Main EPME Flashcards
(458 cards)
1
Q
Beginning signs of syphilis
A
Small pussy bumps
2
Q
Standard alcohol drink sizes?
A
1.5 shot, 5 oz wine, 12 oz beer
3
Q
What BAC enters you into a coma or death?
A
.40%
4
Q
When counseling a member on IDP you should us what acronym?
A
Smart
5
Q
Award manual ref?
A
1650
6
Q
Thrift Savings Plan was created is what year?
A
1986
7
Q
Most important category of being eligible for SWE?
A
CO Recommendation? Sat? RPQ’s? or TIS
8
Q
Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquires related to tuition assistance be sent to?
A
ETQC
9
Q
Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?
A
M1500.10, Performance, Training, and Educational Manual
10
Q
Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?
A
ETQC
11
Q
Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT review request guide be found?
A
ETQC Portal Page
12
Q
The Harry Colmery veterans educational assistance act is also called what?
A
Forever GI Bill
13
Q
Post 9-11 GI Bill BAH rate?
A
E-5 with dependants
14
Q
The GI Bill Active Duty provides up to how many months of educational benefits?
A
36
15
Q
What % do veterans recieve in their 6 months of OJT?
A
80%
16
Q
In which of the following cases is Tuition Assistance authorized for?
A
Undergraduate/graduate
17
Q
What program provides developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication and the capactity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard?
A
Advanced Education
18
Q
Who acts as a subject matter expert to assist the Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?
A
ESO
19
Q
What are you 4 firearm safety rules?
A
- Keep your finger off trigger until ready to shoot
- Know your target and whats beyond
- Treat all firearms as if they are loaded
- Always maintain proper muzzle control
20
Q
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E3?
A
Six months as an E2
21
Q
What are the 2 requirements to advance to E4?
A
Six months as an E3 and completion of ALP
22
Q
What are the 2 rates that have no direct path to advancement from E3 to E4?
A
Investigator and Diver
23
Q
Where are “A” School rating requirements listed?
A
EPM2 school newsletter
24
Q
What is the term defined as bad stress?
A
Distress
25
What is the term defined as good stress?
Eustress
26
What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a persons personel stress load?
Stressmap
27
What service provides stress management?
EAPC
28
Which stress management awareness and skills promotes and understanding of stress?
Operational Stress Control
29
How can you contact Employee Assistance Program?
1-855-cgsuprt or www.cgsuprt.com
30
Who is eligible for the office of work-life stress management program?
Active duty, dependants, reservists, and civilian employee
31
5 things you should never do while drinking?
1. Driving
2. Operate Machinery
3. Cleaning Weapon
4. Pregnant
5. Certain Medication
32
Key behaviors for low risk alcohol use to include what model?
0, 1, 2, 3 model
33
Where can you find additional clarification on low risk guidelines for alcohol?
www.rethinkingdrinking.niaaa.nih.gov
34
What is the definition of substance abuse?
The use of a substance by a member, which causes problems of places the member's safety at risk.
35
What is considered substance abuse?
Use of alcohol, prescription drugs, illicit drugs, or anything that gives you a "high".
36
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse, as a persons BAC increases so does what?
Harm Increases
37
Drinking to much over time causes what 4 dieseases?
1. Heart
2. Cancer
3. Liver
4. Other
38
On average how many people die from alcohol a year?
95,000
39
Hold you liquor or having a high tolerance for alcohol means?
Risk for caution or signs of AUD
40
Binge drinking is considered how many drinks for Men/Women
5 Drinks for Men, 4 for Women or > then .08%
41
BAC for slightly impaired?
.08
42
BAC for sloppy drunk?
.16
43
BAC for stupor or blackout?
.30
44
BAC for coma or death?
.40
45
Women face higher ricks of drinking alcohol because?
Less water in the body.
46
How many grams of pure alcohol are in a standard drink?
14
47
BAC for a 150lb male who consumed 3oz of 40% alcohol over one hour.
.09
48
A member diagnosed with the first _____ days of service as drug/alcohol abuse shall be disqualifed for enlistment.
180
49
What would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?
No current prescription (6months) or no verified medical use explanation and fail a urinalysis.
50
Urinalysis is procedure is a means of what?
Analyzing the samples to detect a presence of drugs.
51
What are the 3 consquences of a drug incident?
1. Process for discharge
2. UCMJ
3. Medical Treatment
52
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence with intent to die?
Suicide
53
What term is defined as self inflicted injurous behavior where the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
Self Harm
54
What is term defined as any action, verbal or non verbal, without a direct self injurious component, passive or active in which the person commuincated behavior might account in the near future?
Suicide Threat
55
Self Harm with no injury, what level?
Self Harm Level 1
56
Self Harm with injury, what level?
Self Harm Level 2
57
Self Harm resulting in death, what level?
Self Harm Level 3
58
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviours?
