MCQ Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following cell types produce testosterone in the male?
Select one:
a. Glomerulosa cells
b. Leydig cells
c. Thecal cells
d. Sertoli cells
A
B
2
Q
Sperm develop from stem cells called
Select one:
a. spermatogonia
b. spermatozoa
c. secondary spermatocytes
d. primary spermatocytes
e. spermatids
A
A
3
Q
The process of spermiogenesis produces
Select one:
a. spermatozoa
b. primary spermatocytes
c. spermatids
d. spermatogonia
e. secondary spematocytes
A
A
4
Q
When in spermatogenesis and/or oogenesis does “crossing over” of the chromosomes occur?
Select one:
a. Upon fertilization
b. During meiosis I
c. During meiosis II
d. during mitosis
A
B
5
Q
The hormones produced by the corpus luteum include:
Select one:
a. Progesterone
b. GnRH
c. LH
d. FSH
A
A
6
Q
The hormones most responsible for the LH surge and ovulation in a normal woman are:
Select one:
a. GnRH and inhibin
b. Estradiol and GnRH
c. Activin and inhibin
d. Estradiol and progesterone
A
B
7
Q
At what time is the second meiotic division of oogenesis completed in the human female?
Select one: a. Upon ovulation b. After menopause c. Upon fertilisation d. Prior to birth Feedback
A
C
8
Q
On day 21 of the female reproductive cycle, how do the following hormones change?
Estradiol Progesterone FSH LH Inhibin
Select one:
a. ↑ ↑ ↓ ↓ ↑
b. ↑ ↑ ↑ ↓ ↓
c. ↑ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↑
d. ↓ ↑ ↓ ↓ ↑
A
A
9
Q
The surge in luteinizing hormone that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers
Select one:
a. ovulation
b. atresia
c. monopause
d. follicle maturation
e. menstruation
A
A
10
Q
A rise in the blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone at the beginning of the ovarian cycle is responsible for
Select one:
a. ovulation
b. follicle maturation
c. mentruation
d. menopause
e. atresia
A
B
11
Q
The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is
Select one:
a. FSH
b. estrogen
c. LH
d. progesterone
e. luteosterone
A
D
12
Q
Which of the following is true regarding hormone binding to plasma proteins?
Select one:
a. It increases hormonal activity
b. it increases the half-life of the hormone
c. It is uncommon for steroid hormones
d. It is uncommon for thyroid hormones
e. It increases in the plasma clearance of the hormone
A
B
13
Q
Which of the following peptide-second messengers are incorrectly paired?
Select one:
a. Glucagon:cAMP
b. Insulin:cAMP
c. TSH:AMP
d. ACTH:cAMP
e. ADH (V2 receptor):cAMP
A
B
14
Q
Which of the following statements about peptide or protein hormones is usually true?
Select one:
a. They have receptors on the cell membrane
b. They have longer half-lives than steroid hormones
c. They are not highly stored in endocrine producing glands
d. They have a slower onset of action than both steroid and thyroid hormones
A
A
15
Q
Which of the following hormones does not activate G protein-linked receptors when producing its predominate physiological effects?
Select one:
a. ACTH
b. ADH
c. TSH
d. Aldosterone
e. Glucagon
A
D
16
Q
Which of the following regarding T4 is false?
Select one:
a. Secretion rate from thyroid is decreased by propylthiouracil
b. Peripheral deiodination is the major source of circulating T3
c. Plasma concentration is less than that of T3
d. A. Secretion rate from thyroid exceeds that of T3
A
C
17
Q
A patient has uncontrolled type I diabetes. Which of the following is likely to be present?
Select one:
a. Decreased rate of lipolysis
b. Decreased plasma osmolality
c. Increased plasma volume
d. Increased release of glucose from the liver
e. Increased plasma pH
A
D
18
Q
Which of the following are incorrectly paired?
Select one:
a. Epinephrine: increased glycogenolysis in muscle
b. Glucagon: increased glycogenolysis in liver
c. Insulin: increased gluconeogenesis in liver
d. Epinephrine: increased glycogenolysis in liver
e. Cortisol: decreased glucose uptake in muscle
A
C
19
Q
Which of the following statements about hormone activation is true?
Select one:
a. Conversion of testosterone to estradiol is an example of hormone activation
b. Prohormones are inactive messengers that must undergo conversion to an active form at their site of production
c. Both prohormones are inactive messengers that must undergo conversion to an active form at their site of production and conversion of testosterone to estradiol is an example of hormone activation are true
d. Conversion of T3 to T4 is an example of hormone activation
e. Both prohormones are inactive messengers that must undergo conversion to an active form at their site of production and conversion of T3 to T4 is an example of hormone activation are true
A
C
20
Q
The main difference between the modes of action of peptide hormones and steroid hormones is that
Select one:
a. Peptide hormones bind to receptors in the nucleus whereas steroid hormones bind to receptors in the cytosol
b. Peptide hormones bind to receptors on the cell surface whereas steroid hormones bind to intracellular receptors
c. Peptide hormones bind to intracellular receptors whereas steroid hormones bind to receptors on the cell surface
d. Peptide hormones bind to receptors on the cell surface whereas steroid hormones act as second messengers
e. There are no differences; both act by binding to receptors on the cell surface
A
B
21
Q
Receptors for steroid hormones
Select one:
a. Are proteins in the nucleus and/or cytoplasm
b. Undergo allosteric modulation when they bind to the hormone
c. Regulate gene transcription
d. Both are proteins in the nucleus and/or cytoplasm and regulate gene transcription are correct
e. All of the choices are correct
A
E
22
Q
Hormones known as “catecholamines” are
Select one:
a. derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine
b. steroids
c. peptides
d. lipids
e. derivatives of the reproductive glands
A
E
23
Q
A kinase is an enzyme that performs
Select one:
a. active transport
b. as a membrane channel
c. protein synthesis
d. phosphorylation
e. as an antibody
A
D
24
Q
When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell, the
Select one:
a. hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA.
b. hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm
c. cell membrane becomes depolarized.
d. second messenger appears in the cytoplasm
e. cell becomes inactive
A
D
25
After a steroid hormone binds to its receptor to form an active complex
Select one:
a. cyclic nucleotides are formed
b. adenyl cyclase if activated
c. G proteins are phsophorylated
d. protein kinases are activated
e. gene transcription is initiated
E
26
The pituitary hormone that controls the release of glucocorticoids from the suprarenal cortex is
Select one:
a. ACTH
b. FSH
c. LH
d. GH
e. TSH
A
27
The pituitary hormone that causes the kidney to reduce water loss is
Select one:
a. FSH
b. TSH
c. ADH
d. STH
e. MSH
C
28
Which of the following elements is necessary for the production of thyroid hormone?
