MCQS 2 mess up in section 2: economics Flashcards

1
Q

if the cross-price elasticity between two goods is negative, the two goods are most likely classified as:

A
normal.

B
substitutes.

C
complements.

A

With complements, consumption goes up or down together. With a negative cross-price elasticity, as the price of one good goes up, the demand for both falls

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2
Q

A profit maximum is least likely to occur when:

A
average total cost is minimized.

B
marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

C
the difference between total revenue and total cost is maximized.

A

A
average total cost is minimized.

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3
Q

A firm is operating beyond minimum efficient scale in a perfectly competitive industry. To maintain long-term viability the most likely course of action for the firm is to:

A
operate at the current level of production.

B
increase its level of production to gain economies of scale.

C
decrease its level of production to the minimum point on the long-run average total cost curve.

A

C
decrease its level of production to the minimum point on the long-run average total cost curve.

the firm operating at greater than long-run efficient scale is subject to diseconomies of scale. It should plan to decrease its level of production.

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4
Q

A company will shut down production in the short run if total revenue is less than total:

A
fixed costs.

B
variable costs.

C
opportunity costs.

A

B
variable costs.

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5
Q

Over the long run, in an industry with perfect competition, the firm should most likely determine its optimal output quantity based on:

A
minimum efficient scale.

B
short-run average total cost.

C
marginal cost and marginal revenue.

A

A
minimum efficient scale.

To maximize long-run profit under perfect competition, a firm should operate at the minimum efficient scale point.

On the other hand, the short-run (instead of long-run) profit is determined where marginal cost equals marginal revenue.

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6
Q

Which of the following statements is most likely correct? When the price of an inferior good decreases, the quantity demanded by consumers:

A
decreases due to both the income effect and the substitution effect.

B
increases due to the substitution effect and decreases due to the income effect.

C
increases due to the income effect and decreases due to the substitution effect.

A

B
increases due to the substitution effect and decreases due to the income effect.

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7
Q

An economic forecasting firm has estimated the following equation from historical data based on the neoclassical growth model:

Potential output growth = 1.5 + 0.72 × Growth of labor + 0.28 × Growth of capital

The coefficient on the growth rate of labor (0.72) in this equation is best interpreted as:

A
the labor force participation rate.

B
the marginal productivity of labor.

C
the share of income earned by labor.

A

C
the share of income earned by labor.

In the standard Solow growth accounting equation, the coefficient on each factor’s growth rate is its share of income.

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8
Q

A country with a fiscal deficit will most likely have a combination of:

A
domestic savings in excess of private sector investment and a trade deficit.

B
domestic savings in excess of household consumption and a trade surplus.

C
a trade surplus and private sector investment in excess of domestic savings.

A

A
domestic savings in excess of private sector investment and a trade deficit.

The following equation shows that a fiscal deficit (G > T) must either be financed from a pool of domestic savings in excess of private sector investment (S > I), or a trade deficit
(X < M), or some combination of both.

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9
Q

Which of the following is most likely to cause the long-run aggregate supply curve to shift to the left?

A
Higher nominal wages

B
A decline in productivity

C
An increase in corporate taxes

A

B
A decline in productivity

Productivity measures the efficiency of labor and is the amount of output produced by workers during a given period.

A decline in productivity implies decreased efficiency.

A decline in productivity increases labor costs, decreases profitability, and results in lower output at each output price level—a leftward shift in both the short-run and long-run aggregate supply curves.

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10
Q

Convergence of incomes over time between emerging market countries and developed countries is most likely the result of:

A
total factor productivity.

B
diminishing marginal productivity of capital.

C
the exhaustion of non-renewable resources.

A

B
diminishing marginal productivity of capital.

Diminishing marginal productivity of capital means that as a country accumulates more capital per worker, the incremental boost to output declines. Thus, all else equal, economies grow more slowly as they become more capital intensive. Given the relative scarcity and hence high marginal productivity of capital in developing countries, these economies tend to grow more rapidly than developed countries. This dynamic leads to convergence in income levels over time

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11
Q

Following a sharp increase in the price of energy, the overall price level is most likely to rise in the short run:

A
and remain elevated indefinitely unless the central bank tightens.

B
but remain unchanged in the long run unless the money supply is increased.

C
and continue to rise until all prices have increased by the same proportion.

