M2 FINAL COACHING Flashcards

(200 cards)

1
Q

Select the site of pyruvate formation during glycolysis

A.
Liver

B.
Muscles

C.
Heart

D.
Lungs

A

A

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2
Q

Choose the organelle, found close to the endoplasmic reticulum, which receives and acts on proteins and membrane lipids to further modify them and then passes these on to other parts of the cell through budding vesicles

A.
Golgi apparatus

B.
Lysosomes

C.
Ribosomes

D.
Mitochondria

A

A

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3
Q

Select the organelles that have digestive vesicles and contain enzymes that degrade proteins and nucleic acids

A.
Ribosomes

B.
Mitochondria

C.
Golgi apparatus

D.
Lysosomes

A

D

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4
Q

Classify the amino acids according to their side-chain functional groups: Glutamine, aspartic acid

A.
Sulfur-containing side chain

B.
Aromatic side chain

C.
Carboxylic acids

D.
Basic side chain

A

C

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5
Q

Identify the chemical bond that joins amino acids together in a protein molecule

A.
Peptide

B.
H-bonds

C.
Ionic bonds

D.
Dipole-dipole

A

A

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6
Q

Identify the characteristic functional groups of amino acids

A.
Amino acid and carboxylic acid groups

B.
Amino and hydroxyl groups

C.
Hydroxyl and carboxylic acid groups

D.
Methyl and carboxylic acid groups

A

A

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7
Q

Identify the simplest amino acid among the 20 common amino acids

A.
Serine

B.
Alanine

C.
Glycine

D.
Lysine

A

C

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8
Q

Identify the nucleotide which is responsible for transcribing the complementary DNA message

A.
rRNA

B.
tRNA

C.
hnRNA

D.
mRNA

A

B

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9
Q

Find the examples of transport and storage proteins

A.
Ribonuclease, hexokinase

B.
Actin, myosin

C.
Hemoglobin, myoglobin, serum albumin

D.
Keratin, actin

A

C

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10
Q

Identify the stage in protein synthesis when the anticodon of tRNA recognizes the codon on mRNA

A.
Termination

B.
Transcription

C.
Translation

D.
Elongation

A

D

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11
Q

Identify the site of the initial stage of protein synthesis

A.
Cytoplasm

B.
Golgi apparatus

C.
Ribosomes

D.
Nucleus

A

C

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12
Q

Analyze and select the underlying principle in the ninhydrin test for proteins

A.
Based on the reaction of cupric ions of the reagent with the N of the peptide bonds forming a purple or violet-colored complex

B.
Based on the nitration of proteins, which leads to the formation of a yellow precipitate that turns into orange on treatment with an alkali

C.
Based on the reaction between the phenolic group of a protein with mercuric sulfate in the presence of sodium nitrite and sulfuric acid resulting in the formation of a red-colored solution

D.
Based on the reaction between the reagent and the amino group of the free amino acid of the test sample, which leads to the oxidation of the compound and its deamination and resulting in the formation of a deep blue colored solution

A

D

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13
Q

Select the enzyme that hydrolyzes bacterial cell wall

A.
Carbonic anhydrase

B.
Lysozyme

C.
Lactate dehydrogenase

D.
Kinase

A

B

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14
Q

Analyze the mechanism or catalytic strategy employed by restriction endonucleases

A.
Utilization of the free energy associated with the hydrolysis of ATP

B.
Achievement of a high absolute rate of reaction that is suitable for integration with other physiological processes

C.
Attainment of a high degree of specificity

D.
Promotion of a reaction that is immeasurably slow at neutral pH

A

C

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15
Q

Analyze which enzyme in the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle catalyzes the condensation of oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA

A.
Citrate synthase

B.
Pyruvate carboxylase

C.
Aconitase

D.
Pyruvate dehydrogenase

A

A

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16
Q

Classify fumarase

A.
Hydrolase

B.
Ligase

C.
Transferase

D.
Lyase

A

D

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17
Q

Analyze the mechanism or catalytic strategy employed by carbonic anhydrase

A.
Utilization of the free energy associated with the hydrolysis of ATP

B.
Achievement of a high absolute rate of reaction that is suitable for integration with other physiological processes

C.
Attainment of a high degree of specificity

D.
Promotion of a reaction that is immeasurably slow at neutral pH

A

B

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18
Q

Analyze which enzyme in the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle catalyzes the carboxylation of pyruvate to give oxaloacetate

A.
Citrate synthase

B.
Pyruvate carboxylase

C.
Fumarase

D.
Pyruvate dehydrogenase

A

B

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19
Q

Identify the zymogen that is activated by the enzyme trypsin

A.
Fibrinogen

B.
Pepsinogen

C.
Trypsinogen

D.
Procarboxypeptidase

A

C

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20
Q

Classify nucleoside monophosphate kinase

A.
Ligase

B.
Hydrolase

C.
Lyase

D.
Transferase

A

D

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21
Q

Identify the carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that finds clinical application in the treatment of glaucoma by reducing intraocular pressure