Select one:
a. iodine
b. potassium
c. colloid
d. iron
e. sodium
A
29
The median eminence of the hypothalamus is
Select one:
a. A major link connecting the nervous system and the endocrine system
b. A site of neurohormone release into blood vessels and a major link connecting the nervous system and the endocrine system
c. A site of neurohormone release into blood vessels
d. The site of synthesis of ACTH and a site of neurohormone release into blood vessels
e. The site of synthesis of ACTH
Feedback
B
30
The gonadotropic hormones
Select one:
a. Stimulate hormone secretion by the gonads
b. Are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland of both males and females
c. Are LH and prolactin
d. Both stimulate hormone secretion by the gonads and are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland of both males and females are correct
e. All of the choices are correct
D
31
A subject consuming a diet deficient in iodine is likely to have
Select one:
a. A low plasma concentration of thyroxine and an enlarged thyroid gland and a high plasma concentration of TSH
b. A high plasma concentration of TSH
c. A low plasma concentration of thyroxine and an enlarged thyroid gland
d. A low plasma concentration of thyroxine due to reduced secretion of TSH by the pituitary gland and a low plasma concentration of thyroxine and an enlarged thyroid gland
e. A low plasma concentration of thyroxine due to reduced secretion of TSH by the pituitary gland
A
32
Deficiency of iodine in the diet results in a goiter (an enlarged thyroid gland). Which of the following statements offers the best explanation for this phenomenon?
Select one:
a. The thyroid enlarges so that it can secrete more thyroid hormones to compensate for the lack of iodine
b. Decreased plasma iodine levels are detected by the hypothalamus, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete more thyroid stimulating hormone
c. Without iodine, the thyroid gland cannot produce thyroid hormones. Thyroid hormones normally act as a negative-feedback signal for the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. Loss of this signal results in excessive secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone
d. All of the choices are correct
e. None of the choices are correct
C
33
Prolonged changes in neuronal activity are achieved through the activation of:
Select one:
a. A. Voltage gated chloride channels
b. G-protein coupled channels
c. Transmitter gated sodium channels
d. Voltage gated potassium channel
B
34
In a neuron with a resting membrane potential of -65 mV, the distribution of which ion across the neuronal membrane represents the greatest potential electromotive force (EMF)?
Select one:
a. Calcium
b. Sodium
c. Potassium
d. Chloride
B
35
The opening of which of the following ion channels would have the least effect on the resting membrane potential of an average neuron?
Select one:
a. Potassium
b. Chloride
c. Sodium
d. The opening of any of the above ion channels would effect the resting membrane potential to a similar degree
B
36
An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP):
Select one:
a. Results from the opening of potassium channels
b. Results from the opening of calcium channels
c. Results from the simultaneous opening of sodium and chloride channels
d. Results from the opening of sodium channels
D
37
An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP):
Select one:
a. Results from the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels
b. Results from the opening of sodium channels
c. Results from the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels
d. Results from the opening of potassium channels
D
38
Which of the following statements best describes the role of calcium in the release of a neurotransmitter substance from the presynaptic nerve terminal?
Select one:
a. Calcium entry into the presynaptic terminal results in the formation of cAMP which induces a conformational change in the presynaptic sodium channel that leads to the release of neurotransmitter
b. Calcium induces the opening of calcium-dependant sodium channels on the presynaptic terminal
c. Calcium entry into the presynaptic terminal prevents the release of the neurotransmitter
d. Calcium entry into the presynaptic terminal is necessary for the release of the neurotransmitter
D
39
Which of the following neurotransmitters is thought to be involved in the phenomenon of presynaptic inhibition?
Select one:
a. GABA
b. Acetylcholine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Serotonin
A
40
Which of the following statements regarding sensory systems is correct?
Select one:
a. Both all sensory information that reaches the brain can be experienced as a conscious sensation and the term, "sensory unit," refers to a group of receptors that receive a particular stimulus and the afferent neuron associated with those receptors are correct
b. All sensory information that reaches the brain can be experienced as a conscious sensation
c. Sensory information that leads to conscious awareness of the stimulus is called a sensation
d. The term, "sensory unit," refers to a group of receptors that receive a particular stimulus and the afferent neuron associated with those receptors
e. Both sensory information that leads to conscious awareness of the stimulus is called a sensation and the term, "sensory unit," refers to a group of receptors that receive a particular stimulus and the afferent neuron associated with those receptors are correct
E
41
This part of the brain is thought to control the various states of consciousness
Select one:
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebral cortex
c. Reticular activating system
d. Hippocampus
e. Thalamus
E
42
Regarding its role as a neurotransmitter in the CNS, noradrenaline
Select one:
a. Is secreted by brain stem neurons in response to sensory stimulation
b. Amplifies weak sensory signals and dampens strong ones so that more information can reach conscious levels
c. Is important for maintaining directed attention
d. Both is secreted by brain stem neurons in response to sensory stimulation and is important for maintaining directed attention are correct
e. All of the choices are correct
D
43
Drugs that are used to treat depression increase the levels of this neurotransmitter in the brain
Select one:
a. Acetylcholine
b. GABA
c. Dopamine
d. Glutamine
e. Serotonin
E
44
Regarding psychoactive drugs,
Select one:
a. They can be taken to relieve altered states of consciousness
b. They can be taken to experience altered states of consciousness
c. They may stimulate neuronal activity in the "reward" areas of the brain
d. Both they can be taken to experience altered states of consciousness and they may stimulate neuronal activity in the "reward" areas of the brain are correct
e. All of the choices are correct
E
45
A person with bilateral damage to the hippocampus will probably
Select one:
a. Experience all of the choices
b. Suffer from aphasia
c. Have difficulty learning new physical skills
d. Suffer impairment of consolidation of declarative memory
e. Develop symptoms of Parkinson's disease
D
46
Damage to which of the following brain structures is most likely to result in difficulty in being able to remember meeting new people?
