Macaques Flashcards
1
Q
The identification of what has been shown to be a useful tool in differentiating between macaques of Chinese versus Indian origin, or confirming geographic origin in medical records of rhesus monkeys with uncertain origin.
A
Single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)
2
Q
Catarrhine refers to (Old/New World primates) while Platyrrhine refers to (Old/New World primates)
A
Catarrhine: Old World
Platyrrhine: New world
3
Q
New World, Old World, or both: Ischial callosities Require vitamin D3/cannot utilize vitamin D2 Can utilize vitamin D2 Hemochorial placentation Cheek pouches Estrous cycles Menstrual cycles
A
Ischial callosities- OWP
Require vitamin D3/cannot utilize vitamin D2: NWP
Can utilize vitamin D2: OWP
Hemochorial placentation: Both
Cheek pouches: OWP
Estrous cycles: NWP (except Cebus spp, which menstruate)
Menstrual cycles: OWP
4
Q
Dental formula for rhesus and cynomolgus monkeys
A
32 teeth total; 2-1-2-3
5
Q
T/F: Rhesus and cynomolgus macaques are poor swimmers
A
False- can swim from 2 days of age
6
Q
T/F: In the wild, both rhesus and cynos exist primarily in male-dominated, multimale-multifemale groups
A
True
7
Q
macaques adhere to a strict hierarchical class system with the dominant male changing groups every few years, while _____ macaques have a less stringent hierarchical dominance ranking and groups are often led by a number of high ranking males
A
Rhesus
Cynomolgus
8
Q
_____ macaques are seasonal breeders, while _____ macaques can breed throughout the year
A
Rhesus
Cynomolgus
9
Q
What is the gestation period for rhesus macaques? Cynos?
A
134 days (both spp)
10
Q
How long is the menstrual cycle for rhesus? Cynos?
A
28 days (both spp)
11
Q
Sexual maturity in male/female rhesus? Cynos?
A
Rhesus: 6.5/ 4.5
Cynos: 5.5/3.5
12
Q
Estrus lasts ____ days in rhesus and _____ days in cynos
A
Rhesus: 9.5 days
Cynos: 11 days
13
Q
All Macaca spp are of CITES status _____, except for _________, which is CITES status _____
A
II
Macaca silenus, the Lion-tailed macaque
I
14
Q
In the indoor environment, the recommended temperature range for nonhuman primates is _____, with a relative humidity between _____ and _____. Allowances should be made for the TNZ of individual species, for example, marmosets and tamarins should be kept at a minimum of ____ % humidity.
A
64-84 degrees F
30-70%
50%
15
Q
______ macaques are mainly vegetarian, while ______ are omnivorous
A
vegetarian, while ______ are omnivorous
Rhesus
Cynomolgus
16
Q
What extra precautions should be taken prior to feeding when soaking/softening monkey biscuits?
A
Soak in fruit juice, as water tends to degrade vitamin C
17
Q
When feeding commercial monkey biscuits, approximately how much biscuit are most monkeys fed by bodyweight (%)
A
2-4% of bodyweight
18
Q
The different responses of Indian vs. Chinese macaques to _____ (infectious agent) illustrates the need to know the source/country of origin of macaques on study
A
SIV
19
Q
Name 3 factors that make rhesus macaques an excellent model for HIV vaccine research
A
1) Genetic similarity to humans
2) Susceptibility to SIV
3) Homology to the human MHC class I, II, and TRC genes
20
Q
_____ macaques have become the standard macaque model in pharmaceutical research in large part due to their availability through importers and the development of large breeding facilities in source countries
A
Cynomolgus
21
Q
T/F: The genomes have been sequenced for both rhesus and cynomolgus macaques
A
True
22
Q
What non-cyno/non-rhesus macaques have…
_____ are used as a model of HIV/SHIV research, gene therapy, and immunology studies
_____ have contributed to research on balding and behavior
_____ has been used as a model for Kyasanur Forest disease and in reproductive biology
A
Macaca nemestrina (pigtailed) Macaca arctoides (stumptailed) Macaca radiata (bonnet)
23
Q
What regulation required the research community to develop documents and follow an appropriate plan for environmental enhancement that would promote the psychological wellbeing of NHPs
A
The 1985 Amendment to the Animal Welfare Act
24
Q
In what important way to Guide recommendations differ from AWR recommendations in regards to caging size for NHPs?