A.
Celecoxib

B.
Sulfanilamide

C.
Acetazolamide

D.
Prenoxine

A

C

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22
Q

Find the complementary base pairs in DNA molecules

A.
Adenine-Thymine, Cytosine-Guanine

B.
Adenine-Thymine, Cytosine-Uracil

C.
Uracil-Thymine, Cytosine-Guanine

D.
Uracil-Thymine, Adenine-Guanine

A

A

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23
Q

Select the complementary sequence for the DNA segment: GATCAA

A.
CTGCUU

B.
CUAGUU

C.
CTAGTT

D.
TTAGTT

A

C

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24
Q

Determine the pathological condition that is caused by the absence of adenosine deaminase, an enzyme in the purine degradation pathway

A.
Severe combined immunodeficiency

B.
Neural tube defects

C.
Gouts

D.
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

A

A

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25
Identify the step in DNA synthesis when DNA polymerase plays a role A. termination B. Primer binding C. Replication fork formation D. Elongation
D
26
Select the sequence of the mRNA segment synthesized from this DNA template strand: CACCGCCCGTCG A. GUGGCGGGCAGC B. GUGGGGGCCAGC C. GUCGCGGGCAGC D. GUGCCGGGCAGC
A
27
Determine the pathological condition that is caused by a deficiency in folate derivatives during early pregnancy because of the important role of these derivatives in the synthesis of DNA A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome B. Severe combined immunodeficiency C. Gout D. Neural tube defects
D
28
PIck the odd one out A. Telomeres B. Okazaki fragments C. Leading strand D. Lagging strand
A
29
Select the category to which D-glucose and D-mannose belong A. Enantiomers B. Epimers C. Aldose-ketose D. Diastereomers
B
30
Select the carbohydrate that is administered as an intra-articular injection in cases of osteoarthritis A. Keratin sulfate B. Hyaluronic acid C. Heparin D. Beta-D-hexosaminidase-A
B
31
Classify the carbohydrates starch, cellulose, and inulin A. Heteroglycans B. Homoglycans C. Trisaccharides D. Disaccharides
B
32
Find the statement that is NOT correct about glycolysis A. The first part of glycolysis works on the six-carbon molecule, preparing it for oxidation B. The third part operates on one of the glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate molecules, oxidizing it to yield energy C. One glucose molecule generates two molecules of pyruvate and two uniits of ATP D. The second part of glycolysis splits the six-carbon molecule into three two-carbon fragments
D
33
Identify the type of chemical reaction in the conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate A. Phosphoryl shift B. Aldol cleavage C. Isomerization D. Reduction-oxidation
D
34
Identify the type of chemical reaction in the conversion of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-P and dihydroxyacetone phosphate A. Aldol cleavage B. Phosphoryl shift C. Isomerization D. Reduction-oxidation
A
35
Identify the end product of glycolysis A. Phosphoenolpyruvate B. Pyruvate C. Fructose-6-phosphate D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
B
36
Select the carbohydrate used as an acidulant, especially in infant feeding formulas A. High-fructose sweeteners B. Xylose C. Lactic acid D. Mannitol
C
37
Identify the carbohydrate that is used as a self-binding diluent and disintegrating agent A. Xylose B. High-fructose sweeteners C. Powdered cellulose D. Lactic acid
C
38
It measures the degree of unsaturation of the oil. Those which are partially resinify on exposure to air have high values. A. Ester value B. Acetyl value C. Iodine value D. Acid value E. Saponification value
C
39
Refers to the number of mg of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize the acid combined by acylation of the sample. A. Acetyl value B. Peroxide value C. Ester value D. Hydroxyl value E. Iodine value
D
40
Select the class to which prostaglandins belong A. Sphingolipid B. Fatty acid C. Glyceryl ester D. Terpene
B
41
Select the major storage form of fatty acids A. Ester of a long chain alcohol B. Ester of a monohydric alcohol C. Triglyceride D. Ester of a polyhydric alcohol
C
42
Identify the essential fatty acids for humans A. Linolenic acid (omega-6) and linoleic acid (omega-3) B. Linoleic acid (omega-6) and alpha-linolenic acid (omega-3) C. Oleic acid, linolenic acid D. Stearic acid, linoleic acid
B
43