Suicide-related ideations
59
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
Undetermined suicide-related behavior
60
Dismissing _____________________ as manipulation is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
Suicidal Ideations
61
What type of suicide related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide related bahavior?
Suicide Plan
62
What's the acronym/mnemonic for recognzing warning signs associated with suicidal behavior?
IS PATH WARM
63
__________ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.
Asking
64
What may be helpful to lead into a question "are you thinking about killing yourself?"
Statement of observation
65
What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE (Ask, Care, Escort)
66
During which step of the suicide prevention may the at risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
Ask
67
What part of the ACE mnemonic for suicide prevention should you be actively listening?
Care
68
What part of the ACE mnemonic for suicide prevention should you take away anything that could potentially cause harm to the member?
Care
69
When in doubt, care it out.
Care will most likely be the answer on the test when asked ACE questions.
70
What part the ACE mnemonic for suicide where you should expect push back or attitude?
Escort
71
What part of the ACE mnemoic for suide should you escort the member to ER, HCP or mental healthcare?
Escort
72
What should you do if you ask someone if they are thinking about killing themselves and they come back with a joke?
ASK AGAIN!
73
Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
Work-life
74
Most people do not have any syptoms when they have which STD?
Herpes
75
Which is the most reliable way to avoid an STD?
Abstinence
76
Which personnel are required to have a Personal Fitness Plan?
Active Duty and SELRES
77
When must your personal fitness plan be submitted?
Oct and April
78
The most current personal fitness plan must be kept on file by who?
Member or Supervisor
79
What are the recommended hours of aerobic activities per week?
2.5 Hours
80
What is the recommended days of muscle strengthening activities per week?
2 or more days
81
What is the required minutes a week that active duty personal must engage in physical fitness?
180 minutes
82
What is the recommended minutes a week for cardio?
150 minutes
83
What is the recommended minutes a week for strength training?
30 minutes
84
What is the minimum time required for a work out to be beneficial?
10 minutes
85
Physical actvitiy sessions should be spread out over or at least how many days per week?
3 days
86
Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a __________ level of intensity?
Medium to vigorous
87
According the the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level intensity?
Moderate
88
What is the form # for the personal fitness plan?
CG-6049
89
Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve ______________?
The acceptance of some level of risk
90
What is the acronym for the 7 critical human factors that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps if not managed?
CALFS MSD
91
What provides framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?
Risk Managament Process
92
What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time critcal risk management requirement, and expedite rsponse actions?
GAR 2.0
93
When is risk management most effective?
When hazards are identified early
94
Since all Coast Guard missions and operating enviroments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is _________________?
Continous and Adaptive
95
Where are the steps of the risk management described?
Risk Management Fundamentals
96
What are units encouraged to use conduct "what can go wrong" analysis on an as-needed basis, when new missions/activities are introduced to the unit?
Risk Assessment Matrix
97
What is a function of physiological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?
Crew Endurance
98
Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to _______?
Address unique operational realities
99
Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?
PEACE/STAAR
100
What is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard?
Risk
101
What is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity?
Risk Management
102
How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the Risk Management process?
3
103
What model is used to indentify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?
PEACE
104
What risk assessment should units perform at the start of each day?
GAR 2.0
105
At a minimum, units must include all elements of which model in their GAR 2.0?
PEACE
106
What model outlines potential strategies to mitigate and/or control risk?
STAAR
107
Who determines whether a particular government motor vehicle is for offical purposes?
CO/OIC
108
When are CG owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spouses and dependents?
Workplace to official function which they were invited
109
What are the 6 reasons you would be allowed to use a Government Vehicle?
1. Official purposes
2. Ceremonies
3. Non-CG employee in official capacity
4. Spouse with member
5. Recruits
6. Official Travel
110
What are you required to have to operate a GV?
Current Drivers License
111
How many hours must you wait AFTER standing duty in order to drive long distance?
8 hours
112
Members must not exceed _____ hours of combined duty and driving in a 24 hour period?
14 hours
113
Which form is used to report accidents involving a GV?
SF91
114
Personnel convicted of a serious moving violation operating a GMV, must take what course?
Complete Driver Improvement Course
115
What term is defined as the process involved in managing one's personal finances?
Personal Financial Management?
116
The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances?
Personal Financial Readiness
117
What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individuals or familys income recommending short or long term actions to achieve finacial goals?
Financial planning and counseling
118
The personal financial management program has how many elements/steps?
7
119
How many members at a unit must you have to require a trained command financial specialist?
25 members
120
What is the early withdraw penalty tax for the Thrift Savings Plan?
10%
121
If your personal data in CGBI needs corrections, what do you select on that webpage?
Blue "Get more information" icon
122
What is comprised of designated members who execute the enlisted evaluation report process for enlisted members?
Rating Chain
123
The new period of eligbility from a Good Conduct Award begins when?
The day after the effective date of EER
124
The recommendation for advancement portion on the evaluation report may not be what?
