M3 FINAL COACHING

Question 1

MCDL

A.
1450

B.
1550

C.
1600

D.
1650

Answer 1

A

Question 2

A medication order for a 10-month old infant weighing 8 kg calls for 800 μg Furosemide papertabs. The available preparation of the drug in the pharmacy is 40 mg. The average weight of the tablet is 80 mg. How many papertabs can the pharmacist prepare from one tablet?

A.
50 pptabs

B.
75 pptabs

C.
100 pptabs

D.
125 pptabs

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Concentration expression most commonly used for suspensions

A.
%w/v

B.
%v/v

C.
%w/w

D.
ppm

E.
mg%

Answer 3

A

Question 4

mg% is equivalent to

A.
gram/liter

B.
gram/dl

C.
mg/dl

D.
meq/100 ml

Answer 4

C

Question 5

A physician places a patient on a daily dose of 48 units of U-80 insulin. How many mL should the patient inject daily?

A.
0.4 mL

B.
0.6 mL

C.
4 mL

D.
2.6 mL

Answer 5

B

Question 6

250 mcg/mL is equivalent to ____________

A.
0.0025 mg/mL

B.
0.025 mg/mL

C.
0.25 mg/mL

D.
2.5 mg/mL

Answer 6

C

Question 7

Compute for the required volume of water to make 2.35g of atropine sulphate (E=0.13) isotonic. Use White Vincent method.

A.
33.94 mL

B.
36.42 mL

C.
4.33 mL

D.
30.16 mL

Answer 7

A

Question 8

Cetuximab has a loading dose of 400 mg/m2 administered as an intravenous infusion over a 120-minute period. Using an IV set that delivers 15 drops/mL, calculate the dose for a patient with a BSA of 1.5m2

A.
600 mg

B.
640 mg

C.
4 grams

D.
40mg

Answer 8

A

Question 9

What mass of sodium chloride should be added in 100 ml of 5.0 % (w/v) dextrose monohydrate (E = 0.16) isotonic solution?

A.
250 mg

B.
2.20 g

C.
0.9 g

D.
100 mg

Answer 9

D

Question 10

Drug A is usually given in ranges between 5 - 10 mg/kg of body weight. What would be the dose range for a person weighing 125 lbs?

A.
0.28 g – 0.57 g

B.
284 g - 568 g

C.
0.31 g – 0.63 g

D.
312.5 g – 625 g

Answer 10

A

Question 11

Epinephrine is available as an injection containing 100 mcg/mL. The patient requires an IM injection of 0.5mg. How many mL of injection is needed to supply this required dose?

A.
0.005 mL

B.
20 mL

C.
5 mL

D.
2 mL

Answer 11

C

Question 12

Doctor’s order:

Amikacin 5mg/lb IM q12h Available: Amikacin 0.9g/2mL

How many mL is administered to a 72.7 kg patient in a day?

A.
1.2 mL

B.
0.8 mL

C.
2.8 mL

D.
3.6 mL

Answer 12

D

Question 13

If 500 mL of a 1:200 (v/v) solution were diluted to 800 mL, what would be the ratio strength (v/v)?

A.
1:800

B.
1:300

C.
1:320

D.
1:250

E.
1:500

Answer 13

C

Question 14

If topical cream contains 1.8 % (w/w) of hydrocortisone, how many milligrams of hydrocortisone should be used in preparing 15g of the cream?

A.
27 mg

B.
270 mg

C.
833 mg

D.
0.833 mg

Answer 14

B

Question 15

A patient received 100mL of an infusion at 10 drops/minute with an administration set that delivered 60 drops/mL. Calculate the duration of the infusion in hours.

A.
12 hours

B.
10 hours

C.
8 hours

D.
5 hours

Answer 15

B

Question 16

Which of the following are TRUE regarding specific gravity:

I. Water is used as a standard for the specific gravities of liquids and solids,

II. Urine specific gravity is a measure of solute in the urine.

III. Substances that have a specific gravity greater than 1 are heavier than water,

A.
I and II

B.
I and III

C.
I, II, III

D.
II and III

Answer 16

C

Question 17

Calculate the specific gravity of the mixture: 800 ml glycerin, s.g. 1.25, 900 ml water, 2000 ml alcohol, s.g. 0.81

A.
0.705

B.
0.687

C.
0.951

D.
0.864

Answer 17

C

Question 18

What is the %v/v of a solution of 800g liquid (spec. gravity = 0.8) in water to make 4000mL?

A.
20%

B.
40%

C.
25%

D.
80%

Answer 18

C

Question 19

The normal potassium (MW=39) levels in the blood ranges from 13.65 to 19.5 mg%. Express the range in milliequivalents/liter.

A.
3.5 to 5 mEq/L

B.
35 to 50 mEq/L

C.
0.35 to 0.50 mEq/L

D.
3.5 to 4.5 mEq/L

Answer 19

D

Question 20

How many mg potassium (MW=39) are there in 4L of a solution that is 3mEq/L?

A.
117 mg

B.
468 mg

C.
307 mg

D.
29.25 mg

Answer 20

B

Question 21

How many mEq of Na+ are present in 250cc NSS? (Na=23, Cl=35)

A.
23 mEq

B.
15 mEq

C.
53 mEq

D.
38 mEq

Answer 21

D

Question 22

Which of the following is incorrect pairing?

A.
0.009% NSS: hypotonic solution

B.
9.0% NSS: isotonic solution

C.
0.9% NSS: isotonic solution

D.
0.09% NSS: hypotonic solution

Answer 22

B

Question 23

How many grams of 1% hydrocortisone cream must be mixed with 0.5% hydrocortisone cream if one wishes to prepare 80 g of a 0.6% w/w preparation?

A.
12 g

B.
16 g

C.
20 g

D.
24 g

E.
36 g

Answer 23

B

Question 24

How many fluid ounces of flavored syrup are contained in a 5-L container?