Identify the fatty acid referred to as "omega-3" A. Alpha-linoleic acid B. Beta-linolenic acid C. Oleic acid D. Alpha-linolenic acid
D
44
This is used for the symptomatic treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia A. Safflower oil B. Sunflower oil C. Saw Palmetto oil D. Persic oil
C
45
Starflower oil A. Helianthus anuus B. Carthamus tinctorius C. Borago officinalis D. Serenoa repens
C
46
The only liquid wax A. Sus scrofa B. Gaddus morrhua C. Physeter macrocephalus D. Simmondsia chinensis
D
47
Contains a toxic principle that causes male sterility A. Palm kernel oil B. Germ oil C. Rapeseed oil D. Cottonseed oil
D
48
Drying oil A. Linum ussitassimum B. Gossypium hirsutum C. Sesamum indicum D. Olea europaea
A
49
Solvents for IM injections, EXCEPT: A. Corn oil B. Cottonseed oil C. Peanut oil D. Soybean oil
D
50
Used to test Olive oil for Tea tree oil or Camellia oil contamination A. Halphen B. Baudouin C. Millon D. Serger
B
51
Source of lecithin and stigmasterol A. Peanut oil B. Soybean oil C. Sesame oil D. Corn oil
B
52
Identify the carrier molecule that transports fatty acids across the inner mitochondrial membrane A. Carnitine B. Chilomicron C. Aldimine D. GLUT
A
53
Find the statement that is correct about lipids A. Thromboxanes prevent clotting B. Prostaglandins stimulate gastric acid secretion C. Eicosanoids act as messengers inside cells and between neighboring cells D. Linoleoyl-CoA is derived from arachidonyl-CoA
C
54
Select the statement that BEST describes fatty acid metabolism A. Fatty acid metabolism is NOT tied to carbohydrate metabolism B. Fatty acids and their CoA esters are able to freely cross the inner mitochondrial membrane C. The release of fatty acids and their subsequent Beta-oxidation is a primary source of metabolic energy for the cell D. Fatty acid catabolism is NOT under hormonal control
C
55
Analyze the mechanism involved in the regulation of DNA replication and synthesis of mRNA A. Compartmentalization B. Enzyme activation C. Hormonal control D. Concentration
A
56
Select the coenzyme that is required by aminotransferases A. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide B. Pyridoxal phosphate C. Flavin adenine dinucleotide D. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
B
57
Identify the precursors of gluconeogenesis A. Glycerol, lactic acid, pyruvic acid B. Glycerol, lactate, pyruvate, glucogenic amino acids C. Pyruvic acid, lactic acid, acetic acid D. Sucrose, lactic acid, pyruvate acid
B
58
Analyze the mechanism involved in the regulation of phosphorylation and glycosylation A. Enzyme activation B. Hormonal control C. Concentration D. Compartmentalization
C
59
Enzyme L A. Arginase B. Argininosuccinase C. Argininosuccinic synthetase D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase E. Ornithine transcarbamoylase
D
60
Enzyme P A. Arginase B. Argininosuccinase C. Argininosuccinic synthetase D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase E. Ornithine transcarbamoylase
A
61
Control of urea cycle involves the enzyme: A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase B. Ornithine transcarbamoylase C. Argininosuccinase D. Arginase
A
62
Select the hormones that control glycogen metabolism A. epinephrine, insulin B. epinephrine, glucagon C. epinephrine, glucagon, insulin D. insulin, glucagon
C
63
Identify the catecholamines derived from the metabolism of tyrosine A. Norepinephrine and epinephrine B. Norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine C. Norepinephrine, dopamine D. Dopamine, epinephrine
B
64
Preferred method of classification of drugs in Pharmacognosy A. By morphology B. By taxonomy C. By therapeutic application D. By chemical constituents
D
65
Final step in the preparation of crude drugs A. Collection or Harvesting B. Drying C. Garbling D. Packaging, Storage and Preservation
C
66
Guttiferae A. Apiaceae B. Brassicaceae C. Clusiaceae D. Arecaceae E. Asteraceae
C
67
Select the method of evaluating drugs which involves the use of the organs of sense, the macroscopic appearance of the drug, its odor and taste, the sound or "snap" of the fracture, and the feel of the drug to the touch A. Physical method B. Chemical method C. Biological method D. Organoleptic method
A
68
Select the method of evaluating drugs that extensively applies physical constants to the active constituents of drugs A. Physical method B. Chemical method C. Biological method D. Organoleptic method
A
69