Select one:
a. Thalamus
b. Corpus callosum
c. Hypothalamus
d. Hippocampus
e. Broca's area
D
47
Damage to that part of the brain known as Wernicke's area is likely to
Select one:
a. Impair comprehension of language
b. Cause blindness
c. Cause difficulty in recognizing faces
d. Be associated with impairment of procedural memory
e. Impair one's ability to speak
A
48
Damage to that part of the brain known as Broca's area is likely to
Select one:
a. Be associated with paralysis on the left side of the body
b. Both be associated with paralysis on the left side of the body and impair speech are correct
c. Impair speech
d. Both cause difficulty in recognizing faces and be associated with paralysis on the left side of the body are correct
e. Cause difficulty in recognizing faces
C
49
The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord
Select one:
a. peripheral
b. central
c. efferent
d. afferent
e. autonomic
B
50
The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles
```
Select one:
a. sympathetic
b. parasympathetic
c. autonomic
d. afferent
e. somatic
Feedback
```
E
51
The part of the peripheral nervous system that carries sensory information to the CNS is designated
Select one:
a. efferent
b. afferent
c. autonomic
d. motor
e. somatic
B
52
he efferent division of the peripheral nervous system innervates:
Select one:
a. skeletal muscle cells
b. smooth muscle cells
c. heart muscle cells
d. glandular cells
e. all of the answers are correct
E
53
The most abundant class of neuron in the central nervous system is
Select one:
a. anaxonic
b. bipolar
c. multipolar
d. unipolar
e. pseudopolar
C
54
Axons terminate in a series of fine extensions known as
Select one:
a. dendrites
b. telodendria
c. synapses
d. terminals
e. collaterals
B
55
The site of intercellular communication between a neuron and another cell is the
Select one:
a. telodendria
b. synaptic terminals
c. hillock
d. collateral
e. synapse
E
56
Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite, with the soma in between, are called
```
Select one:
a. multipolar
b. bipolar
c. anaxomic
d. triploar
e. unipolar
Feedback
```
B
57
Neurons that have several dendrites and a single axon are called
Select one:
a. anaxomic
b. mulipolar
c. unipolar
d. triploar
e. bipolar
B
58
Sensory neurons of the PNS are
Select one:
a. anaxomic
b. multiploar
c. unipolare
d. bipolar
e. tripolar
C
59
Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia?
Select one:
a. memory
b. maintenance of blood-brain barrier
c. secretion of cerebrospinal fluid
d. support
e. phagocytosis
A
60
Which of the following is a type of glial cell found in the peripheral nervous system?
Select one:
a. satellite cells
b. ependymal
c. microglia
d. astrocytes
e. oligodendrocytes
A
61
The neuroglial cells that participate in maintaining the blood-brain barrier are the
Select one:
a. Schwann cells
b. ependymal cells
c. astrocytes
d. oligodendrocytes
e. microglia
C
62
The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by
Select one:
a. satellite cells
b. ependymal
c. astrocytes
d. oligodendrocytes
e. microglia
D
63
________ line the brain ventricles and spinal canal.
Select one:
a. ependymal cells
b. astrocytes
c. satellite cells
d. microglia
e. oligodendrocytes
A
64
Small, wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the CNS are called
Select one:
a. satellite cells
b. oligodendrocytes
c. astrocytes
d. microglia
e. ependymal cells
D
65
Ion channels that are always open are called ________ channels.
Select one:
a. local
b. active
c. gated
d. regulated
e. leak
E
66
Opening of sodium channels in the axon membrane causes
Select one:
a. increased negative charge inside the membrance
b. depolarization
c. repolarization
d. hyperpolarization
e. inhibition
B
67
The sodium-potassium ion exchange pump
Select one:
a. transports sodium ions into the cell during depolarization.
b. depends on a hydrogen gradient for energy.
c. must reestablish ion concentrations after each action potential
d. moves sodium and potassium opposite to the direction of their electrochemical gradients.
e. transports potassium ions out of the cell during repolarization.
D
68
The equilibrium potential for potassium ion occurs at approximately
Select one:
a. -70 mV
b. 0 mV
c. +30 mV
d. -90 mV
e. +60 mV
D
69
________ open or close in response to binding specific molecules.
Select one:
a. Activated channels
b. Voltage-gated channels
c. Chemically-gated channels
d. Voltage-gated and chemically-gated channels
e. Leak channels
C
70
________ channels open or close in response to physical distortion of the membrane surface.
Select one:
a. Chemically-gated
b. Leak
c. Active
d. Mechanically-gated
e. Voltage-gated
D
71
If the sodium-potassium pumps in the plasma membrane fail to function, all of the following occur, except
Select one:
a. the neuron will slowly depolarize.
b. the intracellular concentration of sodium ions will increase.
c. the membrane will slowly lose its capacity to generate action potentials
d. the inside of the membrane will have a resting potential that is more positive than normal.
e. the intracellular concentration of potassium ions will increase
E
72
If the potassium permeability of a resting neuron increases above the resting permeability, what effect will this have on the transmembrane potential?
Select one:
a. The membrane will depolarize to threshold.
b. The membrane will become depolarized.
c. There will be almost no effect on transmembrane potential
d. The inside of the membrane will become more negative.
e. The inside of the membrane will become more positive.
D
73
Voltage-gated sodium channels have both an activation gate and a ________ gate.
Select one:
a. replarization
b. threshold
c. inactivation
d. ion
e. swinging
C
74
A stimulus that changes a postsynaptic neuron's membrane from resting potential to -85 mV is:
Select one:
a. an exciting stimulus
b. a depolarizing stimulus
c. a saltatory stimulus
d. an inhibitory stimulus
e. a temporal stimulus
D
75
Which of the following statements about the action potential is false?
Select one:
a. In the after-hyperpolarization phase, membrane potential approaches the potassium equilibrium potential.
b. Repolarization occurs as potassium ions leave the axon.
c. During the depolarization phase, membrane potential becomes positive.
d. The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of potassium ions.
e. During the repolarization phase, sodium channels close and potassium channels open.
Feedback
D
76
How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-regulated sodium channels failed to inactivate?
Select one:
a. It would last indefinitely
b. It would be basically unaffected
c. It would be much briefer
A
77
Type ________ fibers have the largest diameter axons.
Select one:
a. A
b. C
c. B
d. F
e. S
A
78
Rapid impulse conduction from "node" to "node" is called
Select one:
a. synaptic transmission
b. spatial propagation
c. saltatory propagation
d. divergent propagation
e. continuous propagation
C
79
A neuron that receives neurotransmitter from another neuron is called
Select one:
a. an interneuron
b. the postsynaptic neuron
c. the oligodendrocyte
d. the motor neuron
e. the presynaptic neuron
B
80
Which type of synapse is most common in the nervous system?
Select one:
a. electrical
b. processing
c. mechanical
d. radioactive
e. chemical
E
81
Cholinergic synapses release the neurotransmitter
Select one:
a. seratonin
b. norepinephrine
c. adrenalin
d. GABA
e. acetylcholine
E
82
The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is
Select one:
a. magnesium
b. chloride
c. potassium
d. calcium
e. sodium
D
83
Each of the following is an example of a neuroeffector junction, except the junction between a neuron and a
Select one:
a. endocrine gland cell
b. skeletal muscle cell
c. nerve cell
d. exocrine gland cell
e. smooth muscle cell
C
84
Adrenergic synapses release the neurotransmitter
Select one:
a. dopamine
b. GABA
c. acetylcholine
d. norepinephrine
e. seratonin
D
85
Which of the following is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain that is important in learning and memory?