A.
148

B.
169

C.
196

D.
247

E.
256

Answer 24

B

Question 25

A prescription requires the preparation of a 60 ml solution of 1:10,000 from a stock solution of 1:750. How much of solution will be used in compounding this prescription? A. 4.6 mL B. 780 mL C. 0.08 mL D. 166 mL

Answer 25

A

Question 26

How many colchicine tablets, each containing 500 micrograms, maybe prepared from 45 grams of colchicine? A. 9 B. 900 C. 9,000 D. 90,000

Answer 26

D

Question 27

An ointment formulation requires 80 g of emulsifier blend with tween 40 and span 20. If the HLB requirement is 12.3, how many grams of each emulsifier should be used? (HLB Tween 40 = 15.6 Span 20= 8.6) A. 46.5 g Span 20, 23.3 g Tween 40 B. 23.3 g Span 20, 46.5 g Tween 40 C. 42.3 g Span 20, 37.7 Tween 40 D. 37.7 g Span 20, 42.3g Tween 40

Answer 27

D

Question 28

A patient was prescribed with Cefuroxime oral suspension (125 mg/mL) to be taken in doses of 2 tsp. three times a day for 4 days, and 1 tbsp. twice a day for 2 days. How many mL of the suspension should be dispensed to cover the entire regimen? A. 180 B. 18 C. 1.8 D. 200 E. 20

Answer 28

A

Question 29

A nutritional product contains 10 grams of carbohydrates, 15 grams of proteins and 5 grams of fat in each 100-mL serving. What is the caloric content of one serving? A. 40 kcal B. 220 kcal C. 100 kcal D. 145 kcal

Answer 29

D

Question 30

How much lidocaine is required to prepare 1:1000, 30mL of lidocaine solution? A. 10 mg B. 0.03 mg C. 30 mg D. 3 g

Answer 30

C

Question 31

Net profit is calculated by _________ A. adding liabilities and gross profit B. subtracting expenses from gross profit C. subtracting inventory cost from the total expenses D. subtracting inventory cost from gross profit

Answer 31

B

Question 32

What would be the selling price of a compounded product if the following base costs were computed: 1. Labor (15 minutes) - Php 28.95 2. Supplies - Php 27.90 3-Electricity - Php 1.50 and 4- Depreciation cost of equipment to be used - Php 84.20. Mark-up is at 60% A. Php 142.55 B. Php 57.02 C. Php 85.53 D. Php 228.08

Answer 32

D

Question 33

If a drug inhaler contains 20 mg of the active drug, how many inhalation doses can be delivered, if each inhalation dose contains 90 micrograms? A. 1,800 doses B. 22 doses C. 180 doses D. 222 doses

Answer 33

D

Question 34

If there is an order for a particular Dangerous Drug (DD) with a preparation of 10 mg/2 mL ampule, how many mL would be needed if the dose is 0.05 mg/Kg/dose? The patient is 110 lbs. A. 1 mL B. 0.05 mL C. 0.25 mL D. 0.5 mL

Answer 34

D

Question 35

The purpose of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee are the following: A. Advisory and educational B. Advisory and planning C. Educational and planning D. Dispensing and Inventory

Answer 35

A

Question 36

Who among the following can write a prescription? A. Pharmacist B. Nurse C. Dentist D. Radiologic technologist

Answer 36

C

Question 37

The most appropriate/advantageous drug delivery system in the hospital A. Floor stock B. Individual prescription order system C. Unit dose drug delivery system D. Combined delivery system E. NOTA

Answer 37

C

Question 38

Which of the following parameters should be considered when storing medications? I. Air velocity II. Particle count III. Temperature IV. Relative humidity A. I and II B. III and IV C. I, II and III D. I, II, III and IV

Answer 38

B

Question 39

Based on USP, what is the beyond-use date (BUD) for water containing oral preparations at controlled cold temperatures? A. no longer than 7 days B. no longer than 14 days C. no longer than 24 days D. no longer than 30 days

Answer 39

B

Question 40

PhilPSP stands for: A. Philippine Professional Standards for Pharmacists B. Philippine Pharmacy Standards of Practice C. Philippine Practice Standards for Pharmacists D. Philippine Pharmaceutical Science Program E. Philippine Practice Standards for Professionals

Answer 40

C

Question 41

Which of the following opioids do/es NOT require S2 license? A. Methadone B. Morphine C. Tramadol D. Both A &B

Answer 41

C

Question 42

Stenosis means: A. Inflammation of the sternum B. Obstruction of a blood supply to an organ or region of tissue C. Hardening of the tissue with the loss of elasticity D. Abnormal narrowing of a body channel or passage.

Answer 42

D

Question 43

Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding IV glutathione? I. lt affects the production of melatonin. II. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is as adjunct treatment in cisplatin chemotherapy. III. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is for skin lightening. A. III B. I and II C. II D. I, II and III

Answer 43

C

Question 44

Which of the following drugs cannot be advertised to the general public? A. Ponstan 500 mg B. Sinecod 50 mg C. Cataflam 25 mg D. Imodium 2 mg E. Flanax 275 mg

Answer 44

A

Question 45

Which of the following refer to drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when used in error? A. Non-formulary drugs B. High-alert medications C. Look-alike, Sound-alike drugs D. High value medication

Answer 45

B

Question 46

Neurobion® contains I. Vit. B1 II. Vit. B3 III. Vit. B6 IV. Vit. B12 A. I, III, IV B. I, II, III C. II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV

Answer 46

A

Question 47

DTP series of injections is intended for administration to A. Infants B. Children 6 years and older C. Adults D. NOTA

Answer 47

A

Question 48

Medication that may be left at the patient’s bedside A. NGT B. Insulin C. Digitalis D. NTG

Answer 48

D

Question 49

Drug found in the Emergency Kit used for heart failure: A. Captopril B. Isosorbide mononitrate C. Isosorbide dinitrate D. Candesartan E. Digoxin