May not be appealed to an appeal authority
125
Who is normally the appeal authority for an EER?
First Flag Officer
126
What are the 2 common barriers to effective communication?
External and Perceptual
127
How can you overcome the common barriers to effective communication?
Practice Active Listening
128
What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?
Parroting, paraphrasing, clarifying
129
What is one type of listening for effective communication?
Active Listening
130
What is the acronym for giving feedback?
BFDFFC
131
The anticipated level of expertise for followership is shared by which responsibility?
Level 5 MCPOCG/CMC
132
What is the Coast Guard's definition of leadership?
The ability to influence others to obtain their obedience, respect, confidence, and loyal cooperation.
133
The Coast Guard leadership development framework consists of how many components?
3
134
How many leadership competencys are there?
28
135
How do you access and view your payslip?
View My Payslips
136
What dependent information in the payslip is important for eligibility to receive benefits?
Date of Birth
137
Which block of the payslip contains a member's basic pay?
Earnings
138
What information can be found in the tax data section of their payslip?
Marital Status and Allowances
139
In which section of your payslip can you validate whether or not you are receiving the correct pay and/or allowances?
Middle Section
140
Which information can be found in the bottom section of the payslip?
YTD Wages and Taxes. Leave and net pay distribution
141
What information is found in the net pay distribution block of the payslips?
Direct Deposit info
142
Which section of the payslip will show information unique to each member?
Remarks Section
143
How many paces to not render a salute?
6 paces
144
You must render salutes to which 4 groups?
1. US Armed Forces
2. NOAA
3. Public Health Service
4. Foreign Armed Services
145
What do you do if the National Anthem is played and you are in your car?
Stop Vehicle, Remained Seated at attention
146
When are salutes rendered by a person in a vehicle?
Driver never salutes, passenger must salute
147
When in civilian attire at a parade, when the flad passes you shall?
Stand at Attention
148
The code of the conduct is an ethical guide for members of the armed forces that has ______ articles.
6
149
All members of the armed forces of the US are expected to meaure up to the standards embodied in the code of conduct while in ________ or _________?
combat or captivity
150
The national terrorism advisory (NTAS) consists of how many types of advisories?
2
151
Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
Bravo
152
Which FPCON requires the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?
Bravo
153
Which FPCON applies when the general threat of possible terroritst activiy exists but warrants only routine security posture?
Normal
154
Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?
Alpha
155
Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards?
Charlie
156
Which type of PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required?
Sterns model 1600
157
Boat characteristics include which 2 types of frames?
Transverse and Longitudinal
158
Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair to what length?
1/4"
159
Which grooming standard applies to moustaches?
1. Neatly Groomed
2. Clean Shaven
3. Not extend below the top of upper lip or beyond corner of the mouth
160
Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel diagnosed with PFB
CO/OIC if diagnosed by medical
161
The USCG celebrates it's birthday on?
4th of August
162
The revenue cutter service began with ____ cutters at a cost of 1000$ each.
10
163
In 1838 congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?
The Steamboat inspection service
164
The first time that a federal agency was specficially tasked with looking for people in danger was in ______ when the revenue cutter gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast.
1831
165
The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and the Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?
28 Jan 1915
166
When did the Coast Guard transfer to the Department of Transportation?
01 Apr 1967
167
When did the Coast Guard transfer to the Department of Homeland Security?
01 Mar 03
168
Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first what?
Seretary of Treasury
169
Who was the Coast Guards first aviator?
Elmer Stone
170
Who was the first commandant of the Coast Guard?
Ellsworth Bertholf
171
On June 19th, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the what?
United States Revenue Cutter Service
172
Who was our only Medal of Honor recipient?
Douglas Monroe
173
Where did SM1 Douglas Monroe aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?
Point Cruz, Guadalcanal
174
What vessel is credited with firing the first navel shot of the Civil War?
Harriet Lane
175
What cutter was sunken by a German U-Boat
Tampa
176
Captain of the port duties were assigned to the Coast Guard during which military war?
WW1
177
During WW1, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?
6
178
During World War 2, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?
Captain Quentin Walsh
179
Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-day?
Captain Quentin Walsh
180
During Vietnam, the Coast Guard conducted __________________, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong?
Operation Market Time
181
During Vietnam, how many point class patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maratime interdiction operations?
26
182
Where did Coast Guard Port Security units deploy in 1990-1991?
Persian Gulf
183
What year was hurricane Katrina?
2005
184
What terrorist attacked had over 2,700 reservists since WW2?
9/11
185
How many days did oil spill into the gulf during deep water horizion?
87 days (year Jess was born)
186
What awards did DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal recieve?
Bronze Star and Purple Heart
187
Who served as a boarding officer on the USS Firebolt in Iraq where he was mortally wounded?
Nathan Bruckenthal
188
How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?
26
189
The Coast Guard ensign consists of how many stripes?
16
190
On Aug 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issues an order specifying the design of the what?