A
The Guide states that optimal cage measurements should not be based solely on floor space (ie: space allowances should be derived from performance standards)
25
Indoor NHP facilities should not drop below ____ degrees F or go above _____ degrees F for more than _____ consecutive hours
45
85
4
26
In general, cleaning and disinfection of the primary enclosure is recommended to occur ____ for NHPs.
In a hospital setting, it is recommended to clean/disinfect primary enclosures at what frequency?
In general, how frequently should primary enclosures be sanitized?
Daily
Twice daily
Every 2 weeks
27
Water should be _____ degrees F if ised as a sanitizing agent in cage wash.
180 degrees F
28
According to (gov't organization), research institutions that house NHPs are obligated to provide their workers with established practices to ensure that appropriate levels of environmental quality and safety are maintained.
CDC
29
Starting in the mid-1980's, (gov't organization) developed the federal standard known as Hazard Comunication ("Worker Right to Know").
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
30
The minimum ABSL for use with NHPs is
ABSL2
31
Name the most frequently found zoonotic virus in occupationally exposed NHP caretakers. How is this usually transmitted? What are the clinical signs in humans?
Simian foamy virus (SFV)
Transmitted through animal bites
No human disease reported
32
First aid for macaque exposure: state the ideal cleaning method for:
Eye/mucous membrane exposure:
Skin exposure:
Eyes: 15 minutes flush with sterile saline or water
Skin: Wash sin with 0.25% bleach followed by a wash with detergent soap (chlorhex or povidone iodine) for 15 minutes
33
Newly imported primates must be quarantined for a minimum of _____ days at a _____-registered primate import facility. Once animals have completed the required 31 day quarantine period, a minimum of an additional ____ quarantine period should be completed at the receiving research facility.
31 days
CDC
at least 30 day
34
In quarantine, NHPs should be TB tested every _____ weeks, rotating eyelids each week. The skin test should then be scored at (time points). For suspicious cases, _______(should be done)____
2 weeks
24, 48, 72 hrs
NHP anesthetized so that the eyelid can be palpated as a better indicator of induration, and the tuberculin skin test should be repeated on the skin of the abdomen or the opposite eyelide
35
How many reaction grades are there when scoring NHP TB tests? Describe the main changes that occur with each score
0- Negative/no reaction
1- Negative/bruise/extravasation
2- Negative/erythema but no swellling
3- Indeterminant/ erythema with minimal swelling vs. swelling with minimal erythema
4- Positive: obvious swelling of palpebrum with drooping of eyelid and varying erythema
5- Positive: swelling and/or necrosis with closed eyelid
36
List the recommended vaccines for outdoor-housed macaques. At what time points should these vaccines be boostered?
```
MMR (at least 6 weeks after the initial dose)
Rabies (every 3 years)
Tetanus toxoid (every 5 years)
```
37
What serodiagnostic testing is recommended for macaques prior to accepting them into a colony.
```
SIV
STLV
SRV1-5
B virus
Measles
```
38
T/F: Ideally, screening tests should have very high specificity, and positives on these should be confirmed with tests of very high sensitivity
False-- high sensitivity screening tests (ex: MFIA), followed by high specificity (ex: PCR, Western blot, IFA) confirmatory tests
39
In order to calculate the positive and negative predictive values for a particular assay, what three values must be known?
Diagnostic sensitivity of test
Diagnostic specificity of test
Prevalence of disease in the target population
40
Name three test types that tend to have a low rate of false positives (in other words, these tests have a high diagnostic _____)
IFA
PCR
WB
Specificity
41
The greatest risk to detection and control of tuberculosis in NHPs is ______
the availability of mammalian old tuberculin (MOT) for the purposes of tuberculin skin testing
42
The most common site for venipuncture in the NHP is _____
the femoral vein
43
As in humans, CSF collected from the NHP's ______ site has higher concentrations of TP, albumin, and IgG, along with lower concentrations of glucose and potassium, than CSF from the ______
lumbar
| cisterna magna
44
Collection of CSF from what site is most desirable. For what reason?