Answer 49

E

Question 50

Which of the following is/are advisable route of administration/s for potassium supplements? I. Powder for suspension II. IV bolus III. IV infusion IV. Extended-release tablet, po A. I, II, III B. I, III, IV C. I, IV D. III, IV

Answer 50

B

Question 51

Which of the following statement are TRUE regarding the Heparin and Warfarin? I. Heparin is administered parenterally while Warfarin is given orally. II. Dosage strength of both heparin and warfarin are expressed in "Units" III. They are both anticoagulants. IV. They have the same antidote in cases of overdose. A. I and III B. I and IV C. I, II and III D. II and III

Answer 51

A

Question 52

What is the usual expiration dating that should be placed on a parenteral admixture prepared in a hospital pharmacy? A. 1 hour B. 24 hours C. 48 hours D. 72 hours

Answer 52

B

Question 53

Unit used for the internal diameter of catheters: A. French B. Gauge C. NOTA D. A and B

Answer 53

A

Question 54

Which of the following beta-blockers has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity? I. Pindolol II. Esmolol III. Metoprolol A. I B. II C. I and II D. I, II and III

Answer 54

A

Question 55

A patient was diagnosed to have allergies to beta-lactam antibiotics. Which of the following is not a beta-lactam antibiotic to which the patient may not be allergic to? A. Cefalexin B. Doxycycline C. Meropenem D. Nafcillin

Answer 55

B

Question 56

Which one of the following sequences lists the three types of cautions found in drug product inserts in the order of least serious to most serious? A. contraindication, precaution, warning B. precaution, warning, contraindication C. warning, contraindication, precaution D. warning, precaution, contraindication

Answer 56

B

Question 57

Which of the following is an objective parameter? A. Sign B. Symptom C. Syndrome D. A and C

Answer 57

A

Question 58

Which of the following drugs are not allowed to be crushed and introduced in an enteric feeding tube? A. Paracetamol B. Ranitidine C. Nexium® D. Micardis®

Answer 58

C

Question 59

U-100 Insulin is A. White B. Orange C. Red D. Violet

Answer 59

B

Question 60

Which of the following is NOT a 3rd generation Cephalosporin? A. Cefixime B. Cefazolin C. Cefotaxime D. Ceftriaxone

Answer 60

B

Question 61

Patients treated anytime of the day, and which requires immediate medical attention A. Stat order B. Referred outpatient C. Emergency outpatient D. Intensive care patient

Answer 61

C

Question 62

All of the following statements about D5W are true EXCEPT: A. It is hypertonic B. It should be used with caution in diabetic patients C. Its pH range is 3.5 to 6.5 D. It is a 5% solution of D-glucose

Answer 62

A

Question 63

The pharmacist was asked about the drug Tetrahydrozoline. Which of the following is/are correct about this drug? I. It works by causing vasoconstriction II. Classified as an adrenergic antagonist. III. Available as an otic preparation A. I B. I and II C. II and III D. I, II and III

Answer 63

A

Question 64

Hospitals can be classified according to bed capacity, functional capacity, and length of stay of the patient. For a hospital to be considered as a medium scale hospital, minimum bed capacity shall be: A. 50 B. 100 C. 500 D. 1000

Answer 64

C

Question 65

Which of the following is/are true about aminopenicillins? I. They both have the same spectrum of activity II. Both can produce hypersensitivity reactions III. Absorption of Ampicillin is significantly better than Amoxicillin. A. I B. I and II C. II and III D. I, II and III

Answer 65

B

Question 66

Which of the following conditions may contribute to drug administration errors? A. Failure to check the patient's identity prior to administration B. Counterchecking of the drug by a 2nd nurse prior to administration C. Storage of "Look-alike" preparations side by side in the patient's medication cabinet D. A and C

Answer 66

D

Question 67

Which of the following antineoplastic agent belongs to the Monoclonal Antibody group? I. Cisplatin II. Fligastrim III. Bevacizumab IV. Gefitinib A. I and II B. III C. III and IV D. II, III and IV

Answer 67

B

Question 68

Which of the following is/are non-opioids IV preparation that can be used to produce general anesthesia? I. Meperidine II. Thiopental III. Midazolam A. I and II B. II C. I D. II and III

Answer 68

D

Question 69

Which of the following needles has the largest diameter? A. 25 G x 1/2 in B. 30 G x 1/2 in C. 25 G× 1 in D. 18 G x 1 in

Answer 69

D

Question 70

Atracurium is used as ___________. A. Anticonvulsants B. Muscle relaxant C. Antidepressant D. Cholinergic antagonist

Answer 70

B

Question 71

According to RA 6675, generic substitution is allowed. Which of the following drugs can be interchanged when filling a medication order? A. Ventolin and Atrovent B. Augmentin and Amoclav C. Dolfenal and Ponstan D. Zocor and Lipitor E. 2 of the choices are correct

Answer 71

E

Question 72

Cool temperature in the working area A. 30-40 degrees Celsius B. 25-30 degrees Celsius C. 8-15 degrees Celsius D. 2-8 degrees Celsius

Answer 72

C

Question 73

The patient was given a general anesthetic drug administered through inhalation. Which of the following is the agent given to the patient? A. Succinylcholine B. Propofol C. Sevoflurane D. Ketamine

Answer 73

C

Question 74

Which of the following transactions will increase the stock-on-hand of a certain drug? A. Stocking the inventories delivered by the supplier B. Dispensing the prescribed drug to the patient C. Returning the drug to the supplier D. Skipping a periodic reorder schedule

Answer 74

A

Question 75

The IV fluid D5OW means A. 0.05% Dextrose in Water B. 50% Dextrose in Water C. 5% Dextrose in Water D. 0.5% Dextrose in Water