Which of the following plant constituents are biosynthesized via Shikimic acid pathway? I. Quinine II. Diosgenin III. Sennoside IV. Terpineol A. I and II B. I, II, III C. I and III D. All of the above
C
70
Which of the following compounds are biosynthesized via the Mevalonate Pathway? I. Ouabagenin II. Stigmasterol III. Geranial IV. Artemisinin A. I and II B. I, II, III C. I and III D. All of the above
D
71
The following statements are true about the shikimic acid pathway EXCEPT A. Shikimic acid pathway produces phenylpropanoids. B. It is also known as the Terpenoid pathway. C. This pathway is not found in both humans and animals D. The pathway produces the aromatic amino acids, Phe, Tyr and Trp
B
72
An important branch-point intermediate in the Shikimate pathway A. Dehydroshikimate B. Chorismic acid C. Prephenic acid D. Anthranilic acid
B
73
Substrate P A. DHAP B. Dehydroquinic acid C. Shikimic acid D. Chorismic acid
B
74
Precursor of opium alkaloids from which they are derived A. Q B. R C. S D. T
D
75
The following statements are true about the mevalonic acid pathway (MVA) EXCEPT A. It is found in both plants and animals B. The MVA pathway occurs in the plastids of plant cells. C. The rate-limiting step is catalyzed by HMG-CoA reductase D. The pathway produces 2 important isoprenes called IPP and DMAPP
B
76
The following statements are true about the methyl erythritol phosphate pathway (MEP) EXCEPT A. Also known as Nonmevalonic acid pathway or DOXP pathway. B. The rate limiting enzyme is DOXP synthase which catalyzes the 1st step (Pyruvate + Glyceraldehyde) C. This pathway is absent in archaebacteria, fungi and animals D. Plants use both MVA and MEP pathways for isoprenoid biosynthesis
B
77
Paclitaxel’s origin from the MVA pathway A. Geranyl pyrophosphate B. Farnesyl pyrophosphate C. Geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate D. Squalene
B
78
Sterols’ origin from the MVA pathway A. Geranyl pyrophosphate B. Farnesyl pyrophosphate C. Geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate D. Squalene
D
79
Which of the following is/are the final product/s of the dark reactions during photosynthesis? I. ATP II. NADPH III. O2 IV. Glucose A. I, II, III B. I, III, IV C. I, II, III, IV D. IV only
D
80
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Photosynthesis? A. Light dependent phase of photosynthesis occurs in the thylakoid membrane B. It transforms light energy to chemical energy C. Chlorophyll b is the principal pigment in green plants. D. Light reactions result in the production of NADPH, O2 and ATP
C
81
Synthesized in the leaves and they accumulate in relatively large quantities in the immature seeds and fruits of some plants. The growth effect of this hormone arises by cell elongation in the subapical meristem region where young internodes are developing. A. Auxin B. Gibberelins C. Cytokinins D. Abscisic acid E. Ethylene
B
82
Natural growth inhibitors are present in plants and affect bud opening, seed germination and development of dormancy. A. Auxin B. Gibberelins C. Cytokinins D. Abscisic acid E. Ethylene
D
83
It has a role in fruit ripening. A. Auxin B. Gibberelins C. Cytokinins D. Abscisic acid E. Ethylene
E
84
Typical effects are cell elongation giving an increase in stem length, inhibition of root growth, adventitious root production and fruit-setting in the absence of pollination. A. Auxin B. Gibberelins C. Cytokinins D. Abscisic acid E. Ethylene
A
85
They have inhibitory effect on senescence and promote cell division. They also regulate the pattern and frequency of organ production as well as position and shape. A. Auxin B. Gibberelins C. Cytokinins D. Abscisic acid E. Ethylene
C
86
Select the correct triad A. Datura stramonium - Scopolamine - Flavor B. Glycyrrhiza glabra - Limonene - Expectorant C. Catharanthus roseus - Quinine - anticancer D. Citrus sinensis - Limonene - Flavor
D
87
Find the homoglycans A. Cellulose, starch, inulin B. heparin, agarose C. Cellobiose, hyaluronic acid D. Glycogen, agar
A
88
Determine the chemical test for monosaccharides A. Benedict's test B. Keller-Kiliani test C. Biuret test D. Seliwanoff's test
A
89
Select the statement that BEST describes carbohydrates A. Phosphoglyceraldehyde is the first carbohydrate formed in photosynthesis B. Sugars are amorphous powders, water-soluble, and sweet-tasting substances C. The more complex, high-molecular weight heteroglycans are represented by starch, inulin, and cellobiose D. Cellulose, composed of glucose and fructose units, forms the primary cell walls in plants
