.
Skeletal
C
141
Susceptibility to hydrolysis from most susceptible to least susceptible: (BEQ)
A.
Amides > Esters > Anhydrides > Acyl Halide
B.
Acyl Halide > Anhydrides > Esters > Amides
C.
Esters > Acyl Halides > Anhydrides > Amides
D.
Anhydrides > Esters > Amides > Acyl Halides
B
142
Which of the tests WILL NOT give a positive result with acetone?
I. Brady test
II. Iodoform test
III. Fehling’s test
IV. Jones oxidation
V. Hinsberg test
A.
I, II, IV, V
B.
I & II
C.
III, IV, V
D.
I, II, III, IV, V
C
143
Product in the reaction between a primary amine & aldehyde
A.
Imine
B.
Enamine
C.
Amide
D.
Lactone
A
144
Enol is not a stable compound because it undergoes
A.
Electrophilic attack
B.
Hydrophobic attack
C.
Hydrophilic attack
D.
Hydrogen shift
E.
Tautomerization
E
145
Trans-2-alkene: (BEQ)
I. Asymmetrical
II. Non-polar
III. Higher melting point
IV. Lower boiling point
A.
I, II, III
B.
II, III, IV
C.
I, III, IV
D.
I, II, III, IV
B
146
The ring common among Penicillins & Cephalosporins is____
A.
Beta-Lactam ring
B.
Thiazole Ring
C.
Benzene Ring
D.
Phenothiazine Ring
A
147
Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render: (BEQ)
A.
Activity against Pseudomonas
B.
Acid stability
C.
Activity against Gram (–) bacteria
D.
Penicillinase resistance
D
148
The only part of penicillin that is always present but not essential.
A.
Sulfur
B.
Cis-stereochemistry
C.
Lactam ring
D.
Free carboxylate
A
149
Aryloxypropanolamine (structure below) is the chemical classification of what group of drugs?
A.
ARBs
B.
Opioids
C.
B-blockers
D.
Cholinergic agonists
C
150
Which of the following is chemically a fluoroquinolone?
A.
Econazole
B.
Methenamine
C.
Pipemidic Acid
D.
Norfloxacin
D
151
Which among the following is an alternative antibiotic for patient allergic to penicillin? (BEQ)
A.
Aureomycin
B.
Erythromycin
C.
Chloramphenicol
D.
Tetracycline
B
152
Which of the following agents is NOT used for local candidiasis?
A.
Nystatin
B.
Miconazole
C.
Gentian Violet
D.
Griseofulvin
D
153
Azole antifungals are a group of medicines that contain an azole ring & inhibit the growth of a wide range of fungi. They are classified into two groups: imidazole & triazole. Which of the following is an example of a triazole?
A.
Fluconazole
B.
Imidazole
C.
Miconazole
D.
Ketoconazole
A
154
The structure above is classified as:
A.
Ultra-short acting
B.
Short acting
C.
Intermediate acting
D.
Long acting
A
155
The onset & duration of Barbiturate action is a function of its __ (BEQ)
A.
Lipid solubility
B.
Renal excretion
C.
Plasma binding
D.
Mode of administration
A
156
An example of Barbiturate with intermediate action? (BEQ)
A.
Phenobarbital
B.
Thiopental
C.
Pentobarbital
D.
Amobarbital
D
157
The structure below can cause what adverse effect?
A.
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
B.
Bradycardia
C.
Addiction
D.
Cycloplegia
D
158
The structure above is classified as?
A.
Penicillin
B.
Cephalosporin
C.
Carbapenem
D.
Monobactam
C
159
What is the other name for phenylmethanol?
A.
Chloretone
B.
Benzyl Alcohol
C.
Diphenylethanol
D.
Carvacrol
B
160
The following drugs undergo acetylation reaction upon metabolism EXCEPT:
A.
Sulfanilamide
B.
Procainamide
C.
Ethanol
D.
Hydralazine
C
161
In sulfate conjugation, which of the following groups is transferred during conjugation phase of biotransformation of xenobiotics?