Lumbar puncture
| Fewer potential complications
45
The preferred site for collection of bone marrow from the NHP is ______ because ______
the iliac crest (usually an active site of BM production)
46
What is the maximum volume of fluids that should be administered subcutaneously at any one site in the macaque?
5 ml/kg
47
For distances greater than 20 m, ______ are commonly used for sedation, whereas for distances less than 20 m, _____ usually suffice. An alternative that poses less risk of injury to the animal is _____, which is useful up to 15 m.
CO2 powered rifle
CO2 powered pistols
Blowpipe
48
Sevoflurane has a (higher/lower) solubility coefficient compared to isoflurane, which provides a (faster/more gradual) anesthetic recovery
higher
| faster
49
What two factors have historically made desflurane a less common anesthetic for veterinary species?
High vapor pressure
| Expensive
50
Which regulatory document discusses the practice of canine tooth removal/reduction in NHPs? What is the document's stance on this procedure?
discusses the practice of canine tooth removal/reduction in NHPs? What is the document's stance on this procedure?
USDA AWA ACP #3
Non-medical canine tooth removal or reduction that exposes the pulp cavity is not considered appropriate veterinary care, although it may be acceptable for behavioral/breeding reasons if the pulp cavity is not exposed.
51
Describe the AVMA's stance on canine tooth reduction in NHPs
Must be medically or scientifically justified, or justified by animal or human safety concerns. Behavior/environmental modification should be tried first.
52
Regarding computerized radiography equipment:
_____ systems use imaging plates to generate a difital image and they are generally relatively inexpensive.
_____ systems are usually more expensive but result in faster image acquisition.
```
Computed radiograph (CR)
Direct digital radiograph (DR)
```
53
To be of greatest diagnostic value, NHP thoracic radiographs should be made with the animal in _______ position, during full inspiration.
upright
54
T/F: the WHO as well as the NIH have endorsed the therapeutic value of acupuncture
True
55
What is the name of the alternative medicine technique that has been used to reduce pain associated with osteoarthritis, improve wound healing,and reduce inflammation?
Low-level laser therapy (LLLT)
56
What species of macaque has extensive cervical mucus that is visible on ultrasound?
Macaca radiata
57
Chaya’s disease caused by ________ is a common hemoflagellate found in South and Central America and the south western US.
Trypanosoma Cruz I
58
In T. Cruz I the trypomastogote form is found in the ____ and the amastigote form is found in the ____.
Blood
| Tissue pseudocysts
59
What is the intermittent host for T. cruzi?
| How does transmission occur?
Kissing bug or assassin bug
Bites, contamination of wounds or mucous membranes with infected insect droppings, or ingestion or contaminated fruits or insects
60
Staphylococcal hypersensitivity in NHPs is due to a nonspecific interaction of the host immunoglobulins with what?
Protein A (cell wall protein that leads to activation of humoral and cellular inflammatory processes)
61
Most common bacterial pathogen recovered from clinical vaginitis in macaques?
Staph aureus
62
What bacteria are Gm+, catalase -, facultatively anaerobic cocci, <2um that grow in chains?
Streptococcus
63
What are the most commonly isolated Streptococcus in NHP?
S. pneumoniae, and group A, B, and C streptococci
64
S. pneumonia produces what effect on blood agar?
alpha hemolysis due to sensitivity to growth inhibition by optochin.
65
What bacteria is normally housed in the oropharynx of humans and NHPs and is transmitted by aerosol via the upper respiratory tract, middle ear, or orally?
S. pneumonia
66
What bacteria is the primary cause of meningoencephalitis in NHPs?
S. pneumonia
67
Condition that causes lethargy, circling, clonic seizures, convulsions, nystagmus, head pressing, neck rigidity, muscle tremors, flaccid paralysis, hypotension and death.
meninoencephalitis (s. pneumonia)
68
What condition causes gross engorgement of meningeal vasculature of cerebrum/cerebellum. Leptomeninges dull, thickened, and opaque. May have white/yellow purulent exudate in subarachnoid space, or petechiae of meninges. Asymmetry of cerebral hemispheeres, severe malacia of ventral frontal lobes.