Answer 75

B

Question 76

Which are the ideal characteristics for IV injection administered via peripheral vein? I. non-irritating drug II. hypertonic solution III. for short-term therapy A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II and III

Answer 76

B

Question 77

Which of the following is true about dangerous drugs dispensing? I. Partial filling is not allowed II. All dangerous drugs should be dispensed only when written in a yellow prescription III. Brand name is not required in prescribing the drug IV. Naloxone should be monitored as dangerous drugs A. I, III, IV B. II C. III D. I, II, IV

Answer 77

C

Question 78

How many copies of prescription are issued for dangerous drugs? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5

Answer 78

C

Question 79

An example of LMH? A. Dabigatran B. Warfarin C. Setraline D. Enoxaparin

Answer 79

D

Question 80

What is the usual route of administration of LMH agents? A. IV B. SC C. po D. IM

Answer 80

B

Question 81

What is the reason why Fondaparinux is prescribed after surgery? A. to prevent possible infections B. for post-operative pain C. to prevent blood clot formation D. to dissolve clot that may develop

Answer 81

C

Question 82

A nurse asked the pharmacists of available antiplatelet drugs. Which of the following drugs should be included in the list? I. Cilostazol II. Aspirin III. Abciximab IV. Clopidogrel A. I and II B. II and III C. I, II and III D. I, II, III and IV

Answer 82

D

Question 83

Which of the following statements is/are true for a vertical flow hood? I. Air blows toward worker II. Air blows from top down to maintain sterility and protect the worker III. It is used in the manufacture of chemotherapeutic agents A. I only B. II and III C. I and III D. II only E. I, II, and III

Answer 83

B

Question 84

Which of the following compounded sterile products should not be prepared in a horizontal laminar flow hood? A. Dopamine B. Nitroglycerin C. Cisplatin D. TPN

Answer 84

C

Question 85

When one or more sterile products are added to an IV fluid for administration A. TPN B. IV solution C. IV admixture D. PPN

Answer 85

C

Question 86

Which of the following incompatibility refers to the presence of one of more additives combined in an IV fluid that results to changes in the drug substances present. A. Pharmaceutical incompatibility B. Pharmacokinetic incompatibility C. Pharmacodynamic incompatibility D. Therapeutic incompatibility

Answer 86

A

Question 87

Reactions which are noxious, unintended and which occur at doses normally used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis, treatment, mitigation, and cure of a disease A. Adverse event B. Adverse drug reaction C. Drug interaction D. Pharmacologic interaction

Answer 87

B

Question 88

A drug interaction which might occur but with limited data to support it is classified as: A. Established B. Probable C. Possible D. Suspected E. Unlikely

Answer 88

D

Question 89

A pharmacist who administered the correct medicine at the correct time with the proper dose and correct route of administration to the correct patient demonstrates: A. Pharmacotherapy B. Pharmacovigilance C. Rational Drug Therapy D. Drug Information Provision E. Patient care

Answer 89

C

Question 90

TRUE about extended-release products I. Should not be crushed when administered II. Transit time interval is shorter for succeeding doses III. Associated with dose dumping IV. Bioavailability profile of ER formulations is typically considered less complicated than F profile of immediate release formulations A. I and II B. II and III C. I, and III D. I, II, III and IV

Answer 90

C

Question 91

Which of the following statements is true about paracetamol? A. Acetaminophen is not safe for pregnant and lactating mothers B. Paracetamol is equal in potency with other NSAIDs in terms of its anti-inflammatory action C. Acetaminophen is mainly metabolized via oxidation to N-acetylparabenzoquinone imine D. Antidote for paracetamol is N-acetylcysteine E. None of the above

Answer 91

D

Question 92

Which of the following are manifestations of chemical incompatibility? I. Photooxidation II. Formation of gas III. Formation of gel IV. Immiscibility A. I and II B. I, II and III C. III and IV D. I, II, III and IV

Answer 92

B

Question 93

The mechanism of Dimercaprol as antidote for heavy metal poisoning is through: A. Adsorption B. Chelation C. Precipitation D. Oxidation E. Neutralization

Answer 93

B

Question 94

A patient presented a prescription of penicillin and probenecid, which of the following effects of drug interaction will be most likely to occur? A. Penicillin blocks the passive tubular secretion; decrease in probenecid half-life B. Probenecid blocks the active tubular secretion; increase in penicillin half-life C. Probenecid blocks the passive tubular secretion of penicillin; increase in penicillin half-life D. Probenecid blocks the active tubular secretion; decrease in penicillin half-life

Answer 94

B

Question 95

The best term used for substances that absorb moisture from the atmosphere but does not dissolve in it. A. Hygroscopic B. Deliquescent C. Efflorescent D. A or C

Answer 95

A

Question 96

Tuberculosis treatment involves use of two or more drugs. What is the interaction between these drugs? A. Addition B. Synergism C. Potentiation D. Antagonism

Answer 96

B

Question 97

This term refers to an interaction between a drug that does not elicit a response on its own or has a different effect to a second drug which is enhancing? A. Antagonistic interaction B. Potentiation interaction C. Synergistic reaction D. Addition interaction

Answer 97

B

Question 98

In freeze drying a bacterial sample, the following are used to prevent forming crystals I. Methanol II. Dimethylsulfoxide III. Glycerol A. I B. I, II, III C. II, III D. III

Answer 98

B

Question 99

Which of the following is INCORRECT about drug-food interaction? A. Grapefruit juice alters metabolism of some drugs B. Green leafy vegetables decrease the effect of warfarin C. Fats decrease gastric emptying time D. Milk increases the gastric pH affecting absorption of certain drugs

Answer 99

C

Question 100

Taking griseofulvin with high fatty meal will most likely result to __________. A. increase in the absorption of griseofulvin B. decrease the elimination of griseofulvin C. potentiates the side effects of griseofulvin D. decrease in the absorption of Griseofulvin