A

B
but remain unchanged in the long run unless the money supply is increased.

An increase in energy prices will shift the short-run aggregate supply curve (SRAS) to the left, reducing output and increasing prices. If the aggregate demand curve does not change—in particular, if the central bank does not expand the money supply—slack in the economy will put downward pressure on in input prices, shifting the SRAS back to its original position. In the long run, the price level will be unchanged.

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12
Q

The most likely outcome when both aggregate supply and aggregate demand increase is:

A
a rise in inflation.

B
higher employment.

C
an increase in nominal GDP.

A

B
higher employment.

Higher aggregate demand and higher aggregate supply raise real GDP and lower unemployment, meaning employment levels increase.

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13
Q

In calculating personal income for a given year, which of the following would not be subtracted from national income?

A
Indirect business taxes

B
Undistributed corporate profits

C
Unincorporated business net income

A

C
Unincorporated business net income

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14
Q

When asked for her opinion on the recession happening in her country, Shanelle Hernandez, an economist, says that the recession is likely caused by rising oil prices and the government should not intervene with fiscal or monetary policy. Hernandez most likely identifies herself as a:

A
monetarist.

B
Keynesian.

C
neoclassical economist.

A

C
neoclassical economist.

Neoclassical economists, particularly Real Business Cycle (RBC) advocates, conclude that expansions and contractions are a result of efficient responses of the economy to external real shocks that shift the supply curve.

They believe that governments should not intervene with fiscal or monetary policy because these policies affect the economy with substantial lags.

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15
Q

An economist expects the following:

The decline in the unemployment rate will result in higher revenues for home retailers.

A tighter labor market will put upward pressure on wages, compelling home retailers to raise prices.

Which type of inflation best corresponds to the economist’s expectations?

A
Stagflation

B
Cost-push inflation

C
Demand-pull inflation

A

C
Demand-pull inflation

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16
Q

Increased consumer spending in which of the following categories is most likely to indicate that an economy has been through the recovery phase and is entering the expansion phase of the business cycle?

A
Services

B
Durable goods

C
Non-durable goods

A

B
Durable goods

Because durable goods have relatively long useful lives, purchases of replacement items are relatively easy to delay.

If the economy is contracting, consumers may continue to use their current refrigerator (for example) until they are more certain about their future disposable income rather than purchasing a new one immediately.

Spending on non-durable goods (e.g., clothing) and services (e.g., legal advice) is comparatively more difficult to postpone. For this reason, increased spending on durable goods is more likely to indicate that an economy has entered the expansion phase of the business cycle.

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17
Q

The characteristic business cycle patterns of trough, expansion, peak, and contraction are most likely:

A
periodic.

B
recurrent.

C
of similar duration.

A

B
recurrent.

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18
Q

An inflation index’s failure to capture the impact of greater processing power in each new version of a particular computer included in the underlying basket of goods is most accurately described as:

A
quality bias.

B
substitution bias.

C
new product bias.

A

A
quality bias.

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19
Q

Evidence that a country is experiencing cost-push inflation is most likely to be found by analyzing:

A
commodity prices.

B
the unemployment rate.

C
the capacity utilization rate.

A

C
the capacity utilization rate.

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20
Q

As the expansion phase of the business cycle advances from early stage to late stage, businesses most likely experience a decrease in:

A
labor costs.

B
capital investment.

C
availability of qualified workers.

A

C
availability of qualified workers.

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21
Q

According to Real Business Cycle models, an economic contraction is most likely caused by:

A
sticky wages.

B
rising energy prices.

C
a contraction in the money supply.

A

B
rising energy prices.

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22
Q

Which of the following is most likely to increase after an increase in aggregate real personal income?

A
Equity prices

B
Building permits for new private housing units

C
The ratio of consumer installment debt to income

A

C
The ratio of consumer installment debt to income

Aggregate real personal income is a coincident indicator of the business cycle, and the ratio of consumer installment debt to income is a lagging indicator.

Increases in the ratio of consumer installment debt follow increases in average aggregate income during the typical business cycle.

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23
Q

In order to avoid severe economic fluctuations, the monetarist school of economic thought most likely emphasizes:

A
lowering interest rates.

B
shifting aggregate demand.

C
maintaining control of the money supply.

A

C
maintaining control of the money supply.

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24
Q

Which of the following categories of consumer spending is least likely to increase when the business cycle is in the expansion phase?