Select one:
a. noradrenaline
b. seratonin
c. glutamine
d. gamma aminobutyric acid
e. glycine
C
86
After acetylcholinesterase acts, the synaptic terminal
Select one:
a. pinches off a new terminal grows
b. reabsorbs the exoplasm
c. reabsorbs the acetate
d. reabsorbs the acetylcholine
e. reabsorbs the choline
E
87
obstruction and increases resistance to the air flow through the lungs thus reducing the lungs ability to take up O2. The following is a list of some airways.
1. secondary bronchus
2. bronchioles
3. alveolar ducts
4. primary bronchus
5. respiratory bronchiole
6. alveoli
7. terminal bronchiole
Select one:
a. 1, 4, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6.
b. 2, 4, 1, 7, 5, 3, 6.
c. 1, 4, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6.
d. 4, 1, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6.
e. 4, 1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6.
E
88
Before inspiration, alveolar pressure is 0 and intrapleural pressure is -5 cm H2O. At the end of an inspiration in a healthy person, with the glottis open, these readings would be:
Select one:
a. Alveolar pressure of 0, intrapleural pressure of -5 cm H2O
b. Alveolar pressure of 0, intrapleural pressure of -8 cm H2O
c. Alveolar pressure of +2, intrapleural pressure of -8 cm H2O
d. Alveolar pressure of -2, intrapleural pressure of -8 cm H2O
e. Alveolar pressure of 0, intrapleural pressure of +5 cm H2O
B
89
In order to create a pressure gradient between the atmosphere and the alveoli respiratory muscles contract and relax, altering the thoracic cavity size. When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract…
Select one:
a. expiration occurs
b. the lungs shrink
c. the volume of the lungs decreases
d. the volume of the thorax decreases
e. the volume of the thorax increases
E
90
A 50-year-old man participates in a marathon. Which muscle(s) are being used for inspiration during the marathon?
```
Select one:
a. Abdominals
b. Gastrocnemius
c. External intercostals
d. Internal interscostals
Feedback
```
C
91
Which of the following would be expected to increase the measured airway resistance?
Select one:
a. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the lungs
b. Low lung volumes
c. Release of histamine by mast cells
d. Forced expirations
e. All of the above
E
92
Which of the following tend to decrease airway resistance?
Select one:
a. Stimulation by sympathetic fibers
b. Exhalation to residual volume
c. Treatment with acetylcholine
d. Asthma
A
93
The most accurate statement about airway pressures during normal quiet breathing (as measured in the upper airway) is:
Select one:
a. At the end of expiration airway pressure is the same as atmospheric
b. At the end of expiration there is a slight amount of positive airway pressure, between 3 and 5 mmHg above atmospheric
c. Airway pressure is atmospheric throughout the breathing cycle
d. Airway pressure is below atmospheric throughout the breathing cycle
e. At the end of inspiration there is a slight negative airway pressure, between -3 and -5 mmHg
A
94
Voluntary apnea (breath-holding) for 60 seconds will:
Select one:
a. Inhibit the arterial chemoreceptors
b. Increase alveolar pCO2
c. Increase arterial pO2
d. Decrease alveolar pCO2
B
95
A 9-year-old boy decided to find out how long he could breathe into and out of a paper bag. After ~2 minutes his friends noticed that he was breathing very rapidly and forced him to stop. Which of the following was the most potent stimulus for the boy’s hyperventilation?
Select one:
a. Increased arterial PO2
b. Decreased arterial PCO2
c. Increased arterial PCO2
d. Increased pH
e. Decreased arterial PO2
C
96
Hyperventilation will result FROM:
Select one:
a. A decrease in arterial pCO2 to less than 30 mmHg
b. Direct stimulation of the medulla chemosensitive area caused by an increase in pH
c. An increase in alveolar pCO2
d. An increase in alveolar PO2
C
97
Which of the following would result in a decrease in nerve activity from the peripheral chemoreceptors?
Select one:
a. A decrease in arterial blood pressure
b. A decrease in arterial oxygen content
c. An increase in arterial pO2
d. A decrease in blood pH
C
98
he main reason that respiratory compensation occurs in metabolic acidosis is due to stimulation of:
Select one:
a. The carotid bodies by CO2
b. The central chemoreceptors by O2
c. The central chemoreceptors by CO2
d. The central chemoreceptors by H+
e. The carotid bodies by H+
C
99
A man fell asleep in his running car one evening. He was brought into the ED unconscious. His arterial pO2 was 95 mmHg. His arterial pCO2 was 40 mmHg. With carbon monoxide poisoning you would expect his arterial oxygen saturation would be _______ while his venous oxygen saturation would be ______ .
Select one:
a. Increased, decreased
b. Normal, decreased
c. Increased, normal
d. Decreased, decreased
D
100
An otherwise normal person has lost enough blood to decrease his body's hemoglobin concentration from 15 g/100 mL blood to 12 g/100 mL blood. Which of the following would be expected to decrease?
Select one:
a. Arterial carbon dioxide content
b. Blood oxygen-carrying capacity
c. Arterial hemoglobin saturation
d. Arterial pO2
B
101
Arterial pO2 is 100 mmHg and arterial pCO2 is 40 mmHg. Total blood flow to all muscle is 700 mL/min. There is a sympathetic activation resulting in a decrease in blood flow to 350 mL/min. Which of the following will occur?
Venous pO2 Venous pCO2
Select one:
a. ↔ ↔
b. ↑ ↓
c. ↓ ↓
d. ↔ ↑
e. ↓ ↔
f. ↓ ↑
g. ↑ ↑
F
102
A 22-year-old man was involved in a fight and received a blow to the head. On arrival to emergency department he was unconscious and was receiving assisted ventilation via a manual bag. His blood gases were:
pO2 = 45 mmHg
pCO2 = 80 mmHg
pH = 7.05
HCO3- = 27 mM
In which form was most CO2 being transported in this patient?
Select one:
a. Carbaminohemoglobin compounds
b. Dissolved
c. Bicarbonate ions
d. CO2 bound to plasma proteins
C
103
The blood vessels of the cardiovascular system vary in regard to its structure and function. Which one of the following blood vessels has the highest compliance?
Select one:
a. Aorta
b. Capillaries
c. Venules
d. Veins
e. Arteries
D
104
Which of the following components of the circulatory system has the largest distribution of blood volume?
Select one:
a. Heart
b. Pulmonary circulation
c. Arteries
d. Capillaries
e. Veins
E
105
Histamine is injected into the brachial artery of a 25-year-old man. Which of the following sets of changes would be expected to occur in response to histamine?