Answer 100

A

Question 101

Which of the following factors will not directly cause a drug interaction? A. Multiple pharmacologic effects of drugs B. Pharmacokinetic variability of a patient C. Phamacoeconomic evaluation of drugs D. A and B

Answer 101

C

Question 102

Miconazole is a potent inhibitor of CYP2C9. What interaction would possibly happen with its topical preparation and another drug that is metabolized by CYP2C9? A. Plasma concentration of another drug will increase B. A pharmacodynamic interaction will be expected C. No interaction is likely to happen since systemic absorption of miconazole from the topical preparation is so low D. Metabolism of another drug will decrease

Answer 102

C

Question 103

Remedy when a solid substance fails to dissolve in a liquid A. Prepare an emulsion B. Prepare a suspension C. Addition of an inert ingredient D. Dispense the ingredients separately

Answer 103

B

Question 104

What would be the mechanism of interaction when alcohol CNS depressant is taken with alcohol? A. Pharmacodynamic interaction- Synergism B. Pharmacodynamic interaction- Additive C. Pharmacokinetic Interaction- Metabolism D. Pharmacokinetic Interaction- Excretion

Answer 104

B

Question 105

What is the interaction that occurs between Digoxin and diuretics that cause depletion of electrolytes? A. Pharmacokinetic Interaction B. Pharmacodynamic interaction C. Pharmaceutical Interaction D. b and c

Answer 105

B

Question 106

Increased elimination is necessary during cases of IV overdose of acidic or basic drugs with high enterohepatic recycling, what should be administered? I. Administer NaHCO3 for bases II. Administer Ascorbic acid for acids III. Syrup of Ipecac IV. Multiple dose Activated Charcoal A. I, II B. I, II, III C. IV D. III, IV

Answer 106

C

Question 107

The following induces the metabolism of Warfarin, except: A. Cruciferous vegetables B. Azithromycin C. Carbamazepine D. Cimetidine

Answer 107

D

Question 108

What is the SIGNIFICANT interaction involving Orlistat and a fat-soluble vitamin? A. Decrease in the absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins B. Decrease in the absorption of orlistat C. Increase in the absorption of orlistat D. Increase in the absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins

Answer 108

A

Question 109

Which does not require a sterile environment? A. Ointment preparation B. Irrigation C. Infusion D. AOTA

Answer 109

A

Question 110

What happens when the patient, who is a chronic smoker, is taking a drug? I. Increase in t1/2 of the drug II. Decrease in t1/2 of the drug III. Induces the metabolism of the drug A. I only B. II and III C. III only D. I and III

Answer 110

B

Question 111

Drug A + enzyme inducer. What will happen to drug A? A. Decrease metabolic activity B. Prolonged half-life C. Increase efficacy of inactive metabolite D. Increase elimination

Answer 111

D

Question 112

Which of the following drug combinations demonstrate synergism? I. Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid II. Levodopa + carbidopa III. Sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim IV. Sulfadoxine + pyrimethamine A. I and II only B. III and IV only C. III only D. IV only E. All of the above

Answer 112

B

Question 113

Concomitant use of oral contraceptive pills and antibiotic can result to? A. Decreased effect of the OCP and increase effect of the antibiotic B. Decreased effect of the antibiotic and increase effect of the OCP C. Increased effect of antibiotic with no effect on the OCP No effect on the antibiotic with decreased effect of the OCP D. No effect on the antibiotic with decreased effect of the OCP

Answer 113

D

Question 114

Which of the following antibiotics is not recommended to be refrigerated? A. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate B. Cefuroxime axetil C. Clarithromycin D. AOTA

Answer 114

C

Question 115

In the administration of calcium chloride and phosphate intravenously, an interaction may result. Which of the following can be done to properly administer these two? A. Add calcium first, then other additives, add the phosphate last, thoroughly mix solution after addition. B. Add calcium gluconate and potassium phosphate consecutively. Mix thoroughly until homogeneity is observed. C. The agents are incompatible together, do not combine them but give them as separate infusion. D. NOTA

Answer 115

A

Question 116

One of the advantages of using topical aerosols include A. Forms a solid like mass upon standing but liquefies when subjected to agitation. B. Can be applied in a uniform thin layer but can irritate the affected area. C. Ease of application of a uniformly thin layer of medication in a specific area. D. Protection of heat is necessary otherwise bursting may occur; refrigeration may also cause problems.

Answer 116

C

Question 117

Bisacodyl, upon co-administration with an antacid, would result to what? A. Bisacodyl is absorbed first in the small intestines before reaching the large intestines. B. No effect in the absorption of Bisacodyl and increased absorption of antacid. C. Increased absorption of both antacid and Bisacodyl. D. Decreased absorption of both drugs in the small intestines.

Answer 117

A

Question 118

The vital signs include: I. Pulse rate II. Respiratory rate III. Blood count IV. Respiratory volume A. I and II B. III and IV C. I and III D. I, II, IV E. III only

Answer 118

A

Question 119

Granisetron is used to __________ A. Prevent alopecia B. Prevent nausea and vomiting caused by chemotherapy C. Boost immune system D. Enhance cytotoxic effect

Answer 119

B

Question 120

Aspirin should not be given to children who have chickenpox in order to prevent which of the following adverse effect? A. Gray Baby Syndrome B. Reye’s Syndrome C. Down Syndrome D. Turner’s Syndrome E. Kawasaki disease

Answer 120

B

Question 121

In the use of chloramphenicol, problems in what metabolic processes leads to Gray Baby Syndrome and aplastic anemia? A. Glucuronidation and glycine conjugation B. Acetylation and nitro reduction C. Glucuronidation and nitro reduction D. Methylation and acetylation E. Glycine conjugation and methylation

Answer 121

C

Question 122

Which of the following is NOT indicated for motion sickness? A. Dimenhydrinate B. Scopolamine C. Meclizine D. Memantine

