Management Of Poisoned Patient Flashcards

(129 cards)

1
Q

Denotes the altered pharmacodynamics of a drug when given in toxic dosage, since normal receptors and effector’s mechanisms may be altered.

A

Toxicodynamics

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2
Q

applied to the pharmacokinetics of toxic doses of chemicals, since the toxic effects of an agent may alter normal mechanisms for absorption, metabolism or excretion of a foreign material

A

Toxicokinetics

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3
Q

apparent volume into which a substance is distributed

A

Volume of Distribution (Vd)

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4
Q

A large VD implies that the drug is ___________ accessible to measures aimed at purifying the blood, such as hemodialysis

A

not readily

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5
Q

Drugs with large volumes of distribution

A

PANAVA
1. Antidepressants
2. Antimalarials
3. Narcotics
4. Propranolol
5. Antipsychotics
6. Verapamil

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6
Q

Drugs with relatively small volumes of distribution

A
  1. Salicylate
  2. Phenobarbital
  3. Lithium
  4. Valproic Acid
  5. Warfarin
  6. Phenytoin
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7
Q

a measure of the volume of plasma that is cleared of drug per unit time

A

Clearance

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8
Q

the sum of clearances by excretion by the kidneys and metabolism by the liver

A

Total clearance

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9
Q

Cardiovascular toxicity

A

● Hypotension
● Peripheral Vascular Collapse
● Lethal arrhythmia

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10
Q

Comatose patients frequently lose their ____________ and their ____________.

A

airway protective reflexes & respiratory drive

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11
Q

occurs in spite of adequate ventilation and oxygen administration

A

Cellular hypoxia

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12
Q

Signs and symptoms of Hypoxia

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Severe Lactic Acidosis
  4. Signs of Ischemia on the ECG
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13
Q

Drugs that can often cause seizures

A
  1. Antidepressants
  2. Theophylline
  3. Isoniazid (INH)
  4. Diphenhydramine
  5. Antipsychotics
  6. Cocaine
  7. Amphetamines
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14
Q

Decrease Blood Volume

A

Hypovolemia

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15
Q

Drugs/substances that cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

Paraquat, Bleomycin, Amiodarone

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16
Q

Massive hepatic necrosis due to poisoning by ____________ or ________________

A

acetaminophen or certain mushrooms

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17
Q

Massive hepatic necrosis due to poisoning by acetaminophen or certain mushrooms results in

A

hepatic encephalopathy

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18
Q

Massive hepatic necrosis due to poisoning by acetaminophen or certain mushrooms results in hepatic encephalopathy and death _________ hours or longer after ingestion.

A

48–72

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19
Q

Intoxication with alcohol and other sedative-hypnotic drugs is a frequent contributing factor to

A

motor vehicle accidents

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20
Q

Most common factor contributing to death from drug overdosed is usually caused by a problem in

A

Airway

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21
Q

Patients under the influence of ________, such as phencyclidine (PCP) or LSD may die in fights or fall from high places.

A

hallucinogens

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22
Q

AIRWAY Obstruction is caused by:

A

flaccid tongue, pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents, or respiratory arrest

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23
Q

For many patients, simple positioning in the __________________ position is sufficient to move the flaccid tongue out of the airway