A
Services

B
Durable goods

C
Non-durable goods

A

C
Non-durable goods

Spending on durables and services is cyclical and will increase when the business cycle is in the expansion phase. Spending on non-durables does not change much throughout the business cycle.

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25
Q

When the spread between 10-year US Treasury yields and the federal funds rate narrows and at the same time the prime rate stays unchanged, this mix of indicators most likely forecasts future economic:

A
growth.

B
decline.

C
stability.

A

B
decline.

26
Q

The impact of substitution bias will most likely be greatest if inflation is calculated using a:

A
Fisher index.

B
Paasche index.

C
Laspeyres index.

A

C
Laspeyres index.

An inflation rate determined by a Laspeyres index assumes that consumers purchase the same basket of goods as the previous period.

If consumers substitute a more expensive good in the basket for a less expensive one, this shift is more likely to be captured by a Paasche index or a Fisher index (which is the geometric mean of the Paasche index and the Laspeyres index). Failure to capture such a shift is referred to as substitution bias.

27
Q

Current economic statistics indicating little change in services inflation, rising residential building permits, and increasing average duration of unemployment are best interpreted as:

A
conflicting evidence about the direction of the economy.

B
evidence that a cyclical upturn is expected to occur in the future.

C
evidence that a cyclical downturn is expected to occur in the future.

A

C
evidence that a cyclical upturn is expected to occur in the future.

Rising building permits—a leading indicator—indicate that an upturn is expected to occur or continue.

Increasing average duration of unemployment—a lagging indicator—indicates that a downturn has occurred,

the lack of any change in services inflation—also a lagging indicator—is neither negative nor positive for the direction of the economy.

Taken together, these statistics indicate that a cyclical upturn may be expected to occur.

28
Q

Of the following statements regarding the Producer Price Index (PPI), which is the least likely? The PPI:

A
can influence the future CPI.

B
category weights can vary more widely than analogous CPI terms.

C
is used more frequently than CPI as a benchmark for adjusting labor contract payments.

A

C
is used more frequently than CPI as a benchmark for adjusting labor contract payments.

29
Q

The characteristic of national consumer price indexes that is most likely shared across major economies worldwide is:

A
the geographic areas covered in their surveys.

B
the weights they place on covered goods and services.

C
their use in the determination of macroeconomic policy.

A

C
their use in the determination of macroeconomic policy.

Central banks typically use consumer price indexes to monitor inflation and evaluate their monetary policies.

30
Q

A prolonged period of an official interest rate very close to zero without an increase in economic growth most likely suggests:

A
quantitative easing must be limited to be successful.

B
there may be limits to the effectiveness of monetary policy.

C
targeting reserve levels is more important than targeting interest rates.

A

B
there may be limits to the effectiveness of monetary policy.

31
Q

In implementing monetary policy, the primary objective of central banks is most likely to:

A
maintain price stability.

B
maintain stable currency exchange rates.

C
ensure that the economy is at full employment.

A

A
maintain price stability.

32
Q

Which of the following is the most likely example of a tool of fiscal policy?

A
Public financing of a power plant.

B
Regulation of the payment system.

C
Central bank’s purchase of government bonds.

A

A
Public financing of a power plant.

33
Q

When a central bank announces a decrease in its official policy rate, the desired impact is an increase in:

A
investment.

B
interbank borrowing rates.

C
the national currency’s value in exchange for other currencies.

A

A
investment.

34
Q

Which of the following actions is most likely to be taken as part of an expansionary monetary policy?

A
Lowering reserve requirements

B
Increasing social transfer payments

C
Reducing tax rates for individuals and corporations

A

A
Lowering reserve requirements

35
Q

The least likely limitation to the effectiveness of monetary policy is that central banks cannot:

A
accurately determine the neutral rate of interest.

B
regulate the willingness of financial institutions to lend.

C
control amounts that economic agents deposit into banks.

A

A
accurately determine the neutral rate of interest.

36
Q

Given an independent central bank, monetary policy actions are more likely than fiscal policy actions to be:

A
implementable quickly.

B
effective when a specific group is targeted.

C
effective when combating a deflationary economy.

A

A
implementable quickly.

37
Q

Which of the following equations is a consequence of the Fisher effect?

A
Nominal interest rate = Real interest rate + Expected rate of inflation.