Answer 122

D

Question 123

Pregnancy category in which adverse effects have been demonstrated in animal studies, and there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women: A. Category A B. Category B C. Category C D. Category D E. Category X

Answer 123

C

Question 124

A specific drug was previously categorized as a drug that has shown an adverse effect on fetus of pregnant animals but has no well-controlled studies on pregnant women. Recent research, however, showed evidence of risk on the fetus of pregnant women but its potential benefits outweigh potential risks in certain situations. What is the new pregnancy category of the drug? A. Category B B. Category C C. Category D D. Category X

Answer 124

C

Question 125

A woman was prescribed with captopril for her hypertension. Unfortunately, her doctor failed to know that she was currently pregnant. This resulted to stillbirth. What medication error category was done? A. Category A B. Category C C. Category G D. Category H E. Category I

Answer 125

E

Question 126

A nurse mistakenly administered an overdose of paracetamol IV to a hospitalized patient. The clinical pharmacist detected the error, and the patient was immediately given acetylcysteine to prevent permanent liver damage. What medication error category was committed? A. Category A B. Category F C. Category G D. Category H E. Category D

Answer 126

B

Question 127

NYHA functional limitation class that indicates the degree of effort necessary to elicit HF symptoms that occurs at rest. A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV

Answer 127

D

Question 128

Sodium nitroprusside’s recommended route/s of administration during hypertensive emergencies A. Intramuscular B. IV bolus C. IV infusion D. B or C

Answer 128

C

Question 129

This anticoagulant drug acts by forming a complex with antithrombin III, which inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) and factor Xa. A. Heparin B. Warfarin C. Aspirin D. Ticlopidine

Answer 129

A

Question 130

A patient undergoing heparin therapy should be monitored with: A. Activated partial thromboplastin time B. Prothrombin time C. International Normalized Ratio (INR) D. Complete Blood Count E. Simple Observation

Answer 130

A

Question 131

Magnesium sulfate is an inorganic heptahydrate salt also known as Epsom salt. Which of the following is NOT a use of the said compound? A. Anticonvulsant B. Antiarrhythmic C. Antiasthma D. Antidiarrheal

Answer 131

D

Question 132

Preferred route of NTG used in the treatment of angina attacks A. Oral B. Transdermal C. Sublingual D. Intravenous

Answer 132

C

Question 133

A person has the following arterial blood gas findings: Parameter Result Normal Values Blood pH 7.03 7.35 – 7.45 pCO2 47 mmHg 35 – 45 mmHg HCO3- 25 mEq/L 22 – 26 mEq/L The patient could be in what condition? A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis

Answer 133

D

Question 134

Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding mebendazole? I. It is a medication for ascariasis. II. It is poorly absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract III. It is administered parenterally A. I B. I and II C. I and III D. II and III

Answer 134

B

Question 135

Water-soluble vitamins I. D-α-tocopherol II. Pyridoxine III. Cevitamic acid IV. Ascorbic acid V. Ergocalciferol VI. Cyanocobalamin A. II, IV, V, VI B. II, III, IV, V, VI C. I, II, IV, V, VI D. II, III, IV, VI

Answer 135

D

Question 136

Which of the following statements about electrolyte balance is NOT true? I. Bicarbonate is the predominant extracellular anion II. Sodium is the predominant extracellular cation III. Magnesium is the second most predominant intracellular cation IV. Phosphate is the predominant intracellular anion A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. II and IV only E. None of the above

Answer 136

A

Question 137

Varenicline is used for _______ A. alcohol addiction B. smoking cessation therapy C. motion sickness D. opioid overdose

Answer 137

B

Question 138

Which of the following drugs can cause dry mouth? A. Atropine B. Ipratropium C. Tiotropium D. All of the above

Answer 138

D

Question 139

Carcinogenicity is under what type of ADR? A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C D. Type D E. Type E

Answer 139

D

Question 140

Which of the following pairing is CORRECT? I. Primary literature: Journal articles II. Secondary literature: Textbooks III. Tertiary literature: Abstracts A. I B. II C. II and III D. I, II and III

Answer 140

A

Question 141

Augmented reaction with the use of phenothiazines A. Mottling of the teeth B. Anaphylactic shock C. Extrapyramidal symptoms D. Delirium tremens

Answer 141

C

Question 142

Which of the following pairs of drugs and teratogenic effects is/are correctly matched? I. Methimazole: Aplasia cutis II. Valproic acid: renal dysgenesis III. ACEI & ARBs: neural tube defect IV. Phenytoin: Ebstein’s Anomaly A. I only B. I and II only C. III and IV only D. I and III only E. IV only

Answer 142

A

Question 143

Ampalaya supplements may cause additive interaction with _________. A. Lipid-lowering drugs B. Antidiabetic drugs C. Anti-gout drugs D. Antihypertensive drugs

Answer 143

B

Question 144

Kernicterus is a bilirubin-induced brain dysfunction in babies. It is caused by an uncontrollable increase of bilirubin levels in the blood which then can cross the BBB. Which of the following anti-infectives is found out to be associated with kernicterus? A. Sulfonamides B. Chloramphenicol C. Penicillin D. Macrolides

Answer 144

A

Question 145

Methacholine, a direct-acting parasympathomimetic, is used in provocative challenge test for BA diagnosis. Which of the following is also a diagnostic test for BA? A. Tensilon test B. Spirometry test C. Treadmill test D. Breath test

Answer 145

B

Question 146

In HIV-AIDS, are markedly decreased. A. CD4 or cytotoxic T-cells B. CD4 or helper T-cells C. CD8 or helper T-cells D. CD8 or cytotoxic T-cells E. Natural Killer Cells

Answer 146

B

Question 147

Poison Ivy contains urushiol which causes contact dermatitis. This type of allergic reaction is classified under: A. Anaphylactic reactions B. Cytotoxic reactions C. Immune-complex mediated reactions D. Cell-mediated reactions