S. pneumonia
69
Suppurative arthritis and peritonitis, purulent bronchopenumonia, gray hepatization of ventral lung lobes, tonsilities, sinusitis, and pulmonary edema may occur with what bacteria?
S. pneumonia
70
What bacteria is also associated with fatal cervical lymphadenitis in guinea pigs?
Streptococcus zooepidemicus (Group C, pyogenic, beta hemolytic)
71
Cause of suppurative submandibular retropharyngeal lymphadenitis in red-bellied tamarins and Goeldii monkeys?
Strep. zooepidemicus
72
What group of streptococci causes metritis and hemolytic uremic syndrome?
Group A (beta hemolytic)
73
Gram +, non-sporulating rod natural found on skin an dmucous membranes of animals?
Corynebacterium
74
Gram +, nonacid-fast bacterium that causes dermatophilosis
Dermatophilus congolensis (reported in owl and titi monkeys)
75
Treatment of dermatophilus congolensis?
Penicillin +/- sterptomycin
76
Glycerol will inhibit the growth of what bacteria, while assisting the growth of what other bacteria?
Inhibits Mycobacterium bovis.
| M. tuberculosis prefers glycerol.
77
What bacteria is niacin positive, and what is niacin negative? M. bovis or M. tuberculosis
M bovis is niacin Negative
| M. tuberculosis is niacin Positive
78
Inhalation of 1-3 bacilli can cause what disease?
tuberculosis
79
Rule outs for persistent cough?
Tuberculosis (fatigued, anorectic, weight loss, dyspnea, lymphadenopathy and cutaneous abcesses)
Lung Mites
80
What species of macaques is noted to develop more clinical disease to tuberculosis? Rhesus or Cynomolgus
Rhesus
81
Post mortem diagnosis of TB?
multifocal granulomas in the lungs, disseminated, miliary infection in liver and spleen, enlargement/mineralization of LN in thorax
82
Should Isoniazide be used solely to treat TB?
A single treatment has proved ineffective and can cause pyridoxine deficiency, behavioral changes, and render testing inaccurate.
Effective if also given streptomycin, p-aminosalicyclic acid, ethambutol, or rifampin.
83
Most common isolate in NHPs
Nocardia asteroides- common following contact with skin wounds, inhalation, or ingestion.
84
What bacteria causes cavitary lesions, multifocal abscesses, nodular kin lesions, and sulfur granules?
Nocardia asteroides
85
A positive catalase test will produce what on a slide?
Bubbles
86
What two bacteria are known to be catalase negative?
Enterococci and Streptococci
87
What do OF stand for in the OF Glucose test?
OF = oxidation, fermentation
| Note: one tube is covered with sterile mineral oil to act as an oxygen barrier
88
If glucose is metabolized in an OF tube, what color does the medium change to when brom thymol blue (pH indicator) is added to indicate acid production?
Green to yellow
89
What color hemolysis do beta-hemolytic, alpha-hemolytic, and gama-hemolytic produce?
```
beta = clear zone (streptococcus subclassified by Lancefield group based on carbohydrate composition of the antigen in the cell wall.
alpha = green zone
gamma = no hemolysis
```
90
What bacteria are usually coagulase positive? Strep or Staph?
Staph
91
Name a catalase +, Gram + cocci that is beta hemolytic and coagulase +, and fermentive
S. aureus and S. intermedius
92
Name a catalase +, Gram + cocci that is gamma hemolytic and coagulase +, and fermentive
Staph. hyicus
93
Name a catalase +, Gram + cocci that is gamma hemolytic and coagulase -, and fermentive
Staph. epidermidis
94
Name a catalase +, Gram + cocci that is oxidative
Staph micrococcus spp
95
What bacteria is the most common isolate of external wounds and joints from NHPs with arthritis?
Staph aureus
96
What cell wall protein produces staph hypersensitivity?
Cell wall protein A
97
What bacteria is catalase negative, and beta hemolytic?