B
90
Identify the test for reducing sugars A. Biuret test B. Sudan red C. Molisch test D. Fehling's test
D
91
Determine the appropriate test for ketoses A. Keller-Kiliani B. Bial's test C. Seliwanoff's D. Molisch
C
92
Select the classification and therapeutic use of glucovanillin A. Aldehyde, flavor B. Flavonol, antibacterial C. Anthraquinone, cathartic D. Saponin, analgesic
A
93
A polymer of glucose synthesized by the action of leuconostoc mesenteroids in a sucrose medium is A. Dextrans B. Limit dextrin C. Dextrin D. Xanthan
A
94
Purified partially depolymerized cellulose prepared by treating a-cellulose with mineral acids A. Purified cotton B. Powdered cellulose C. Microcrystalline cellulose D. Purified rayon
C
95
Preferred form of tragacanth gum which made from transverse incisions on the main stems and branches A. Vermiform B. Tragacanth sorts C. Ribbon and flake D. Bassorin
C
96
Algin A. Shrubs or Tree Exudates B. Marine gums C. Seed gums D. Plant Extracts E. Microbial gums
B
97
Guar A. Shrubs or Tree Exudates B. Marine gums C. Seed gums D. Plant Extracts E. Microbial gums
C
98
Consist of the strands of phloem fibers from the stem bark of Corchorus capsularis A. Jute B. Flax C. Hemp D. Viscose
A
99
Tapioca or Cassava starch A. Triticum aestivum B. Avena sativa C. Hordeum sp D. Manihot utilissima
D
100
Used as a plasma expander at 6% concentration. A. Pregelatinized starch B. Sodium starch glycolate C. Hetastarch D. Dextrins
C
101
Inulin A. Dahlia variabilis B. Musa sp. C. Metroxylon rumphii D. Oryza sativa
A
102
Has a characteristic fetid odor A. Tragacanth B. Acacia C. Karaya D. Ghatti/Indian
C
103
Select the statement that characterizes flavonoids A. These are polyphenolic molecules that contain 15 carbon atoms and are insoluble in water B. Examples are rutin, quercitrin, arbutin, and hesperidin C. Rutin and hesperidin are called Vit F or permeability factors, which are used in the treatment of conditions characterized by capillary bleeding and increased fragility D. These are aglycones of flavonol glycosides
D
104
Salicin A. Anthraquinone B. Flavonol C. Alcohol D. Aldehyde
C
105
Aloe A. Lactone B. Anthraquinone C. Saponin D. Aldehyde
B
106
Smilagenin A. Anthraquinone B. Saponin C. Flavonol D. Cyanophore
B
107
St. John’s wort A. Isothiocyanate B. Saponin C. Flavonol D. Anthraquinone
D
108
Contains flavonolignans with marked hepatoprotective properties A. Sarsaparilla B. Milk Thistle C. Yam D. Wild cherry
B
109
Employed in the treatment of peptic ulcer and Addison’s disease A. Dioscorea B. Mustard C. Licorice D. Bearberry
C
110
Used for idiopathic vitiligo and psoriasis A. Ammi majus B. Arctostaphylos uva-ursi C. Catharis vesicatoria D. Melilotus spp.
A
111
It is a pharmaceutic aid in Compound Benzoin Tincture and a cathartic
B
112
Used for the treatment of Congestive heart failure and cardiac arrhythmia.
A
113
Synthetic analogs of this drug are used in anticoagulant therapy.
D
114
Select the statement that characterizes Taxanes A. Taxol is an antimalarial drug B. Taxanes were originally identified from plants of the genus Taxus C. Taxanes bind to the microtubules and enhance their depolymerization D. Paclitaxel, docetaxel, sinigrin, prunasin, cabazitaxel are examples of taxanes
B
115
Select the statement that BEST describes flavonols A. Flavonols are identical to flavanols B. Quercitrin is the aglycone of the flavonol quercetin C. Flavonol aglycones are potent antibiotics that protect the plant from reactive oxygen species D. Flavonols are a class of flavonoids; their diversity arises from the different positions of their phenolic OH groups
D
116
Select the statement that characterizes Prunasin A. A cyanogenic glycoside that occurs in the bark of Prunus serotina B. A thiocyanogenic glycoside C. Its aglycone is amygdalin D. Yields hydrochloric acid on hydrolysis
A
117
Find the statement that is NOT correct about the chemical composition of glycosides A. Both alpha- and beta-glycosides exist, but ONLY the beta form occurs in nature B. Natural enzymes like emulsin hydrolyze only the beta forms C. The sugar component is called aglycone, and the non-sugar component, glycone D. They are acetals in which the hydroxyl of the sugar is condensed with the hydroxyl group of the nonsugar component
C
118