Coast Guard Ensign
191
During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard adorned with ___________________?
43 battle streamers
192
The design of __________________ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early Jack.
Coast Guard Standard
193
The ______________________ is in the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign?
Coast Guard Standard
194
The flag is used during parades and ceremonies?
Coast Guard Standard
195
What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?
Battle Streamers
196
Battle streamers are attached to the _______________, replacing cords and tassels.
Coast Guard Standard
197
Individual units may only display those _________________ that they have earned.
Battle Streamers
198
Only __________________ units may display a complete set of battle streamers.
Major Headquarters
199
The Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the ____________________?
US Marine Corps
200
The _________ is the canton of the United States Flag.
Union Jack
201
The presence of what is on a cutter that is under the command of a commissioned officer?
Commissioned Officer
202
The _________ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings?
CG Seal
203
The ________ is used on documents and records of the Coast Guard?
CG Seal
204
The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by treasury secretary Andrew W. Mellon in what year?
1927
205
The Coast Guard ____________________________________ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957
CG Emblem
206
The historical significance of the Coast Guard ___________ dates back to the revenue cutter service?
Shield
207
What degree is the Coast Guard stripe?
64 degrees
208
The ___________ was developed in the 1960's by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.
CG Stripe
209
When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?
21 May 1897
210
The earliest recorded use of the phrase "Semper Paratus" appeared in a newspaper article in the city of?
New Orleans
211
What language did semper paratus originate?
Latin
212
The music for semper paratus was written by?
Captain Francis Boskerk
213
What must be readily available to workers in an area that has risk of exposure to HAZMAT?
SDS
214
If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?
Manufacturer
215
The standard GHS format for a safety data sheet includes how many sections in specfied order?
16
216
GHS provides a standard for the content, layout, and presentation of the _________________?
Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
217
What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badge assignment tour length?
2 years
218
Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSEL's except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?
O6 or higher
219
What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are reassigned?
Relocation assistance program
220
Who can provide you with the community information, demographics information, relocation packages, and state information when you are reassigned?
Transition/Relocation managers
221
Transition/Relocation managers may provide ____________ with local resource information?
Welcome Packages
222
How should you contact your transition/relocation manager?
Contact TRM in the work-life office at your receiving unit
223
Your ____________ can help you utilize the office of work-life adoption reimbursement program?
Family resource specialist
224
Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship program?
FRS
225
What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs to the special needs program?
DD Form 2792
226
What is the title for staff members at health, safety, and work-life regional practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?
Family Advocacy specialist
227
One purpose of the family advocacy program is to _______________?
Address prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of a partner or child
228
CGSUPRT is part of HSWL's ____________?
Office of work-life
229
What's the phone number members can call 24's hours a day, 365 days a year to speak with an experianced and highly trained counselor?
855-CGSUPRT
230
What is designed to capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members performance, so the Coast Guard can advance and assign them with a high degree of confidence?
EES
231
What has been designed to inform enlisted members of the performance standards against which they are measured?
EES
232
What has been designed to provide information abour discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility, and reductions in pay grade?
EES
233
What is the COMDTINST for EES?
M1000.2
234
What are the months for marking periods starting with E-1?
1. E-1 = Jan / July
2. E-2 = Jan / July
3. E-3 = Feb / Aug
4. E-4 = Mar / Sept
5. E-5 = Apr / Oct
235
The evaluee must perform which of the following within the EES? What's my dumbass acronym?
FVAPE (Fuck Vape)
236
When do you need to provide evaulation input for your EER?
When required by rating chain
237
What is done with the completed original EER counseling sheet?
Provide to evaluee
238
Your signature on the member's signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledge of what 4 things?
1. Counseling and review
2. Impact of EER on good conduct
3. Appeal Time Frame
4. Advancement potential
CIAA!
239
The marking official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later then ________ days after the evaluation report period ending date?
5 days
240
Who is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistantly through the period?
AO (Approving Officer)
241
What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?
Conduct
242
What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the Coast Guard evaluates its enlisted members called?
Competencies
243
Which factor type in an EER measures the members ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions?
Military
244
Which factor type in the EER measures ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?
Leadership
245
Performance standards are in the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of ____, ____, and ______ in each competency?
2, 4, and 6
246
If a member receives an unsatisfactory conduct mark on their EER, it will negatively impact their? What 3 things?
1. Advancement
2. Change in Rating
3. Participation in SWE
247
Appeals to the approving official decision on the advancement recommendation _________?
May not be appealed
248
What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations?
Ready, Not Ready, Not Recommended
249
What must occur when a member does not receive an advancement recommendation?
Counsel evaluee and steps to earn recommendation and prepare comments
250
What are the 4 things why a member might appeal his/her marks?
1. Incorrect Information
2. Prejudice
3. Discrimination
4. Disproportionate
251
What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?
Specific competencies in dispute and supporting information
252
What responsibility does the member have in their EER apeal process?