Strep zooepidemicus and S. pyogenes
98
What bacteria is catalase negative, and alpha hemolytic
S. pneumonia
99
What bacteria is a betalactamase?
Streptococcus
100
What bacteria causes bronchopneumonia in OWPs and may disseminate to pneumococcal meningitis, serositis, and death
Streptococcus (OWPs>NWPs)
101
How do you diagnose/trt streptococcus in pneumococcal meningitis?
Culture, alpha hemolysis, optochin test sensitivity, PCR
| Trt with penicillin 5-7 days (zoonotic)
102
What is the optochin test used for?
Differentiating S. pneumonia from other alpha hemolytic strep.
Strep is sensitive to optochin infused discs and growth will be inhibited around the disk.
103
What is the Quellung reaction?
also called the Neufeld reaction, is a biochemical reaction in which antibodies bind to the bacterial capsule of Streptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Bacillus anthracis, Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli, and Salmonella.
104
What Strep causes lymphadenitis, respiratory signs?
S. zooepidemicus
105
What Strep causes toxic-like syndrome (multi-systemic)?
S. pyogenes
106
Name Gram + bacilli, spore forming bacteria.
Bacillus and clostridia
107
Name Gram + bacilli, spore -, catalase +, motility positive bacteria?
Listeria monocytogenes, mycobacterium
108
Name Gram + bacilli, spore -, catalase +, motility negative bacteria?
Nocardia
109
Name Gram + bacilli, spore -, catalase -, alpha hemolysis?
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
110
What are the two most common causes of mycobacterium tuberculosis?
M. tuberculosis and M. bovis (M. africanum, microti, and canettii)
111
What bacteria cause non-tb? (atypical infections)
M. avium, simiae, kansasii, leprae
112
What NHPs develop TB worse? OWP or NWP?
OWP. M. mulatta more severe then M. fascicularis
113
What is the most common route of TB transmission?
inhalation, but can also be ingested, bite wounds, or fomites. <50cfu produces 100% infection
Highly zoonotic
114
What causes anorexia/wt. loss, cough/hemoptysis, lymphadenopathy, and death?
TB
115
What causes the pathological findings of un-encapsulated granuloma with necrotic core. Surrounding the core are multinucleated Langhan's giant cells. Acid fast bacilli may be seen (rare)
TB
116
Which of the following does not cause a false positive TB test?
1. Measles vax
2. Freund's complete adjuvant
3. Trauma
4. Atypical mycobacterium
5. reaction to vehicle
Measles vax (false negative), along with too early or advance dz, and isoniazid treatment
117
TB cultures must be held for how long to be considered negative?
8 weeks
118
What mycobacterium requires glycerol for growth, while it is inhibitory to another mycobacterium?
M. tuberculosis needs glycerol
| Glycerol inhibits M. bovis.
119
What bacteria causes granulomatous inflammation of the terminal ileum and proximal colon due to infiltration of foamy macrophages into mucosa and submucosa? What stain is used to see this bacteria?
M. avium- M intracellulare complex (Runyon group III)
| Ziehl-Neelsen stain (for acid fast bacilli)
120
What is the rule out for recurrent diarrhea and weight loss in stump tailed macaques?
M. paratuberculosis (johnes dz). Granulomas form on affected tissues (GI, liver, spleen), Langhans giant cells, acid fast bacilli resent in lesions, requires mycobactin for in vitro growth
121
What causes a natural infection in Sooty Mangabey (Cercocebus atys), chimps, and cynomologs causing nodular lesions, ulcerations of the extremities (ears, nose, tails, fingers, hands, scrotum, penis)?
M. leprae (Leprosy/Hansen's dz)
122
What atypical mycobacterium is like M. tuberculosis but less pathogenic (and can cause a + TB test). What is the most likely source of infection?
M. Kansasii
| Water supply
123
What bacteria forms short chains with peritrichous flagella, and may require cold enrichment. it penetrates the gut and grows in splenic /hepatic macrophage causing necrosis. Most commonly causes repro failure (abortion/stillbirth, neonatal septicemia)
M. Kansasii
124
Name a bacteria that is non-spore forming rod with rounded ends, and causes alpha hemolysis on blood agar? Has affected black and red tamarin and diana monkey.