Vitamin D derived from plants A. Cholecalciferol B. Ergocalciferol C. Dihydrotachysterol D. Calcitriol
B
119
Vitamin K2 A. Phytonadinone B. Menaquinone C. Menadione D. Menadiol
B
120
Used in the treatment of Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome A. Thiamine B. Riboflavin C. Niacin D. Pyridoxine
A
121
Hartnup disease, characterized by defective intestinal absorption of tryptophan, will affect the in-vivo synthesis of this vitamin A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B2 C. Vitamin B3 D. Vitamin B6
C
122
Chick-antidermatitis factor A. Niacin B. Pantothenic acid C. Riboflavin D. Pyridoxine
B
123
Vitamin H A. Vitamin B5 B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin B7 D. Vitamin B9
C
124
Select the statement that BEST describes Nonhydrolyzable Tannins A. Gallotannin is a condensed tannin B. When treated with hydrolytic agents, they tend to polymerize, yielding insoluble, red-colored products called phlobaphenes C. Insoluble in water and aqueous organic solvents D. Less resistant to microbial degradation than hydrolyzable tannins
B
125
Evaluate the following statements I. Pseudotannins give positive results with goldbeater’s skin test II. Tannins are mixtures of polyphenols that do not crystallize III. Tannins are compounds of low molecular weights. IV. Complex tannins are combinations of hydrolysable and condensed tannins A. Only one statement is true B. Two statements are true C. Three statements are true D. All statements are true
B
126
True about Condensed tannins I. Also known as Proanthocyanidins II. Yields a blue-black precipitate with FeCl3 III. Produces Bloom leather IV. Decolorizes KMnO4 A. I only B. I and II C. I, II, III D. I, III, IV E. All of the above
B
127
True about Hydrolyzable tannins I. Also called as Pyrogallotannins II. Produces no precipitate with Br2 III. Examples are gallotannins and ellagitannins IV. Also decolorizes KMnO4 A. I and II B. I, II, III C. I, IV D. All of the above
D
128
Chief source of tannic acid A. Nutgall B. Witch hazel leaves C. Catechu D. Kinos
A
129
The excrescence (gall) is caused by the puncture of a hymenopterous insect: A. Quercus infectoria B. Cynips tinctoria C. Rhus chinensis D. Aphis sp.
B
130
Analyze which oil is suitable for painting A. Coconut oil B. Orange oil C. Castor oil D. Linseed oil
D
131
Determine the intermediate product formed in the biosynthesis of fatty acids when malonyl-CoA reacts with acetyl-CoA; the product undergoes reduction and elimination of carbon dioxide A. Caproyl-CoA B. Butyryl-CoA C. Acetyl-CoA D. Glycerophosphate
B
132
Determine the method by which Peppermint oil is obtained A. Enfleurage B. Extraction with a volatile solvent C. Expression D. Steam distillation
D
133
Classify the terpenes retinol and phytol A. Monoterpenes B. Diterpenes C. Triterpenes D. Sesquiterpenes
B
134
Analyze and identify the group of terpenes that contain 20 carbon atoms A. Sesquiterpenes B. Diterpenes C. Triterpenes D. Tetraterpenes
B
135
Establish the type of organic compounds that are biosynthesized by the shikimic acid pathway A. Aromatic compounds B. Aliphatic compounds C. Branched compounds D. Cyclic compounds
A
136
Identify the secretory structures found in Pinus palustris and Artemisia absinthium A. Modified parenchyma cells B. Schizogenous intercellular spaces C. Vittae D. Glandular hairs
B
137
Analyze and choose the isoprene unit A. 5-carbon compound with the formula: CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2CH3 B. 3-carbon compound with the formula: CH2=C=CH2 C. 4-carbon compound with the formula: CH2=CH-CH=CH2 D. 5-carbon compound with the formula: CH2=C(CH3)-CH=CH2
D
138
Determine the immediate precursor of phenylalanine A. Anthranilic acid B. Chorismic acid C. Para-hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid D. Phenylpyruvic acid
D
139
Classify Caraway oil and Buchu A. Peroxides B. Phenols C. Ketones D. Ethers
C
140
Classify Lavender oil and Oil of Wintergreen A. Ketones B. Phenols C. Aldehydes D. Esters
D
141
Mentha arvensis A. Glandular hairs B. Modified parenchymal cells C. Vittae D. Lysigenous or schizogenous ducts
A
142
Citrus limon A. Glandular hairs B. Modified parenchymal cells C. Vittae D. Lysigenous or schizogenous ducts
D
143
Carum carvi A. Glandular hairs B. Modified parenchymal cells C. Vittae D. Lysigenous or schizogenous ducts
C
144
Pilocarpine A. Isoquinoline B. Quinoline C. Imidazole D. Indole E. Pyridine-Piperidine