Answer 147

D

Question 148

A derivative of the hormone produced by kidneys in response to hypoxia which is commonly abused by athletes: A. Filgrastim B. Erythropoietin C. Epoetin alfa D. Humalog

Answer 148

C

Question 149

Which of the following drugs are most likely to be subjected with Therapeutic Drug Monitoring? I. Phenytoin II. Gentamicin III. Warfarin IV. Carbamazepine A. I and II B. II, III and IV C. I, II and III D. I, II, III and IV

Answer 149

D

Question 150

Which of the following is the indication of Drug LMH? A. CHF treatment B. DVT treatment C. AMI treatment D. BPH treatment

Answer 150

B

Question 151

Patient A, a 48-year-old female weighing 55 kg and with a body surface area of 1.73 m2, has a GFR of 40 mL/min. Which of the following biomarkers is most likely to be characteristic of the patient’s disease state? I. High creatinine clearance II. High serum creatinine III. Elevated Cystatin C levels IV. Moderately decreased GFR A. I, II B. I, III, IV C. II, III D. II, III, IV

Answer 151

D

Question 152

An 85-year old female weighing 100 lb has a serum creatinine of 65 mg/dL. Compute for the creatinine clearance of this patient. 0.45 A. 0.45 B. 0.25 C. 0.35 D. 0.30

Answer 152

A

Question 153

Pulmonary function can be determined by ________. A. ECG B. Peak flow measurement C. Angiogram D. 2D Echo test

Answer 153

B

Question 154

What function test is used to monitor a patient who is taking rosuvastatin? A. Liver function test B. Kidney function test C. Cardiac function test D. Blood pressure

Answer 154

A

Question 155

A patient was diagnosed with terminal cancer. Which of the following is considered to be an appropriate palliative care for the patient? A. Administration of anti-cancer agents B. Administration of narcotic analgesic such as morphine. C. Immunotherapy D. Radiation therapy

Answer 155

B

Question 156

An increased in aspartate transferase serum level is an indication of _______. A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Hepatitis C. Gout D. Chronic kidney disease

Answer 156

B

Question 157

Which of the following medicines can lower cholesterol levels? I. Statins II. Fenofibrate III. Cholestyramine A. I B. I and III C. I and II D. I, II and III

Answer 157

D

Question 158

A construction worker should not be given which of the following drug for allergy: A. Loratadine B. Cetirizine C. Fexofenadine D. Diphenhydramine E. Levocetirizine

Answer 158

D

Question 159

Which of the following is the best drug for a patient with pneumonia whose sputum culture is positive for a staphylococcal strain and also beta-lactamase-positive? A. Ampicillin B. Piperacillin C. Penicilin G D. Oxacillin

Answer 159

D

Question 160

A routine blood test carried out on babies a few days after birth to detect the condition PKU A. Mantoux test B. Coomb’s test C. Guthrie’s test D. NOTA

Answer 160

C

Question 161

Newborn Screening is a simple procedure to find out if a baby has a congenital metabolic disorder which may lead to mental retardation or death if left untreated. Which is NOT included in the newborn screening test? A. Congenital hypothyroidism B. Phenylketonuria C. Maple Syrup Urine Disease D. None of the above

Answer 161

D

Question 162

Methenamine is used as a urinary tract antiseptic. It is hydrolyzed into which compound to provide its antibacterial effect in the urinary tract? A. Formaldehyde B. Ammonia C. Ethylene D. A & B

Answer 162

A

Question 163

The symptoms of BPH are caused by A. Pressure exerted by the prostate gland on urethra B. Relaxation of bladder muscle C. Shrinkage of the prostate gland D. Relaxation of the prostate gland muscles

Answer 163

A

Question 164

Which of the following laboratory tests would be helpful in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction? I. Albumin II. Creatine kinase III. Troponin I IV. Hematocrit A. I only B. II only C. II and III D. IV only E. I, II, III

Answer 164

C

Question 165

DOC for Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris: A. CCB B. BB C. NTG D. Digoxin

Answer 165

B

Question 166

Hematocrit measures A. total number of blood cells per volume of blood B. number of red blood cells per volume of blood C. percentage of red blood cells per volume of blood D. weight of Hgb per volume of blood – mean corpuscular Hgb concentration (MCHC) E. weight of red blood cells per volume of blood

Answer 166

C

Question 167

Which of the following drugs prevent enzymatic inactivation of incretin hormones (GP1 and GIP) by acting as competitive reversible inhibitor of DPP-4? A. Pramlintide B. Exenatide C. Sitagliptin D. Rosiglitazone

Answer 167

C

Question 168

Which of the following biomarkers is considered as the “gold standard” for the diagnosis of myocardial infarction? A. Troponin I B. AST C. LDH 1 & 2 D. LDH 5

Answer 168

A

Question 169

Which of the following is used as a prophylaxis against tuberculosis? A. INH B. Rifampicin C. BCG D. Ethambutol E. Mantoux test

Answer 169

C

Question 170

A patient was brought to the hospital due to hypertensive crisis. It was found that the patient had eaten fermented cheese a few hours earlier. The intake of what other substance could have triggered the adverse event: A. Warfarin B. Aspirin C. Isocarboxazid D. Digoxin E. Paracetamol

Answer 170

C

Question 171

This reaction is mediated by immunological mechanisms and is not expected to result from a known pharmacologic response. A. Augmented reaction B. Hypersensitivity reaction C. Withdrawal reaction D. Pharmacodynamic interaction

Answer 171

B

Question 172

This is a PGF2α analog which is indicated for the reduction of intraocular pressure A. Misoprostol B. Alprostadil C. Dinoprostone D. Epoprostenol E. Latanoprost