1. Request Audience
2. Written appeal, appeal letter
3. Submission Deadline
253
As a result of an EER appeal, what actions may an approving official take?
Raise or leave marks unchanged
254
What is the deadline for active duty members to submit an appeal for their EER?
15 Calendar Days
255
What is the deadline for reservists to submit an appeal for their EER?
45 Calendar Days
256
Whats the form number for EER's?
3788A-G
257
The discipline and conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of?
Hazing
258
What COMDTINST is hazing in?
M1600.2, Discipline and Conduct
259
Which directive requires a commanding officer to "prohibit unit introductory initiations or hazing of personnel?
USCG Regulation m5000.3
260
Subjecting a military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of "inclusion" is defined as?
Hazing
261
What are the 4 interpersonal relationships that are prohibited in the USCG?
1. Sexual Behavior on vessel
2. Romantic relationship between officer and enlisted
3. Romantic relationship between instructor and students
4. Romantic relationship with recruiters and recruits
262
Officers and enlisted instructors at entry level accession programs must wait how many days to have relationships with someone who just graduated or attended an entry level accession program?
365 days
263
A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member are prohibited until what point?
365 days
264
Violating policy on limited personal use of government office equipment and services in punishable under which article of the UCMJ?
Article 92
265
What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?
10$
266
Where are the deadlines for personal data extracts (PDE) verifications and corrections provided?
General SWE Messages
267
On your personal data extract, time in rating and time in service are computed to what point?
TED (Terminal Eligibility Date)
268
On your personal data extract, award points are earn up to what point?
SED (Service Eligibility Date)
269
Sea time points on a PDE are calculated at what rate?
2 points per year, .166 per month
269
Sea time points on a PDE are calculated at what rate?
2 points per year, .166 per month
270
On your PDE you will receive credit for all surf/sea/award points for your first advancement on or after what date?
01 Jan 2010
271
What should you do if you find errors on your PDE?
Note them on a printed copy, sign it, submit to Admin
272
What should you do after ranking positions in order of preferences on your E-Resume?
Click Return to previous page
273
Once you have chosen all desired job basket boxes for an E-resume, what should be your next step?
Click save to job basket
274
You have submitted an E-resume but immediately notice that the job ranking preferences are incorrect. How should you make corrections?
One submission per day, update next day and submit
275
You have submitted an incorrect E-Reumse in DA. What can you do to delete your E-resume?
You cannot delete it
276
What is the form number for the Enlisted Individual Plan (IDP)?
CG-5357 (You managed 35 non rates, flip the 35) +3 to get the 57.
277
An IDP is?
A tool to facilitate a conversation that a supervisor, and mentored if desired, uses to discuss professional and personal goals.
278
An IDP isn't what?
A perfomance evaluation method.
279
First term enlistments must submit an IDP within how many days of reporting to their unit?
30 days
280
What does analysis data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps?
Lack of deliberate and systemic RM during preperation, planning, and execution of operations and activities.
281
What does the risk management process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?
Effective teamwork and communication
282
What is the foundation of the Risk Management (RM) process?
Hazard Identification
283
What model is used if time is limited and your cannot perform a thorough analysis?
PEACE Model
284
In the first step of the risk managament process cycle, "why"analysis is used in what action?
Action 3
285
How is risk defined within the risk management?
The possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard
286
Which of the following is a risk assessment pitfall?
Over Optimism
287
Develop controls is the first action in which step of the risk management process?
Step 3
288
Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task, to another individual, unit or platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using the ____________ approach?
Transfer
289
The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?
Spread out
290
What is the control option used for specific risks by "going around" them or doing the mission or task in a different way?
Avoid
291
Within the risk management process, which type of control that can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk?
1. Engineering
2. Physical
3. Admin
4. Educational
5. Operational
292
What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?
STAAR
293
What is the first choice in the standard of order of precedence for risk managament?
To first use design and engineering solutions to achieve minimum risk
294
In which step of the risk management process cycle does a member establish accountability?
Step 4, implement controls
295
Which of the following is an action in step 4 of the risk management process?
Make implementation clear, establish accountability, provide support
296
Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall RM process?
Step 5, Supervise and evaluate
297
How many actions are there in the last step of the RM Process?
3
298
In step 5 of the RM process, ensure changes requiring further RM are identified, is part of which action?
Action 1, Monitor
299
In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?
Feedback
300
Coast Guard leaders communicate effectively in which of the following ways?
Formal and Informal Settings
301
What is a trait for Coast Guard leaders within the effective communications competency?
Good listener
302
Whic element of successful leaders is associated with the leadership competency "Taking care of people"?
Identify others needs an abilities in the Coast Guard
303
Which leadership competency is being displayed by a first line supervisor who coaches others and provides sound, thoughtful advice?
Mentoring
304
What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?
Define the conflict
305
What is the third stage of conflict?
Escalation?
306
What is a characteristic of the escalation stage of conflict?