B
Real interest rate = Nominal interest rate + Expected rate of inflation.

C
Nominal interest rate = Real interest rate + Market risk premium.

A

A
Nominal interest rate = Real interest rate + Expected rate of inflation.

38
Q

Which statement regarding fiscal policy is most accurate?

A
Cyclically adjusted budget deficits are appropriate indicators of fiscal policy.

B
To raise business capital spending, personal income taxes should be reduced.

C
An increase in the budget surplus is associated with expansionary fiscal policy.

A

A
Cyclically adjusted budget deficits are appropriate indicators of fiscal policy.

39
Q

Monetarists are most likely to believe:

A
there is a causal relationship running from inflation to money.

B
inflation can be affected by changing the money supply growth rate.

C
rapid financial innovation in the market increases the effectiveness of monetary policy.

A

B
inflation can be affected by changing the money supply growth rate.

By definition, monetarists believe prices may be controlled by manipulating the money supply.

40
Q

Which of the following best describes a fundamental assumption when monetary policy is used to influence the economy?

A
Financial markets are efficient.

B
Money is not neutral in the short run.

C
Official rates do not affect exchange rates.

A

B
Money is not neutral in the short run.

If money were neutral in the short run, monetary policy would not be effective in influencing the economy.

41
Q

exogenous risks are best described as those that:

A
are known and evolve and expand over a period of time.

B
evolve around set dates, such as elections, new legislation, or other date-driven milestones, such as holidays or political anniversaries.

C
are sudden or unanticipated and impact either a country’s cooperative stance, the ability of non-state actors to globalize, or both.

A

C
are sudden or unanticipated and impact either a country’s cooperative stance, the ability of non-state actors to globalize, or both.

42
Q

Cabotage

A

the right to transport passengers or goods within a country by a foreign firm. Many countries—including those with multilateral trade agreements—impose restrictions on cabotage across transportation subsectors, meaning that shippers, airlines, and truck drivers are not allowed to transport goods and services within another country’s borders. Allowing cabotage requires coordination on areas like physical security and economic coordination, a highly multilateral (multi-tool) process.

43
Q

Which of the following outcomes is most likely a result of globalization?

A
Unequal gains

B
Increased independence

C
Decreased access to talent

A

A
Unequal gains

44
Q

An applicable conclusion drawn from the Geopolitical Risk Index (GPR) is that:

A
high geopolitical risk results in tangible macroeconomic effects.

B
recurring geopolitical risk events lead to reduced corporate investment.

C
the adverse impact of actual events is greater over time than that of the threat of such events.

A

A
high geopolitical risk results in tangible macroeconomic effects.

45
Q

Which of the following actions by a country is most likely a form of geopolitical cooperation?

A
Acting as a conduit for trade

B
Engaging in rules standardization

C
Opting to use soft power over military retaliation

A

B
Engaging in rules standardization

46
Q

A US company expanding critical spare part inventories for local customers made at its existing Canadian facility after a supply chain disruption is most likely using the coping tactic of:

A
reshoring the essentials.

B
re-globalizing production.

C
doubling down on key markets.

A

A
reshoring the essentials.

he COVID-19 pandemic has highlighted the need for certain essential supply chains to be rebuilt domestically for emergency situations, with availability of critical spare parts being an analogy. The close integration of the US and Canadian economies through the revised NAFTA agreement effectively makes expanded production at an existing Canadian factory an example of reducing manufacturing risk by relocating to home countries via reshoring.

47
Q

Which of the following is the most likely a disadvantage of entering a regional trading block?

A
Increased prices

B
Decreased efficiency

C
Local market sectors are vulnerable

A

C
Local market sectors are vulnerable

A regional trading block increases free trade within a region. That typically increases efficiency (since countries are able to specialize), decreasing prices. Some local industries may be harmed, particularly where an industry in one country is operating at a disadvantage to that industry in other countries.

Regional trade agreements can result in less efficient allocations only when trading is diverted away from more cost-effective non-member countrie

48
Q

According to the Heckscher–Ohlin model, when trade opens:

A
the scarce factor gains relative to the abundant factor in each country.

B
the abundant factor gains relative to the scarce factor in each country.

C
income is redistributed between countries but not within each country.

A

B
the abundant factor gains relative to the scarce factor in each country.