C
145
Nicotine A. Pyridine-Piperidine B. Tropane C. Alkaloidal amine D. Purine
A
146
Tubocurarine A. Quinoline B. Imidazole C. Isoquinoline D. Indole E. Purine
C
147
Lavandula officinalis A. Ketone B. Ester C. Alcohol D. Phenolic ether E. Phenol
B
148
Method of obtaining volatile oils for dried or fresh plants that may be injured by boiling such as clove and cinnamon. A. Water distillation B. Water and steam distillation C. Steam distillation D. Dry distillation
B
149
Thymus vulgaris A. Aldehyde B. Alcohol C. Phenol D. Phenolic ether E. Ester
C
150
Barosma betulina A. Alcohol B. Aldehyde C. Hydrocarbon D. Ketone E. Phenol
D
151
Find the statement that does NOT describe resins and their combinations A. The metallic salts of resins are called resinates B. Balsams are resinous mixtures that contain cinnamic acid, benzoic acid, or both, or esters of these acids C. Resins are soluble in water D. Chemically, resins are complex mixtures of resin acids, resin alcohols, resinotannols, esters, and resenes
C
152
Identify the test reagent for the presence of alkaloids which is a solution of potassium bismuth iodide and gives an orange colored precipitate A. Dragendorff's B. Mayer's C. Wagner's D. Hager's
A
153
Identify the active constituent of Rauwolfia serpentina A. Reserpine B. Scopolamine C. Emetine D. Codeine
A
154
Analyze and identify the group to which reserpine and ergonovine belong A. Imidazole B. Purine C. Steroidal D. Indole
D
155
Find the hormones used in the diagnosis of pancreatic disorders A. Cholecystokinin, secretin B. Secretin and Gastrin C. Cholecystokinin and insulin D. Gastrin and calcitonin
A
156
Identify the Family to which Atropa belladona belongs A. Papaveraceae B. Fabaceae C. Solanaceae D. Berberidaceae
C
157
Identify the anticancer agents that are derived from the bark of Pacific yew; they stabilize the microtubule polymer and protect it from disassembly A. Epipodophyllotoxins B. Camptotechin derivatives C. Vinca alkaloids D. Taxanes
D
158
Find the pairs that are NOT correctly matched A. Lobelia inflata - hyoscine B. Hyoscyamus niger - hyoscyamine C. Erythroxylum coca - cocaine D. Datura stramonium - hyoscyamine
A
159
Select the pair that is NOT correctly matched A. Tobacco - nicotine for smoking cessation B. Belladonna - spasmolytic agent C. Datura - anticholinergic agent D. Coca - local analgesic
D
160
Select the statement that BEST describes Cinchona alkaloids A. Cinchonine is the parent alkaloid of the quinine series B. Classified as isoquinoline alkaloids C. Cinchonine is the isomer of quinidine and quinidine is the isomer of quinine D. Currently used, after having been proven as clinically effective and safe, in the treatment of COVID-19 patients
A
161
Classify the alkaloid ergotamine A. Indole B. Tropane C. Isoquinoline D. Quinoline
A
162
Deduce the mechanism of action of malt extract as an aid in digesting starch A. Converts into water-soluble sugars NOT less than 5 times its weight of starch B. Contains papain that hydrolyzes starch C. Contains emulsin that hydrolyzes starch D. Contains lactase that converts 50 times its weight of potato starch into sugars
A
163
Evaluate which compound is converted to cholecalciferol A. 5-dihydrocholesterol B. 6-dehydrocholesterol C. 7-dihydrocholesterol D. 7-dehydrocholesterol
D
164
Select the vitamin that does not require bile salts and dietary lipids for its efficient absorption from the intestinal tract A. Vit C B. Vit K C. Vit A D. Vit E
A
165
Identify the antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis A. Nystatin, polymyxin, amphotericin B B. Chloramphenicol, clindomycin, gentamisin C. Rifampin, actinomycin D, mitomycin C D. Bacitracin, cephalosporins, penicillins
B
166
Select the most abundant of the serum immunoglobulins A. IgG B. IgD C. IgE D. IgA
A
167
Identify the vaccine recommended for children 2-3 months of age A. Live Oral Poliovirus Vaccine B. Covid-19 Vaccine C. Rabies Vaccine D. Hepatitis B Vaccine
A
168
Identify the vaccine which is a sterile suspension of inactivated virus strains that are grown separately in primary cultures of Rhesus monkey kidney tissues bathed in a complex nutrient fluid containing more than 60 ingredients A. Influenza virus vaccine B. Rabies vaccine C. Poliomyelitis vaccine D. Smallpox vaccine
C
169