Increasingly Aggressive
307
What is the first stage of conflict escalation?
Disagreement
308
Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive?
Stage 3 escalation
309
Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without escalating?
Stage 4 De-Escalation
310
The Coast Guard's preferred style of conflict management is _______________________?
Collaborating (Stop, collaborate and listen).
311
In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other persons desires.
Competing
312
In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.
Accommodating
313
In this conflict managment style, each person makes a sacrafice so that both parties get part of what they want.
Compromising
314
What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?
Facilitate a resolution
315
On the SDB jacket, what angle is the service stripe?
45 Degrees
316
What color is the service stripe on the SDB Jacket for an E-7?
Gold
317
What color is the service stripe on the SDB Jacket for an E-4?
Scarlet
318
What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie?
Double Windsor
319
When wearing the women's overblouse with the SDB, the bottom of the overblouse shall?
Not be visable under the SDB Coat
320
What does the women's long sleeve light blue shirt have?
2 button cuff closure
321
What is the only alteration that is authorized for the light blue shirt?
Shortening of the sleeve for a better fit
322
Commands may prohibit the wear of which type of blue crew neck t-shirt in spaces subject to intense heat or fire?
Moisture wicking T-shirt
323
What is required for wear with all uniforms?
Undershirts with quarter length sleeves
324
What shirt(s) are women authorized to wear with the tropical blue short sleeve uniform?
Women's shirt, Men's shirt, overblouse
325
When wearing the tropical blue short sleeve uniform, men are required to wear what?
Men's shirt, oxfords
326
When wearing the tropical blue short sleeve, what footwear is authorized for women wearing slacks?
Oxford pumps or flats
327
What head gear is authorized for wear with the tropical blue LONG sleeve uniform?
Combination or Garrison
328
What is not autorized to wear with the tropical blue LONG sleeve uniform?
Ribbons
329
Oxfords are not authorized when ___________?
When skirt is worn
330
The women's shirt and women's slacks align with the belt so that the ______________?
Belt clip end face to the wearers right
331
In all cases, the non-tab edge of the black belt with brass tip must align with the __________?
Fly
332
Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB Jacket?
Prior Service insignia that exceeds margins of pocket flap
333
What is an authorized color for the sunglasses frames?
Conservative, unadorned black, navy blue, gold or silver wire
334
You can wear a maximum of how many rings per hand?
1
335
What are prohibited colors of watches?
Diamond covered, neon, white, bright colors
336
According to the Coast Guard, fitness trackers are classified as?
Watches
337
Rings are on not authorized on?
Thumbs
338
What is correct for the isignia on the garrision cover when worn by enlisted memebers?
Same design as collar insignia
339
What is correct for an E-9 wearing the garrison cover
Anchor is approx 1-3/8" high
340
While wearing the light blue shirt, collar isignia are centered between the visable top and bottom collar edges & ______________?
Ceter of device is 1" an parallel from leading edge
341
When wearing the tropical blue LONG sleeve uniform, _______________ will be worn over the wearer's left pocket?
One full size insignia/ribbons
342
When wearing the tropical blue LONG sleeve uniform, ________ will be worn over the wearer's right pocket?
Nametag
343
While conducting a uniform inspection and notice a member's ribbons are out of order, what manual do you reference them too?
M1650.25 Military Medals and Awards
344
Which military award has the highest precedence?
Medal of Honor
345
How do you access the Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI)?
CGBI.osc.uscg.mil
346
What level of compliance does a yellow color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Approaching limits of standard
347
What level of compliance does an orange color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Not currently compliant
348
What level of compliance does a green color indicator within GCBI indicate?
Within standard
349
What a tool to assure compliance with 29 CFR 1960, and to keep the workplace free of serious recognized hazards?
Unit/Workplace safety and health inspections
350
How do you submit a Coast Guard Employee Hazard report form?
Anonymous to Command
351
How long must CG-113 assurance assessments be retained?
Until corrected and at least 5 years following end of calendar year
352
What is the minimum frequency for formal occupational safety and enviromental health inspections for all work areas?
Annually
353
What is the purpose of form CG-4903?
Employee Hazard Report Form
354
How many administrative remarks entry types are there?
9
355
A member has requested to be removed voluntarily from the advancement list. Which CG-3307 template would you use?
AR-04
356
You have been directed to prepare a CG-3307 to document counseling for inappropriate relationships. Which template would you use?
PD-12
357
What template would you use to prepare a General Negative CG-3307?
PD-07
358
If a member is not available for signature on a CG-3307, you should?
State and Include reasons
359
What should you do if a member refuses to sign a CG-3307?
Refer to members CO, seek guidance from legal or CG-1221
360
Where are copies of all form CG-3307 sent for electronic imaging into the IPDR?
PSC
361
What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict?
Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person?
362
What stage of conflict is it when members actually make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of a better solution.
Stage 2 Confrontation
363
In which stage of conflict should peers look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties?