A

lateral decubitus

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24
Q

Ideal position for a patient with obstruct airway

A

lateral decubitus

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25
Two routes for endotracheal intubation:
Nasotracheal intubation & Orotracheal intubation
26
A soft, flexible tube is passed through the nose and into the trachea.
Nasotracheal intubation
27
The tube is passed through the mouth into the trachea.
Orotracheal intubation
28
What technique is used in using Nasotracheal intubation?
Blind technique
29
Orotracheal intubation is done under ___________ vision
Direct
30
May be performed in a conscious patient without requiring neuromuscular paralysis.
Nasotracheal intubation
31
Once placed, it is better tolerated than an orotracheal tube.
Nasotracheal intubation
32
Disadvantages of Nasotracheal intubation
1. Perforation of the nasal mucosa, with epistaxis. 2. Stimulation of vomiting in an obtunded patient. 3. Patient must be breathing spontaneously. 4. Anatomically more difficult in infants because of anterior epiglottis.
33
Performed under direct vision, making accidental esophageal intubation unlikely.
Orotracheal intubation
34
Insignificant risk of bleeding.
Orotracheal intubation
35
Patient need not be breathing spontaneously.
Orotracheal intubation
36
Higher success rate than that with nasotracheal route.
Orotracheal intubation
37
Disadvantages of Orotracheal intubation
1. Frequently requires neuromuscular paralysis, creating a risk of fatal respiratory arrest if intubation is unsuccessful. 2. Requires neck manipulation, which may cause spinal cord injury after neck trauma.
38
major cause of morbidity and death in patients with poisoning or drug overdose
Breathing difficulties
39
Complications in breathing:
ventilatory failure, hypoxia, bronchospasm
40
The ____________ should be cleared of vomitus or any other obstruction.
airway
41
Medical term for nosebleed
Epistaxis
42
Done to unconscious or paralyzed patients
Orotracheal intubation
43
measures the degree of oxygen saturation
Oximeter
44
Breathing should be assessed by observation and oximetry and, if in doubt, by measuring _____________________.
arterial blood gases
45
Breathing Treatment
• correct hypoxia • treat pneumonia • treat bronchospasm
46
If carbon monoxide poisoning is suspected, give _______
100% oxygen
47
For beta blocker-induced wheezing
Aminophylline, 6 mg/kg IV over 30 minutes
48
For patients with bronchospasm and bronchorrhea caused by organophosphate or other anticholinesterase poisoning, give
Atropine
49
The circulation should be assessed by continuous monitoring of the following:
1. pulse rate 2. blood pressure 3. urinary output 4. evaluation of peripheral perfusion
50
number of heartbeats per minute
Pulse rate
51
Normal pulse rate
60-100 bpm
52
measure of the force that the heart uses to pump blood around the body
Blood pressure
53
Average urination per day
6-7
54
An intravenous line should be placed and blood drawn for ____________ and other routine determinations.
serum glucose
55
Normal BP
<120mmHg and <80mmHg
56
Elevated BP
120-129mmHg and <80mmHg
57
HTN stage 1
130-139mmHg or 80-89mmHg
58
HTN stage 2
140mmHg or higher or 90mmHg or higher
59
Hypertensive crisis BP
>180 and/or >120
60
What blood sugar level is required to give concentrated dextrose?
70mg/dL and below
61
Normal blood sugar level for non-diabetic person
80-100 mg/dL
62
Normal blood sugar level for diabetic person
100-120 mg/dL
63
Adults are given of how many g of dextrose?
25 g (50 mL of 50% dextrose solution) IV
64
Children are given of how many g of dextrose?
0.5 g/kg (2 mL/kg of 25% dextrose)
65
Alcoholic or malnourished patients should also receive ________________ or in the IV infusion solution at this time to prevent Wernicke's syndrome.
100 mg of thiamine IM
66
Thiamine deficiency
Wernicke's syndrome
67
Opioid antagonist
Naloxone, Naltrexone
68
The opioid antagonist naloxone may be given in a dose of
0.4–2 mg IV
69
Antidote for propoxyphene overdose
Naloxone
70
narcotic, pain reliver with cough suppressant property
Propoxyphene
71
narcotic cough suppressant
Codeine
72
may be needed for patients with overdose involving propoxyphene, codeine, and some other opioids
Larger doses of naloxone
73
Potent, short-acting synthetic opioid. Derivative of Fentanyl
Alfentanil
74
Narcotic nasal spray, used for migraine
Butorphanol
75
Powerful synthetic opioid analgesic, similar to morphine. (50 to 100x more potent than morphine)
Fentanyl
76
Semisynthetic hydrogenated ketone. Derivative of morphine
Hydromorphone
77
Hydromorphone
Dilaudid
78
Levomethadyl acetate
Orlaam
79
Levorphanol
Levo-Dromoran
80
Used widely for therapy of moderate to severe pain
Meperidine
81
Meperidine
Demerol
82
Pain relief and tx of drug addiction
Methadone
83
Methadone
Dolophine
84
Nalbuphine
Nubain
85
Semisynthetic opioid analgesic derived from Thebaine (alkaloid). Has high risk of addiction
Oxycodone
86
main alkaloid of Opium, potent analgesic, and high risk of depedence
Morphine
87
Derived from Thebaine. 6 - 8x stronger than morphine
Oxymorphone
88
Oxymorphone
Numorphan
89
Treat moderate to severe pain in adults and children 12 yrs old and above.
Pentazocine
90
Pentazocine
Talwin
91
Narcotic pain reliver with cough suppressant (weaker than codeine)
Propoxyphene
92
Propoxyphene
Darvon Pulvules
93
Very short-acting opioid
Remifentanil
94
Remifentanil
Ultiva
95
Sufentanil
Sufenta
96
Analogue of codeine, very strong pain killer used by cancer px
Tramadol
97
Tramadol
Ultram
98
Empirin Compound
Codeine/aspirin
99
Percocet, Tylox
Oxycodone/acetaminophen
100
Percodan
Oxycodone/aspirin
101
Darvon
Propoxyphene/aspirin or acetaminophen
102
Opioid Antitussives
● Codeine ● Dextromethorphan
103
Dextromethorphan
Benylin DM, Delsym
104
DOC for benzodiazepine overdose
Flumazenil
105
Should not be used if there is a history of tricyclic antidepressant overdose or a seizure disorder
Flumazenil
106
If a px has a history of TCA overdose or seizure disorder, the use of Flumazenil may induce ______
Convulsions
107
a constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time
Zero order kinetics
108
This concentration would affect the rate of drug elimination.
First Order Kinetics
109
It is a concentration-dependent process.
First Order Kinetics
110
Drug Examples of zero-order kinetics
Ethanol, Omeprazole, Salicylates, Aspirin, Cisplatin (SACOE)
111
Ratio of dose of the drug to the concentration of the drug in the body
Volume of Distribution
112
Special aspect of toxocokinetics
Volume of Distribution
113
necessary to contain the total amount of an administered drug at the same concentration that it is observed in the blood plasma
Volume of Distribution
114
a theoretical volume wherein a drug is not readily accessible to measure
Volume of Distribution
115
Caused by pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents.
Pneumonia
116
Low levels of oxygen in the blood
Hypoxia
117
Blood oxygen concentration of hypoxic patient
85-94%
118
Examples of hallucinogens
Phencyclidine (PCP) or Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
119
ABCD meaning
Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Diagnosis/Decontamination
120
Compensatory reaction of a person with hypoxia
Tachycardia
121
Low cardiac contractility
Hypotension
122
Drugs that can cause ventricular tachycardia [VT - CADET]
Cocaine, amphetamine, digitalis, ephedrine, TCA (CADET)
123
Drugs that can cause hypothermia
Beta blockers, Antipyretics
124
Drugs that can cause hyperthermia
Antipsychotic drugs
125
Adr of antipsychotic drugs
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
126
Substances that can cause hypoxia
Cyanide, hydrogen sulfide, carbon monoxide
127
Acute toxity of Isoniazid causes
Seizure
128
Chronic toxicity of Isoniazid causes
Peripheral neuropathy/neuritis
129
Dose of aminophylline given for beta-blocker induced wheezing
6mg/kg IV over 30 mins