Answer 172

E

Question 173

This H1 antagonist has an additional anti-serotonergic effect and is thus effective in managing serotonin syndrome A. Betahistine B. Cetirizine C. Cyproheptadine D. Hydroxyzine E. Meclizine

Answer 173

C

Question 174

Which of the following is NOT an example of "extrapyramidal symptoms" caused by antipsychotics? A. Anuria B. Akathesia C. Akinesia D. Dystonia

Answer 174

A

Question 175

Which of the following is the 1st line treatment in intermittent asthma? A. Cromolyn Na B. Albuterol C. Ipratropium D. Prednisone

Answer 175

B

Question 176

Which of the following are controllers? A. tiotropium B. albuterol C. prednisone D. 2otA E. AotA

Answer 176

B

Question 177

A patient with CHF has been given enalapril as base treatment. Overall, the patient has a good clinical outcome except that the patient complained of intolerable dry cough. What would be the best alternative for this patient? A. Captopril B. Digoxin C. Losartan D. Inamrinone

Answer 177

C

Question 178

Which of the following is NOT a diuretic? A. Acetazolamide B. Spironolactone C. Desmopressin D. Mannitol

Answer 178

C

Question 179

Which of the following is needed to produce a positive inotropic effect? A. Lanoxin B. Isproterenol C. Plavix D. Actilyse

Answer 179

A

Question 180

Which of the following refers to the result of the exposure to a disease organism triggering the immune system to produce antibodies to that disease? A. Active immunity B. Passive immunity C. Either A or B D. Neither A nor B

Answer 180

A

Question 181

What consequence is observed if Aldactone® is used simultaneously with an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor? A. Angioedema B. Dry cough C. Hyperkalemia D. Renal disease

Answer 181

C

Question 182

Mannitol, when administered orally, is classified as a/an? A. Osmotic diuretic B. Analgesic C. Cathartic D. Sedative E. Stimulant

Answer 182

C

Question 183

Which of the following are administered via the inhalational route? I. Terbutaline II. Theophylline III. Betamethasone IV. Montelukast A. I and II B. I, II, IV C. I, II, III, IV D. II, III, IV

Answer 183

C

Question 184

What characteristic of dopamine is an important advantage in its use in cardiogenic shock? A. Produces dose-dependent increases in cardiac output and renal perfusion B. Does not increase blood pressure C. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier and cause CNS effects D. Has no effects on alpha and beta receptors

Answer 184

A

Question 185

It refers to a process of reviewing several clinical papers concerning the benefits of a new formulary drug and is preparing a summary comparing the findings for publication. A. Dimensional analysis B. Double blind study C. Meta-analysis D. Peer review

Answer 185

C

Question 186

Cardinal signs of inflammation, except: A. Rubor B. Cador C. Dolor D. Tumor E. Function laesa

Answer 186

B

Question 187

Which among the following aminoglycosides is the most nephrotoxic? A. Streptomycin B. Kanamycin C. Neomycin D. Amikacin E. Tobramycin

Answer 187

C

Question 188

Which of the following type of study is most appropriate when determining the relationship between a newly approved formulary drug and ulcer if the record of patients diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease versus controls over the period from June 2011 – June 2021 was used? A. Retrospective B. Prospective C. Cohort D. Randomized trial

Answer 188

A

Question 189

A patient complains of burning pain in his stomach between meals, bloating, nausea, and vomiting. Upon diagnosis, it was confirmed that he is suffering from peptic ulcer disease. The doctor plans to give Prilosec®.as one of his medicines. However, he found out that the patient is taking Zocor® as his maintenance drug. What could possibly be the effect of co- administration of these 2 drugs? A. Hyperglycemia B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Hypertension D. Bleeding

Answer 189

B

Question 190

What part the prescription can the pharmacist reads the medications prescribed? A. Superscription B. Inscription C. Subscription D. D. Signa

Answer 190

B

Question 191

Characterized by low protein intake with adequate calorie intake A. Marasmus B. Rickets C. Beri-beri D. Kwashiorkor

Answer 191

D

Question 192

A more exact value of less than 200 mg/dL is desirable when measuring a patient's level of A. total cholesterol B. TAG C. HDL D. chylomicrons E. LDL

Answer 192

A

Question 193

Indicative of rapid GI transit and malabsorption syndrome A. black stool B. gray stool C. hard stool D. watery stool

Answer 193

D

Question 194

In a patient who has had documented gouty arthritis and hyperuricemia and who also has HPN, a preferred antihypertensive agent would be A. HCTZ B. Losartan C. Clonidine D. Lisinopril

Answer 194

B

Question 195

For numbers 195-196: A patient with hypertension presents the following prescription to the pharmacist: Rx Amlodipine 50 mg #30 Idoxuridine 0.1% #1 What class of antihypertensive agents does the prescribed antihypertensive drug belong? A. Calcium channel blockers B. Beta blockers C. ACE inhibitors D. Angiotensin II reuptake inhibitors E. Diuretics

Answer 195

A

Question 196

Aside from hypertension, what is the other condition of the patient? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Bacterial infection C. Hemorrhage D. Hypothyroidism E. Viral infection

Answer 196

E

Question 197

Which of the following hormone is detected in the urine of pregnant woman? A. Menotropins B. Urofollitropins C. Human chorionic gonadotropin D. Gonadotropin releasing hormone

Answer 197

C

Question 198

What study design is most appropriate in determining the efficacy of the drug? A. Retrospective B. Case-control study C. Cohort study D. Randomized controlled trial

Answer 198

D

Question 199

In conducting clinical trials, the following are true statements: I. Children and elderly can become subjects of the study II. SAE or Serious Adverse Events can occur and should be reported III. Blinded study uses placebo for comparison A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II and III

Answer 199

D

Question 200

Healthy human volunteers are usually involved in _______ A. Phase 1 clinical trial B. Phase 2 clinical trial C. Phase 3 clinical trial D. Phase 4 clinical trial

Answer 200

A