A.
Sulfhydryl
B.
Sulfonate
C.
Sulfide
D.
Sulfate
D
162
Which of the following is a Monoamine oxidase inhibitor used as an Anti-depressant drug?
A.
Amitriptyline
B.
Thioridazine
C.
Tranylcypromine
D.
Clozapine
C
163
Which of the following derivatives of Benzimidazole is used as an anthelmintic?
A.
Mefloquine
B.
Mebendazole
C.
Primaquine
D.
Chloroquine
B
164
What are the risks of the long-term use of Benzodiazepines? (BEQ)
I. Developing Tolerance
II. Developing acute stress reactions
III. Developing dependence
IV. Developing serious sleep problems
A.
I, III
B.
II, III
C.
I, II
D.
III, IV
A
165
ACEI are associated with high incidence of which of the following adverse reaction?
A.
Hypokalemia
B.
Agranulocytosis
C.
Hepatitis
D.
Proteinuria
D
166
Which of the following antineoplastics is NOT considered as antimetabolite?
A.
Methotrexate
B.
Thioguanine
C.
Etoposide
D.
Cytarabine
C
167
All of the following hormonal drugs possess a steroidal nucleus, EXCEPT:
A.
Ethinyl Estradiol
B.
Norethindrone
C.
Liothyronine
D.
Danazol
C
168
Which of the following is a progesterone derivative used in the treatment of endometrial cancer?
A.
Goserelin
B.
Tamoxifen
C.
Flutamide
D.
Depo-Provera
D
169
Which of the following substance when present in the urine is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy?
A.
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
B.
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
C.
Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone (ICSH)
D.
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)
A
170
Which of the following anesthetics are amino esters? (BEQ)
I. Cocaine
II. Lidocaine
III. Benzocaine
IV. Prilocaine
A.
III, IV
B.
I, III
C.
II, III
D.
I, II
B
171
An antipyretic aniline derivative with weak anti-inflammatory activity: (BEQ)
A.
Acetylsalicylic acid
B.
Mefenamic acid
C.
Sulindac
D.
Acetaminophen
E.
Indomethacin
D
172
Which of the following metabolite of methoxyflurane is responsible for its nephrotoxicity?
A.
Fluoride Ion
B.
Oxalic acid
C.
Difluoromethoxyacetic acid
D.
Methane
A
173
Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of ________ which is chemically a _________.
A.
Meperidine; Phenylpiperidine
B.
Pethidine; Pyridine
C.
Methadone; Phenylheptylamine
D.
Pentazocine; Benzomorphan
A
174
The Structure of Prochlorperazine is shown. Which of the following medications, because of its chemical relationship to Prochlorperazine, would most likely cause similar side effects?
A.
Fluphenazine
B.
Thioridazine
C.
Alprazolam
D.
Buspirone
A
175
Which of the following prostaglandin analogs is used specifically for the treatment of Glaucoma?
A.
Alprostadil
B.
Latanoprost
C.
Carboprost
D.
Dinoprostone
B
176
Which of the following diuretics is most similar in chemical structure to the antihypertensive agent Diazoxide?
A.
Furosemide
B.
Spironolactone
C.
Mannitol
D.
Chlorothiazide
D
177
The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is a result of:
A.
Chelating Action
B.
Inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin
C.
Displacement of heparin
D.
Acid-base interaction
D
178
All of the following classes of drugs are used to treat hypertension, EXCEPT:
A.
Aryloxypropanolamines
B.
Thiazides
C.
Fibrates
D.
Dihydropyridines
C
179
An anxiolytic drug that does not possess either hypnotic or anticonvulsant properties
A.
Tranylcypromine
B.
Imipramine
C.
Buspirone
D.
Fluoxetine
E.
Phenelzine
C
180
A prototype tricyclic antidepressant with antimuscarinic properties that makes it useful in treatment of enuresis
A.
Tranylcypromine
B.
Imipramine
C.
Buspirone
D.
Fluoxetine
E.