Vascular Resistance
Vascular Conductance Capillary Filtration
Select one:
a. ↓ ↓ ↑
b. ↑ ↓ ↑
c. ↓ ↓ ↓
d. ↓ ↑ ↑
e. ↑ ↑ ↑
D
106
An increase in venous as a result of an acute bout of exercise results in an increase in atrial pressure, which will result in which one of the following?
Select one:
a. An increase in plasma angiotensin II concentration
b. An increase in plasma aldosterone concentration
c. An increase in sodium excretion
d. A decrease in plasma atrial natriuritic peptide (ANP)
C
107
Which one of the following sets of physiological changes would be expected to occur in a person who stands up from a supine position?
Venous Hydrostatic Pressure in Legs Parasympathetic Nerve Activity
Select one:
a. ↑ ↓
b. ↓ ↑
c. ↓ ↓
d. ↑ ↑
A
108
A 22-year-old male enters the hospital emergency room after severing a major artery during a motorcycle accident. It is estimated that the patient lost approximately 700 mL of blood. His blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg. A decrease in which of the following would be expected in response to hemorrhage in this man?
Select one:
a. Heart rate
b. Plasma renin activt=ity
c. Total peripheral resistance
d. Sympathetic nerve activity
e. Number of impulses from the carotid sinus
E
109
A 25-year-old male enters the hospital emergency room after severing a major artery during a farm accident. It is estimated that the patient lost approximately 800 mL of blood. His mean blood pressure is 65 mmHg. His heart rate is elevated as a result of activation of the chemoreceptor reflex. Which of the following set of changes in plasma concentration would be expected to activate the chemoreceptor reflex?
Oxygen
Carbon Dioxide Hydrogen
Select one:
a. ↓ ↓ ↓
b. ↓ ↑ ↑
c. ↑ ↓ ↓
d. ↑ ↑ ↑
e. ↑ ↓ ↑
f. ↓ ↑ ↓
g. ↑ ↑ ↓
h. ↓ ↓ ↑
B
110
Which one of the following sets of physiological changes would be expected to occur in a person who stands up from a supine position?
Sympathetic Nerve Activity Heart Rate
Total Peripheral Resistance
Select one:
a. ↑ ↓ ↓
b. ↓ ↓ ↑
c. ↑ ↑ ↓
d. ↓ ↓ ↓
e. ↓ ↑ ↓
f. ↑ ↓ ↑
g. ↓ ↑ ↑
h. ↑ ↑ ↑
H
111
A balloon catheter is advanced from the superior vena cava into the heart and inflated to increase atrial pressure by 10 mmHg. Which one of the following set of physiological changes would be expected to occur in response to the elevated atrial pressure?
Renal Sympathetic Nerve Activity
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide Sodium Excretion
Select one:
a. ↓ ↑ ↑
b. ↑ ↑ ↓
c. ↓ ↓ ↑
d. ↓ ↓ ↓
e. ↑ ↑ ↑
f. ↑ ↓ ↓
g. ↑ ↓ ↑
h. ↓ ↑ ↓
A
112
A 55-year-old female is diagnosed with a juxtaglomerular cell rennin-secreting tumor. Lab tests reveal a plasma concentration of angiotensin II five times above normal. Which of the following set of findings would be expected in this man?
Blood Pressure
Blood Volume
Renal Blood Flow
Select one:
a. ↓ ↓ ↑
b. ↓ ↑ ↑
c. ↑ ↓ ↓
d. ↑ ↑ ↓
e. ↑ ↓ ↑
f. ↑ ↑ ↑
g. ↓ ↑ ↓
h. ↓ ↓ ↓
C
113
A patient with a resting cardiac output of 4 L/min is exercised maximally and cardiac output increases to 8 L/min. What is the cardiac reserve?
Select one:
a. 100%
b. 250%
c. 200%
d. 50%
e. 150%
A
114
Brian has been admitted to hospital where he is diagnosed as having an ST elevated myocardial infarction from his ECG trace; indicating ischemia to a proportion of the heart muscle which is effecting his hearts ability to contract. Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of
Select one:
a. cardiac myocytes
b. chondrocytes
c. fibrocytes
d. epitheliocytes
e. smooth muscle cells
A
115
Your resting HR is 75bpm but you’ve read that the myogenic depolarization rate of the sinoatrial node is ~100 per minute. To explain the variation of your HR in various situations your heart must be innervated by ________ nerves.
Select one:
a. somatomotor
b. parasympathetic
c. both parasympathetic and sympathetic
d. sympathetic
e. neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic
C
116
Mary is admitted to hospital after feeling very dizzy and complaining of chest pains. The doctor diagnoses her with atriaventricular block from her ECG trace. In order to understand the implications of this; the following are structural components of the conducting system of the heart.
1. Purkinje fibers
2. AV bundle
3. AV node
4. SA node
5. bundle branches
The sequence in which excitation would move through this system is
Select one:
a. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1.
b. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1.
c. 3, 5, 4, 2, 1.
d. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5.
e. 4, 2, 3, 5, 1.
E
117
You are a medic student who has just begun there clinical placement on the cardiology ward. The resident doctor is helping you identify possible arrhythmias form patients ECGs. The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from
Select one:
a. depolarization of the atria.
b. depolarization of the AV node.
c. depolarization of the ventricles.
d. depolarization of the SA node.
e. repolarization of the atria.
A
118
Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the
Select one:
a. PR complex
b. S wave
c. T wave
d. QRS complex
e. P wave
D
119
The T wave on an ECG tracing represents
Select one:
a. ventricular repolarization
b. ventricular depolarization
c. ventricular contraction
d. atrial depolarization
e. atrial repolarization
A
120
As part of your bid to keep fit you go for a run and notice your heart rate significantly increases with increments in intensity. You decide to investigate the mechanisms behind increases in CO with exercise. Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output, except
Select one:
a. increased venous return
b. increase parasympathetic stimulation
c. increased sympathetic simulation
d. increased heart rate
e. both A and B
B
121
Cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except one. Choose the exception.
Select one:
a. increasing heart rate
b. decreasing end systolic volume
c. increasing stroke volume
d. increasing ejection fraction
e. decreasing ejection fraction
E
122
When a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in a coronary artery, the condition is referred to as a
Select one:
a. coronary thrombosis
b. angina pectoris
c. coronary spasm
d. myocardial infarction
e. pulmonary embolism
A
123
Blood pressure is controlled via short term and long term mechanisms. Baroreceptors are a part of the short term regulatory mechanism. An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will reflexly lead to
Select one:
a. increase in heart rate
b. decrease in heart rate
c. decrease in blood pressure
d. both B and C
e. both A and C
D
124
If the connection between the vagus nerve and the heart is cut during surgery, which of these changes will occur?