Erysipelothris rhusiopathiae
125
Name a spore forming obligate anaerobe (GM + non-encapsulated) that develops a neurotoxin - tetanospasmin- retrogade up motor nerves - inhibits Renshaw cells which control motor neuron impulses. See bipedal hopping/running, then death from respiratory paralysis or exhaustion. Piloerection, abrasions, and facial grimace.
C. tetani
| Toxoid prevetion, antitoxin treatment
126
What bacteria causes acute gastric dilitation, abdominal distension, labored breathing, and resulting liquefacive myonecrosis from extracellular toxins (alpha and theta)
C. perfringens
127
What medications are used to treat C. perfringens?
Ampicillin orally, anti-gassing agent, IV fluids, corticosteroid to counter shock.
128
What bacteria produces a toxin at the neuromuscular junction of cholinergic nerve fibers to prevent synaptic release of acetylcholine?
C botulinum toxin A-G
129
Feeding cooked chickens is associated with what disease in NWM?
Clostridium botulinum
130
What condition causes hepatic and intestinal dz (diarhhea), necrotizing typhlocolitis, hepatitis, myocarditia in cotton-top tamarin infants (s. oedipus) and SIV rhesus (m mulatta)?
Clostria
131
What causes pseudomembranous colitis (AAD in humands/animals) characterized by watery stool, hematochezia, weakness, death?
Exotoxin A and B caused by treatment with antibiotics
132
Name a weekly acid-fast, branched hyphea that is an environmental saprophyte?
Nocardia asteroides- most common isolate in NHPs
133
What are the clinical signs of Nocarida?
dyspnea, epistaxis, intermittent diarrhea, coma
134
What bacteria causes pulmonary lesions (multi-nodular, red-gray consolidation, pulmonary hemorrhage and edema), abscesses of abd organs, and cutaneous draining lesions?
Nocardia
| Culture on blood or Sabourads dextrose agar at 25 and 37 degrees.
135
What bacteria produces pyogranulomas with sulfur granules containing filamentous bacteria bordered by histocytes?
Nocardia (no treatment)
136
What is the classic triad of Yersiniosis (enterocolitica and pseudotuberculosis)
Hepatic and splenic necrosis, mesenteric lymphadenopathy, ulcerative enterocolitis (multifocal)
137
Squirrel monkeys have enlarged cervical LNs with this bacteria? The bacteria is gram -, facultative anaerobe with peritrichous flagella. How do you treat?
Yersinia
Slow growth and may require cold enrichment 4-7 degrees
Treatment not successful: aminoglycosides and TMZ
138
Name 4 gram - bacilli that grows on macconkey agar, is oxidative, and Lac -
Aeromonas, Moraxella catarrhalis, Bordetella bronchiseptica, Pseudomonas
139
What bacteria is Gram -, pleomorphic bacillus with monotrichous flagellum found in water/sewage (common fish an damphibian dz)
Aeromonas
140
What bacteria occurs more in NWM than OWM, and causes hepatic necrosis, pneumonia, eterocolitis, GI signs and peritonitis. Beta hemolytic on culture
Aeromonas hydrophilia
141
What Aeromonas bacteria is isolated clinically in Mauritian Cynos (and is described in slaughter house pigs in portugal)
Aeromonas simiae
142
What Gram - diplococcus is most prevalent in dry, winter months (humidity <45%) causing epistaxis, sneezing, mucohemorrhagic nasal discharge and periorbital swelling? Treatment?
Moraxella catarrhalis
| Tx: Clavamox, macrolides, cephalosporings, TMZ, tetracycline, fluoroquinolones
143
What rare bacteria causes unsteady gate, nystagmus, head tilt, and circling in squirrel monkeys recently shipped? or pneumonia, pleuritis, meningitis in owl monkeys?
P. multocida
144
What bacteria is non-spore forming, and produces urease and uses citrate? Treatment?
B. bronchiseptica (affects all lung lobes)
Oxytetracycline will resolve clinical dz but not eliminate from nasal passage
Autogenous bacterin reported in marmoset