Stage 3 Escalation
364
What is the final stage of conflict?
Stage 5 Resolution
365
What training code direct PDC's to ensure members can complete an EPQ or RPQ correctly without assistance, prompting or the use of any job or memory aid?
Train to Memory
366
When writing an internal command memo requiring command visibility, ___________ lines may be used.
No limit
367
What is the primary means of formalized correspondence to communicate both within the Coast Guard and within the framework of the federal government?
Coast Guard Memorandum
368
Where is the SSIC placed on a memorandum?
Each page, above date
369
Where does the signing official place his/her signature on a memo?
On the form line, above name
370
Every memo must include what?
Date
371
What is used to comment on a memorandum in routing?
An endorsement
372
When are "thru" lines used on a memo?
1. One or more offices or units must see the memo
2. Writing internal command memo requiring chain of command visibility
373
What is placed centered two lines below the last paragraph to indicate the end of the memo?
#
374
Where can the precise title and staff symbol to include on a memo be found?
Standard Distribution List (SDL)
375
During a meeting, who is required to stay out of content discussion?
The Scribe
376
During a meeting, who has resonsibility to capture information as accurately as possible so that non-attendees can follow the group's train of thought?
Recorder
377
What is responsibility of a time keeper in a meeting?
Keep track of time, notifies group when allocated times are up
378
What is the responsibility of a participant in a meeting?
Giving input, ideas, opinions, listens to others, clarifies, uses good team process skills
379
What is a common team member role assigned during a meeting?
Timekeeper, scribe, recorder, co-facilitator, participant, subject matter expert
380
Time spent planning your meeting will ensure _________?
A better outcome
381
Which step of meeting facilitation are ground rules estalished?
3
382
Which step in meeting facilitation involves describing how the meeting will be run, and how decisions will be made?
Establish ground rules
383
When should the parking lot items from a meeting be discussed?
Discuss/resolve these items at the end of a session
384
What is a parking lot within the context of meeting facilitation?
Where issues that are important but not relevant to the topic
385
What is another form of parking lot or board?
Parking lot is separated into different parking boards labeled issues, decisions, and actions.
386
After a meeting, action plans should be broken down into manageable chunks that require less that how many hours to complete?
Less that 80 hrs
387
Consensus discussions are part of what step in facilitating a meeting?
Evaluate the meeting
388
The round robin process is part of what step in meeting faciliation?
Evaluate the meeting
389
What type of meeting evaluation process involves making a chart?
Plus/Delta
390
How many types of meeting evaluation processes are there during the Evaluate the Meeting phase?
4
391
Who has appeal authority for any annual or semi-annual evaluation report?
First Flag Officer
392
Who is responsible for timely processing of an EER so that it may be reviewed by an evaluee no later than 30 days following the report period?
Approving Official
393
How well the supervisor clearly communicates the member's past performance and methods in which to improve are primary to ____________________?
ensuring future success
394
How many days does a supervisor have to counsel an active duty evaluee after the end of the evaluation period ending date?
30 days
395
An IDP is required/mandatory for who?
First term enlisted and junior officers
396
Where is IDP counseling documented?
At unit level. Individual maintains a copy
397
The individual citation for the Meritorious Service Medal and below (not including the LOC) will be prepared in what format?
Landscape and body may not exceed 12 lines
398
Requests for exceptions to policy for awards will be?
Memo forwarded to CG PSC-PSD-ma
399
Where can you find examples in writing a citation for a member
Medals and Awards manual exclosures
400
Which mobile app can you refer members to for information about the Coast Guard support programs and services to members and their families.
HSWL Mobile App (USCG HSWL)
401
Which office of work-life program is responsible for ensuring that necessary financial information and resources are available to Coast Guard and their family members?
Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)
402
Where can you access a comprehensive list of recovery assistance resources for sexual assault survivors?
SAPRR (SAPPPRRRRR) at the bottom of the webpage
403
Which office of work-life program can you refer members to who are seeking a business opportunity for their spouse by providing child care in a home environment?
Family Child Care (FCC)
404
At which office of work likfe program site can you find a list of EAPC's
Critical Incidents Stress Response Program
405
Which health, safety, and work life staff has the overall objective to support the well being of active duty, reserve, and civilian employees and family members?
USCG Work Life
406
Which office of work life program site offers information on psychological first aid?
Critical Incident stress response program
407
Which office of work life program site allows you to download the ACE card?
Suicide prevention program (Ask, Care, Escort)
408
Which work life program site offers a link to download parental leave policy flyers?
Parent Resources
409
Where can you find information on the Ombudsman Prgram, which has served as a vital link between the Coast Guard Commands and families?
Ombudsman Program Overview
410
What is the purpose of the Sea Legs, found at the work life site?
Smooth the transition into military life
411
What is the national Suicide Prevention Lifeline phone #?
1-800-273-TALK
412
What acronym should you use to respond to a member who is contemplating suicide?