```
Select one:
a. heart will beat slower
b. stroke volume will decrease
c. cardiac output will decrease
d. nodal fibers will depolarize more slowly
e. none of the above
Feedback
```
E
125
Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the
Select one:
a. higher centers
b. pons
c. hypothalamus
d. thalamus
e. medulla oblongata
E
126
Acetylcholine slows the heart because it
Select one:
a. opens potassium ion channels in SA node cells.
b. opens sodium-calcium ion channels in SA node cells.
opens sodium-calcium ion channels in SA node cells.
c. causes the pacemaker potential to depolarize more quickly.
d. causes the pacemaker potential to depolarize more slowly.
e. A and C only
E
127
If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the
Select one:
a. heart rate will increase
b. heart rate will decrease
c. membrane will depolarize
d. membrane will hyperpolarize
e. both B and D
E
128
The urinary system does all of the following, except that it
Select one:
a. regulates plasma concentrations of electrolytes
b. regulates blood volume
c. excretes excess albumen molecules
d. eliminates organic waste products
e. contribute to establishing blood pH
C
129
The outermost layer of the kidney is the
Select one:
a. renal medulla
b. renal cortex
c. fibrous capsule
d. renal pelvis
e. major calyx
C
130
Triangular or conical structures located in the renal medulla are called
Select one:
a. renal pelvises
b. nephrons
c. calyces
d. renal columns
e. pyramids
E
131
The region known as the macula densa is part of
Select one:
a. the proximal convoluted tubule
b. glomerular (Boweman's) capsule
c. the nephron loop (Loop of Henle)
d. the collecting duct
e. the distal convoluted tubule
E
132
The portion of the nephron that empties into the collecting duct is the
```
Select one:
a. calyx
b. proximal convoluted tubule
c. nephron loop (Loop of Henle)
d. distal convoluted tubule
e. papillary tubule
Feedback
```
D
133
The primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule is
Select one:
a. secretion of drugs
b. secretion of acids and ammonia
c. filtration
d. absorption of ions, organic molecules, vitamins and water
e. adjusting the urine volume
D
134
The process of filtration is driven by
```
Select one:
a. blood osmotic pressure
b. active transport
c. solvent drag
d. blood hydrostatic pressure
e. renal pumping
Feedback
```
D
135
Chloride ion is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb by
Select one:
a. countertransport for bicarbonate ion
b. active transport
c. cotransport with Na and K ion
d. facilitated diffusion
e. simple diffusion
C
136
The efferent arteriole of a nephron divides to form a network of capillaries within the cortex called the ________ capillaries
Select one:
a. vasa recta
b. cortical
c. glomerular
d. peritubular
e. efferent
D
137
In response to increased levels of aldosterone, the kidneys produce
Select one:
a. urine with less glucose
b. urine with a lower concentration of potassium ions
c. a larger volume of urine
d. urine with a lower concentration of sodium ions
e. urine with a higher concentration of sodium ions
D
138
Blood leaves the glomerulus through a blood vessel called the
```
Select one:
a. efferent arteriole
b. interlobular arteriole
c. vasa recta
d. renal vein
e. afferent arteriole
Feedback
```
A
139
The left kidney lies ________ to the right kidney.
Select one:
a. posterior
b. superior
c. inferior
d. both A and C
e. transverse
B
140
Approximately ________ liters of glomerular filtrate enter glomerular capsules each day.
Select one:
a. 1.8
b. 180
c. 480
d. 18
e. 125
B
141
Autoregulation of the rate of glomerular filtration has which of the following properties?
Select one:
a. depends on changes in the afferent arteriole
b. maintains glomerular filtration over a wide range of blood pressures
c. depends on changed in the efferent arteriole
d. all of the above
e. A & C only
D
142
One mechanism the kidney uses to raise systemic blood pressure is to
Select one:
a. decrease secretion of aldosterone
b. increase filtration into glomerula (Bowman's) capsule
c. increase secretion of renin by the juxtaglomerular complex
d. decrease urinary albumin concetration
e. increase release of angiotensin II by the suprarenal glands
C
143
The majority of glomeruli are located in the ________ of the kidney.
Select one:
a. vasa recta
b. cortex
c. pelvis
d. medulla
e. calyces
B
144
Which of these components of the nephron is largely confined to the renal medulla?
Select one:
a. proximal convoluted tubule
b. glomerula *Bowman's) capsule
c. glomerulus
d. distal convoluted tubule
e. collecting ducts
E
145
Measurement of the functions of a nephron reveals a glomerular capillary pressure of 69 mm Hg, and a pressure in the capsular space of 15 mm Hg. Assuming that the colloid osmotic pressure is 30 mm Hg, and that essentially no plasma proteins are filtered by the glomerulus, what is the net filtration pressure in this case?
Select one:
a. 99 mm Hg
b. 30 mm Hg
c. 69 mm Hg
d. 24 mm Hg
e. 84 mm Hg
D
146
A patient excretes a large volume of very dilute urine on a continuing basis. This is may be due to
Select one:
a. excessive ADH secretion
b. overproduction of aldosterone
c. dilation of the afferent arterioles
d. hematuric oliguria
e. absence of ADH
E
147
Antidiuretic hormone
Select one:
a. release is insensitive to the osmolarity of interstitial fluid
b. causes the kidneys to produce a larger volume of very dilute urine
c. is secreted by the anterior pituitary
d. is secreted in response to low potassium ion in the blood
e. increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water
E
148
A drug that inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) may lead to
Select one:
a. less secretion of aldosterone
b. increased urinary loss of sodium
c. reduction of blood pressure
d. B and C only
e. A, B and C
E
149
A 22-year-old male runs a 10 km race on a 90 °F day. If he loses three liters of sweat and also drinks 3 liters of water during the race, which of the following changes would you expect, compared to normal, after absorption of the water?
Intracellular Volume
Intracellular Osmolarity
Extracellular Volume
Extracellular Osmolarity
Select one:
a. ↔ ↓ ↔ ↔
b. ↓ ↓ ↓ ↑
c. ↑ ↓ ↓ ↓
d. ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑
e. ↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
C
150
If a person has a kidney transport maximum for glucose of 150 mg/min, a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 100 mL/min, a plasma glucose level of 250 mg/100 mL, and a urine flow rate of 2.0 mL/min, what would be the approximate rate of glucose excretion, assuming normal kidneys?