Major auxin in plants A. Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) B. Napthalene-1-acetic acid (NAA) C. 2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D) D. Indole-3-butyric acid (IBA)
A
170
Formed during the germination of barley grains and converts starch into maltose. A. Zymase B. Invertase C. Diastase D. Emulsin E. Myrosin
C
171
A mixture of protein-digesting and milk-clotting enzymes from the pineapple plant, Ananas comosus A. Papain B. Bromelain C. Sutilain D. Pepsin
B
172
A substance containing enzymes, principally amylase, lipase and protease, used as a digestive aid A. Pepsin B. Trypsin C. Chymotrypsin D. Erepsin E. Pancreatin
E
173
They bring about the oxidation reactions that cause the discoloration of bruised fruits A. Peroxidases B. Zymase C. Deoxyribonuclease D. Lysozymes
A
174
Substance containing proteolytic enzymes derived from the bacterium, Bacillus subtilis A. Fibrinolysin B. Urokinase C. Sutilains D. L-Asparaginase
C
175
Catgut suture A. Microfibrillar collagen B. Absorbable surgical suture C. Nonabsorbable surgical suture D. All of the above
B
176
Siling-labuyo A. Resin B. Oleoresin C. Oleogumresin D. Balsam
B
177
Pistacia lentiscus A. Resin B. Oleoresin C. Oleogumresin D. Balsam
A
178
Liquidambar orientalis A. Resin B. Oleoresin C. Oleogumresin D. Balsam
D
179
A drug of abuse, used in the preparation of intoxicating beverages containing styrylpyrones. A. Jalap B. Cannabis C. Kava-kava D. Yerba santa
C
180
Purgative from American mandrake A. Podophyllin B. Peltatins C. Podophyllotoxins D. Purganol
B
181
Olibanum A. Resin B. Oleoresin C. Oleogumresin D. Balsam
C
182
Which of the following statements is true? I. Hyoscyamine is dextrorotatory, while Atropine is racemic. II. Tropane alkaloids are derived from ornithine. III. Scopolamine is also known as hyoscine. IV. Atropine is an antidote used in cholinesterase inhibitor poisonings. A. I, II, IV B. I, III, IV C. II, III, IV D. All of the above
C
183
Alkaloidal amines, except A. Peyote B. Ephedra C. Colchicum D. Khat E. Ergot
E
184
Opium tincture A. Dover’s power B. Paregoric C. Laudanum D. Morphine + HCl
C
185
Liquid alkaloids except: A. Arecoline B. Sparteine C. Nicotine D. Atropine
D
186
Potassium mercuric iodide A. Wagner’s B. Marme’s C. Mayer’s D. Valser’s
C
187
Precursor of isoquinoline alkaloids A. Histidine B. Ornithine C. Tyrosine D. Tryptophan
C
188
Alkaloids that contain a ring nitrogen, but do not come from amino acids A. Pseudoalkaloid B. Protoalkaloid C. True alkaloid D. Flavonoid
A
189
Vitali-morin test is used to identify this alkaloid A. Caffeine B. Quinine C. Atropine D. Morphine E. Ephedrine
C
190
Select the plant used as an antidiabetic A. Banaba B. Yerba Buena C. Tsaang Gubat D. Lagundi
A
191
Identify the biological source of Paclitaxel A. Taxus brevifolia B. Camptotheca acuminata C. Catharanthus roseus D. Akapulko
A
192
Find the scientific name of Bignay A. Hibiscus sabdariffa B. Abelmoschus esculentus C. Ehratia microphilla D. Antidesma bunius
D
193
Identify the scientific name Tawa tawa A. Taxus brevifolia B. Ehratia microphilla C. Abelmoschus esculentus D. Grammatophyllum scriptum
D
194
Select the correct triad of "health foods" A. Symphytum officinale - Comfrey - hepatotoxic B. Spirulina maxima - spirulina - fertility drug C. Glycyrrhiza glabra - licorice - antidiabetic D. Oenothera biennis - Evening Primrose - analgesic
A
195
Analyze and identify the plant growth and metabolic inhibitor, acts as an antagonist to gibberellic acid, and increases the tolerance of plants to stress A. Abscisic acid B. Gibberellins C. Auxins D. Ethylene
A
196
The milky white, highly viscous secretions from the paired salivary gland of the worker honey bee, Apis mellifera. Claims to ward off the effects of old age. A. Valerian B. Ginseng C. Royal Jelly D. Echinacea E. Feverfew
C
197
Classified as an adaptogen and aphrodisiac, obtained from the roots of Panax sp. A. Valerian B. Ginseng C. Royal Jelly D. Echinacea E. Feverfew
B
198
The drug has been employed as a calmative in nervousness and hysteria. Possess principles with mild tranquilizing activity. A. Valerian B. Ginseng C. Royal Jelly D. Echinacea E. Feverfew
A
199
It has been observed to provide some relief from the painful symptoms of migraine headache and arthritis. A. Valerian B. Ginseng C. Royal Jelly D. Echinacea E. Feverfew
E
200
It has the ability to produce nonspecific stimulation of the immune system. A. Valerian B. Ginseng C. Royal Jelly D. Echinacea E. Feverfew
D