Phenelzine
B
181
An antidepressant that inhibits serotonin reuptake & may cause adverse effects such as impaired memory, akathisia & menstrual irregularities
A.
Tranylcypromine
B.
Imipramine
C.
Buspirone
D.
Fluoxetine
E.
Phenelzine
D
182
Organic compounds that are weak or acids or weak bases that response to the change in pH (BEQ)
A.
Analyte
B.
Indicator
C.
Titrant
D.
Primary standard
B
183
The color of phenolphthalein in vinegar (BEQ)
A.
Pink
B.
Yellow
C.
Colorless
D.
Orange
C
184
Which of the following is not a primary standard? (BEQ)
A.
Potassium biphthalate
B.
Anhydrous calcium carbonate
C.
Potassium hydroxide
D.
Potassium dichromate
C
185
The following are examples of anionic hydrocolloids, EXCEPT:
A.
Carboxymethylcellulose (CMC)
B.
Agar
C.
Chitosan
D.
Bentonite
C
186
Most toxic vitamin (BEQ)
A.
Vitamin E
B.
Ascorbic acid
C.
Folic acid
D.
Retinol
D
187
A polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is: (BEQ)
A.
Starch
B.
Insulin
C.
Dextrose
D.
Dextran
D
188
Nos. 188 – 193: Marine sources
Which of the following are B-Carboline derivatives isolated from sponges (Subphylum Tunicata)? (BEQ)
A.
Fucoidan
B.
Carrageenan
C.
Alginic Acid
D.
Eudistamines
D
189
Which of the following is a sulfated polysaccharide compound extracted from Brown algae Laminaria spp. active against Herpes Simplex Virus? (BEQ)
A.
Alginic Acid
B.
Fucoidan
C.
Eudistamine
D.
Carrageenan
B
190
Purified carbohydrate extracted from brown seaweed by treatment of dilute alkali (BEQ)
A.
Eudistomins
B.
Carrageenan
C.
Algin
D.
Fucoidan
C
191
Which of the following is a wax obtained from whales used in the preparation of cosmetic creams & fine wax candles? (BEQ)
A.
Prostaglandins
B.
Fucoidan
C.
Spermaceti
D.
Carrageenan
C
192
Which of the following is a polysaccharide obtained from Red Seaweeds used in preparation of toothpaste as emulsifying agent? (BEQ)
A.
Prostaglandins
B.
Spermaceti
C.
Carrageenan
D.
Fucoidan
C
193
Which of the following are obtained as products of hydrolysis of Carrageenan? (BEQ)
I. Galactose
II. Glucose
III. Arabinose
IV. Xylose
A.
I, II, III
B.
III, IV
C.
II, IV
D.
II, III, IV
A
194
Which of the Structure/s in Figure 1 is/are said to be derived from the Isoquinoline ring?
A.
Structures I & II
B.
Structures III & IV
C.
Structures V & VI
D.
Structure I & VI
A
195
Which of the Structure/s in Figure 1 is/are said to be derived from the Indole ring?
A.
Structures I & II
B.
Structures III & IV
C.
Structures V & VI
D.
Structure I & VI
B
196
Which of the Structures is said to be used as a skeletal muscle relaxant to secure muscle relaxation in surgical procedures without deep anesthesia?
A.
Structure II
B.
Structure III
C.
Structure IV
D.
Structure V
A
197
Which of the Structures is said to be an Indole derivative used in the treatment of migraine headaches?
A.
Structure III
B.
Structure II
C.
Structure IV
D.
Structure V
C
198
Which of the Structures is said to be an Isoquinoline used as Antiamebic agent?
A.
Structure I
B.
Structure II
C.
Structure III
D.
Structure IV
A
199
Which of the Structures is said to be an indole derivative that inhibits polymerization of tubulin?
A.
Structure I
B.
Structure II
C.
Structure III
D.
Structure IV
C
200
Which of the Structures is said to be derived from Claviceps spp.?
A.
Structure I
B.
Structure II
C.
Structure III
D.
Structure IV
D