Select one:
a. 150 mg/min
b. 50 mg/min
c. 100 mg/min
d. glucose excretion rate cannot be estimated from this data
e. 0 mg/min
f. 250 mg/min
C
151
A 22-year-old female patient complaining of headaches presents to your office. An examination reveals that her blood pressure is 180/118 mmHg, and laboratory tests give the following results:
Plasma renin activity = 14.5 (normal = 1.0)
Plasma Na+ = 142 mmol/L
Plasma K+ = 2.5 mmol/L
Magnetic resonance imaging of the kidneys suggests that she has a renin-secreting tumor in her left kidney. Compared with normal, which one of the following sets of conditions would you expect?
Renal Blood Flow
Glomerular Capillary Hydrostatic Pressure Peritubular Capillary Hydrostatic Pressure
Select one:
a. ↓ ↑ ↑
b. ↓ ↓ ↑
c. ↑ ↓ ↓
d. ↓ ↓ ↓
e. ↓ ↑ ↓
E
152
Which of the following changes would you expect to find after administration of a vasodilator that selectively reduced AFFERENT arteriolar resistance
Renal Blood Flow
GFR
Glomerular Capillary Hydrostatic Pressure
Peritubular Capillary Hydrostatic Pressure
Select one:
a. ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
b. ↑ ↑ ↓ ↑
c. ↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
d. ↑ ↓ ↓ ↑
e. ↑ ↑ ↔ ↔
f. ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑
F
153
Which of the following changes would tend to REDUCE glomerular filtration rate?
Select one:
a. Increased collecting tubule sodium reabsorption
b. Increased glomerular capillary filtration coefficient
c. Increased proximal tubular sodium reabsorption
d. Decreased efferent arteriolar resistance
e. Decreased afferent arteriolar resistance
D
154
You begin treatment of a hypertensive patient with a large dose of a powerful diuretic that inhibits tubular reabsorption of NaCl by the loop of Henle. He returns to your office for a follow-up examination two weeks later. Compared with the patient's status before treatment, which one of the following sets of conditions would you expect to find?
Urine Na+ Excretion
Plasma Fluid Volume
Renin Concentration
Select one:
a. ↔ ↔ ↔
b. ↑ ↓ ↔
c. ↓ ↑ ↑
d. ↑ ↓ ↑
e. ↔ ↓ ↑
E
155
Which of the following would cause the greatest degree of hypokalemia?
Select one:
a. Chronic treatment with a diuretic such as furosemide that inhibits loop of Henle Na+-2Cl- K+ cotransport
b. An increase in sodium intake from 150 to 300 mmol/day
c. A reduction in potassium intake from 160 to 80 mmol/day in a person with normal kidneys and normal aldosterone system
d. Chronic treatment with a diuretic such as spironolactone that inhibits the action of aldosterone
e. Chronic treatment with a diuretic such as amiloride that inhibits sodium reabsorption in the late collecting ducts
A
156
Potassium secretion:
Select one:
a. Increases during acute acidosis
b. Increases markedly when sodium intake is increased
c. Is decreased by aldosterone
d. Is decreased when plasma potassium concentration is increased
e. Is increased when tubular sodium delivery to the collecting tubule is increased
f. None of the above
E
157
Which of the following diuretics inhibits NaCl co-transport in the distal tubules as its primary action?
Select one:
a. Furosemide
b. Thiazide diuretic
c. Spironolactone
d. Amiloride
e. Osmotic diuretic
f. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
B
158
Which of the following substances undergo renal tubular secretion?
Select one:
a. Calcium ion
b. Sodium ion
c. Potassium ion
d. Both calcium ion and sodium ion are correct
e. All of the choices are correct
C
159
In terms of the amount of water lost or conserved through urine formation, which region(s) of the renal tubule demonstrate the highest degree of variability?
Select one:
a. The glomerulus
b. Proximal convoluted tubule
c. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Loop of Henle
e. Cortical and medullary collecting ducts
E
160
Because of the countercurrent multiplier system in the loop of Henle and the proximity to it of the medullary collecting ducts,
Select one:
a. Hypoosmotic urine is generated by active salt reabsorption through membranes impermeable to water and the diffusion of water through membranes responsive to vasopressin
b. Hyperosmotic urine is generated by active salt reabsorption through membranes that are relatively impermeable to water and the diffusion of water through membranes responsive to vasopressin
c. Hypoosmotic urine is generated by active salt secretion into the loop of Henle and into the medullary collecting ducts
d. Hyperosmotic urine is generated by active salt secretion into the loop of Henle and into the medullary collecting ducts
e. The body must excrete a dilute urine
B
161
Vasopressin/antidiuretic hormone
Select one:
a. all of the choices are correct
b. promotes the excretion of water into urine
c. Is a peptide hormone released from the adrenal gland
d. triggers insertion of aquaporins into the luminal membranes of collecting ducts
e. promotes the secretion of potassium into urine
D
162
A person who is unable to synthesize vasopressin
Select one:
a. will excrete a hypotonic urine
b. Is unable to reabsorb water in the proximal tubule
c. will excrete up to 180 L of urine a day
d. will excrete glucose in the urine
e. will do all of these things
A
163
Which of the following most accurately describes the actions of aldosterone?
Select one:
a. Aldosterone decreases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the cortical collecting ducts
b. Aldosterone increases Na+ secretion and K+ reabsorption in the cortical collecting ducts
c. Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the cortical collecting ducts
d. Aldosterone increases Na+ secretion and K+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule
e. Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the proximal tubule
C
164
The cells of the macula densa and the juxtaglomerular cells form the
Select one:
a. filtration membrane
b. renal corpuscle
c. afferent arteriole
d. juxtaglomerular complex
e. nephron loop (Loop of Henle)
D
165
A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency room with a two week history of diarrhea following a trip out of the country. He is admitted to the hospital for dehydration. His stool specimen is positive for parasitic eggs. Which type of WBCs would have an elevated number?
Select one:
a. T lymphocytes
b. Eosinophils
c. B lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils
e. Monocytes
B
166
During an inflammatory response, which is the correct order for cellular events?
Select one:
a. Infiltration of monocytes from blood, increased production of neutrophils, activation of tissue macrophage, infiltration of neutrophils from the blood
b. Increased production of neutrophils, activation of tissue macrophage, infiltration of neutrophils from the blood, infiltration of monocytes from blood
c. Activation of tissue macrophage, infiltration of neutrophils from the blood, infiltration of monocytes from blood, increased production of neutrophils
d. Infiltration of neutrophils from the blood, activation of tissue macrophage, infiltration of monocytes from blood, increased production of neutrophils
C
167
Basophils share functional and morphological characteristics with:
Select one:
a. Monocytes
b. Myelocytes
c. Mast cells
d. Macrophages
C
168
In a normal healthy person which of the following blood components has the longest life span?
Select one:
a. T cells
b. Platelets
c. Erythrocytes
d. Macrophages
D
169
Neutrophils are capable of all of the following except?