ACE
413
What are members of the Substance Abuse Prevention Team called?
Substance Abuse Prevention Specialist (SAPS)
414
Scholarships and school liason programs within the office of work life (CG-111) are located under which dropdown tab?
Family Support
415
Discussions of individuals personal finances with personal financial manager are ________________________?
Confidential
416
You can download a PDF version to provide members with the SAPRR program's "How do I report a Sexual Assault"? From what source?
HSWL Office of Work-Life CG-111
417
What program can you refer members to improve communications between the command and coast guard family members?
Ombudsman program overview
418
Where can you refer members for information about child care?
Child Development Services (CDC/FRS)
419
How can you view information for Nicotine Replacement Therapy provided to Tricare beneficiaries?
UCANQuit2 (Live Chat)
420
What can you provide to members requesting information about self-referrals and seeking treatment for substance abuse?
SAPPM, SAPT, or regional work life staff
421
Which office of work-life program site offers the coast guard nutrition video series by LCCDR Trocchio?
Personal Wellness (CG-111)
422
The unit health promotion resources site provides a link to which directive, which includes physical fitness responsibilities for CG AD and SELRES personnel?
CODINST M6200.1E
423
The health promotion encourages members to utilize tobacco cessation services available at what website?
www.UCanQuit2.org
424
It is Coast Guard policy to _______ tobacco products?
Discourage the use
425
What would be the minimum # of victim advocates assigned to a unit with 250 members?
3
426
What would you be able to provide to members who ask what work-life resources are available for spouses?
Employee Assistance Program (EAP) - CG Support
427
Which work-life program offers telephonic assistance for financial and legal concerns?
CG Support
428
Other uniformed service members that serve with the Coast Guard or are using Coast Guard facilities should be referred to __________ if they have a family member who may be at risk of suicide?
Suicide prevention program
429
Sexual Assault is defined as ____________, characterized by the use of force, threats, intimidation, abuse of authority, or when the victim does not or cannot consent?
Intentional Sexual Contact
430
The _______ states that leaders manage and champion organizational change?
Leading performance and change category
431
Which category of the leadership competencies states, "leaders are able to envision a preferred future for their units and factions, setting this picture in the context of the Coast Guards overall vision, missions, strategy, and driving forces?"
Leading performance and change
432
A _________ consisely and accurately identifies an issue needing to be studied, understood, or bought to the attention of the next higher authority in your chain of command.
Problem Statement
433
What types of cost data should a manager gather in order to make an effective argument for a policy change?
Excessive cost data
434
________ is necessary to reduce extra workload and person-hours incurred by the implementation of a policy?
Reassessment
435
Developing policy requires in-depth examination of the problem, and establish of ________, which when followed, will lead to the desired improvements or changes to the existing policy?
Succinct Steps
436
When communicating with program managers to effect change, it is important to give complete and accurate ________?
Data and information
437
In order to make an effective arguement for change, managers must _________ with others?
Collaborate
438
In reviewing current unit and coast guard policy, there are ________ points managers need to do, in order to make an effective arguement for change?
7
439
In order to make an effective argument for policy change, managers must ________ and obtain as much data as possible?
Collaborate with others
440
The process of effecting policy change involves how many steps?
9
441
While our instinct is to describe the changes needed in order to make things better, managers need data and other information to ___________ the positive changes.
Sell
442
With any new or changed policy, the issue of _________ to accomplish the mission becomes paramount.
Resources necessary
443
While presenting policy draft recommendations, the person presenting the arguement should also point out the _________ if new or changed policy does NOT occur?
Resources expended
444
When bringing a problem to a decision maker, you should be prepared to present what?
Possible Solution
445
Which step in the process of effecting change includes "market to the right audience"?
Step 4
446
Each new policy has an? In regards to Developing a unit level policy?
Originating Authority
447
The basis for creating new policy is a?
Problem statement
448
Who cannot issue a directive?
Any one under CO/OIC
449
To build support for a proposal for a new or changed policy, stakeholders should understand the positive impacts of _____________?
The new or changed policy
450
Who is the program manager for all new Coast Guard wide directives and policy?
Commandant
451
In regards to implementation of policy changes, what is the process to request resources in future fiscal years?
Resource proposal process
452
COMDINST M5215.6 is what?
Promulgation and implementation of policy
453
When socializing potential changes the ___________ must sell new policy and changes to current policy?
Program Managers
454
An ____________ is each commands tool to establish procedures and processes to be followed to carry out command and Coast Guard policy?
SOP
455
Implementation of change or new policy could be slowed or stopped in significant barriers to _________ are evident and not halted?
Change or resistance
456
What type of analysis is used to identify strengths of the change, verses threats pushing against the change implementation?
A SWOT analysis
457
To mitigate resistance/barriers to change, generate a ________ diagramming factors, stakeholders, and risk associated with the barriers to the change?
Force-Field analysis