```
Select one:
a. Phagocytosis of whole red blood cells
b. Ameboid motion
c. Production of proteolytic enzymes fro digestion of bacteria
d. Diapedesis
Feedback
```
A
170
What occurs following presentation of antigen by an infected cell?
Select one:
a. Activation of cytotoxic T cells
b. Increase in phagocytosis
c. Generation of antibodies
d. Release of histamine by mast cells
A
171
What is the term for adhesion of an invading microbe with IgG and complement to facilitate recognition?
Select one:
a. Phagolysosome fusion
b. Opsonization
c. Signal transduction
d. Chemokinesis
B
172
What causes the release of histamine in an allergic reaction?
Select one:
a. The free radical stimulation of endothelial cells
b. The binding of IgM to basophils
c. The release fo histamine by helper T cells
d. The binding of IgE to mast cells
D
173
Helper T-Cells:
Select one:
a. Require the presence of a competent B cell system
b. Are identical to natural killer cells
c. Ca be activated by the presentation of antigen by an infected cell
d. Destroy bacteria by phagocytosis
C
174
Presentation of antigen on MHC-I by a target cell will result in:
Select one:
a. Increase in phagocytosis
b. Release of histamine by mast cells
c. Generation of antibodies
d. Activation of cytotoxic T cells
D
175
Interleukin 2 (IL-2) is an important molecule in the immune response. What function does it carry out?
```
Select one:
a. Binds to and presents antigen
b. Inhibits helper T cells
c. Kills virus-infected cells
d. Causes proliferation of cytotoxic T cells
Feedback
```
D
176
Circulating antibodies are secreted mainly by:
Select one:
a. T helper lymphocytes
b. T killer lymphocytes
c. T suppressor lymphocytes
d. Dormant B lymphocytes
e. Plasma cells
E
177
The lymphatic system does all of the following, except that it
Select one:
a. Helps maintain normal blood volume
b. Transports lipids from the digestive tract
c. Fights infection
d. Eliminates variations in the composition of interstitial fluid
e. Transports gases to and away from lymph nodes
E
178
Lymph nodes do all of the following, except that they
Select one:
a. Remove excess nutrients from the lymph
b. Remove debris and pathogens from the lymph
c. Accumulate cancer cells
d. Produce antibodies
e. Monitor the contents of lymph
B
179
The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the ________ cells.
Select one:
a. Helper T
b. Cytotoxic T
c. Suppressor T
d. NK
e. B
B
180
Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells
Select one:
a. Cytotoxic T
b. Helper T
c. Plasma
d. Suppressor T
e. B
A
181
The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells.
Select one:
a. Thymus
b. Helper T
c. Liver
d. Plasma
e. NK
D
182
Innate defenses include
Select one:
a. All of the answers are correct
b. Phagocytic cells
c. Physical barriers
d. Inflammation
e. Interferons
A
183
Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include
Select one:
a. Mucus
b. Epithelia
c. Epidermal layers
d. Sebaceous glands
e. All of the answers are correct
E
184
The body's innate defenses include all of the following, except
Select one:
a. Antibodies
b. Compliment
c. Interferon
d. Inflammation
e. The skin
A
185
Various types of macrophages are derived from
Select one:
a. Neutrophils
b. Basophils
c. Eosinophils
d. lymphocytes
e. Monocytes
E
186
Inflammation produces localized
Select one:
a. Swelling
b. All of the answers are correct
c. Pain
d. Redness
e. heat
B
187
Leslie has a bad sore throat and the lymph nodes in her neck are swollen. This would indicate that
Select one:
a. The affected lymph nodes contain an increased number of lymphocytes
b. The lymph node is actively producing phagoctes
c. Lymph is not flowing through these lymph nodes
d. The lymph node has increased its secretion of thymosin
e. The focus of the infection is the lymph nodes
A
188
A sample of John's blood shows a high level of pyrogens. This would indicate that John
Select one:
a. is running a fever
b. is producing T lymphocytes
c. has swollen lymph nodes
d. is feeling achy
e. has a sore throat
A
189
The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following, except
Select one:
a. destruction of target cell plasma membrane
b. inhibition of the immune response
c. opsonization
d. chemotaxis
e. stimulation of inflammation
B
190
The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells
Select one:
a. Plasma
b. NK
c. B
d. Helper T
e. Suppressor T
B
191
Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by
Select one:
a. Fever
b. Skin defenses
c. Innate immunity
d. Adaptive immunity
e. Immunological surveillance
D
192
In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of
Select one:
a. passive immunization
b. innate immunity
c. natural immunity
d. active immunization
e. alloimmunity
A
193
The following are steps in the cell-mediated immune response.
1. Several cycles of mitosis occur.
2. Antigen is engulfed and presented by a macrophage.
3. Cytotoxic T cells migrate to focus of infection.
4. T cells with specific receptors recognize the antigen.
5. T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells or T memory cells.
6. Cytotoxic T cells release perforin and/or lymphotoxin.
The correct sequence for these steps is
Select one:
a. 3, 6, 4, 5, 1, 2
b. 4, 1, 5, 3, 6, 2
c. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3, 6
d. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 6
e. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5, 6
C
194
Which of the following statements about MHC proteins is not true?
Select one:
a. Function in antigen presentation
b. Are found on all nucleated cells
c. Allow body to differentiate its own cells from foreign cells
d. Fall into two major classes
e. Bind complement
E
195
When an antigen is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a ________ cell.
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Select one:
a. B
b. Helper T
c. NK
d. Cytotoxic T
e. Plasma
Feedback
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D
196
Class II MHC molecules are found only on which of the following?
Select one:
a. all body cells with a nucleus
b. liver cells and macrophages in the spleen
c. lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells
d. red blood cells
e. granulocytes and microphages
C
197
When an antigen is bound to a Class II MHC protein, it can activate a ________ cell.
Select one:
a. Suppressor T
b. helper T
c. NK
d. Cytotoxic T
e. Plasma
B
198
T cells and B cells can be activated only by
Select one:
a. disease-causing agents
b. pathogens
c. cells infected with viruses, bacteria or cancer cells
d. exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane
e. interlukins, interferons and colony-stimulating factors
D
199
The binding of an antibody to an antigen can result in
Select one:
a. Agglutination or precipitation
b. Neutralization of the antigen
c. All of the answers are correct
d. Complement activation and opsonization
e. inflammation
E
200
The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to
Select one:
a. all of the answers are correct
b. activate T cells
c. process antigens
d. bind antigens to glycoproteins
e. display antigen fragments
A
201
B cells are primarily activated by the activities of
Select one:
a. helper T cells
b. plasma cells
c. antigens
d. macrophages
e. antibodies
A