49
Q

in the Ricardian trade model, a country captures more of the gains from trade if:

A
it produces all products while its trade partner specializes in one good.

B
the terms of trade are closer to its autarkic prices than to its partner’s autarkic prices.

C
the terms of trade are closer to its partner’s autarkic prices than to its autarkic prices.

A

C
the terms of trade are closer to its partner’s autarkic prices than to its autarkic prices.

50
Q

The sale of mineral rights would be captured in which of the following balance of payments components?

A
Capital account.

B
Current account.

C
Financial account

A

A
Capital account.

The capital account measures capital transfers and sale and purchase of non-produced, non-financial assets such as mineral rights and intangible assets.

51
Q

Which of the following chronic deficit conditions is least alarming to the deficit country’s creditors?

A
High consumption.

B
High private investment.

C
High government spending.

A

B
High private investment.

A current account deficit tends to result from low private saving, high private investment, low government savings, or a combination of the three. Of these choices, only high investments can increase productive resources and improve future ability to repay creditors.

52
Q

Which of the following organizations helps to keep global systemic risk under control by preventing contagion in scenarios such as the 2010 Greek sovereign debt crisis?

A
World Bank Group (World Bank).

B
World Trade Organization (WTO).

C
International Monetary Fund (IMF).

A

C
International Monetary Fund (IMF).

From an investment perspective, the IMF helps to keep country-specific market risk and global systemic risk under control. The Greek sovereign debt crisis on 2010, which threatened to destabilize the entire European banking system, is a recent example. The IMF’s mission is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system, the system of exchange rates and international payments which enables countries to buy goods and services from each other.

53
Q

Which of the following statements is most accurate?

A
A country cannot improve its welfare by imposing tariffs

B
A country will improve its welfare by imposing tariffs as long as other countries do not retaliate

C
A country’s welfare may decrease when it imposes tariffs on goods even if it is large enough to influence the global prices of those goods

A

C
A country’s welfare may decrease when it imposes tariffs on goods even if it is large enough to influence the global prices of those goods

54
Q

Which of the following trade restrictions is likely to result in the greatest welfare loss for the importing country?

A
A tariff.

B
An import quota.

C
A voluntary export restraint.

A

C
A voluntary export restraint.

55
Q

Which of the following statements is most accurate? In a country that has adopted a fixed parity regime, the central bank:

A
cannot act as a lender of last resort.

B
will allow the exchange rate to float within a band around one or more currencies.

C
must maintain sufficient foreign currency reserves to back to entire monetary base.

A

B
will allow the exchange rate to float within a band around one or more currencies.

Fixed parity regimes allow the domestic currency to float within a band of ± 1% around the target exchange rate with either a single foreign currency or a basket of foreign currencies.

56
Q

A country with a trade deficit will most likely:

A
have an offsetting capital account surplus.

B
save enough to fund its investment spending.

C
buy assets from foreigners to fund the imbalance.

A

A
have an offsetting capital account surplus.

A trade deficit must be exactly matched by an offsetting capital account surplus to fund the deficit. A capital account surplus reflects borrowing from foreigners (an increase in domestic liabilities) and/or selling assets to foreigners (a decrease in domestic assets). A capital account surplus is often referred to as a “capital inflow” because the net effect is foreign investment in the domestic economy.

57
Q

A country with a persistent trade surplus is being pressured to let its currency appreciate. Which of the following best describes the adjustment that must occur if currency appreciation is to be effective in reducing the trade surplus?

A
Domestic investment must decline relative to saving.

B
Foreigners must increase investment relative to saving.

C
Global capital flows must shift toward the domestic market.

A

C
Global capital flows must shift toward the domestic market.

The trade surplus cannot decline unless the capital account deficit also declines. Regardless of the mix of assets bought and sold, foreigners must buy more assets from (or sell fewer assets to) domestic issuers/investors.

58
Q

Which of the following statements is most likely correct regarding currencies that trade in foreign exchange markets?

A
The currency with the higher interest rate will trade at a forward discount

B
Currencies trade in foreign exchange markets based on real exchange rates

C
An increase in a direct exchange rate quote means that the domestic currency is appreciating versus the foreign currency

A

A
The currency with the higher interest rate will trade at a forward discount

59
Q

If the base currency in a forward exchange rate quote is trading at a forward discount, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A
The forward points will be positive.

B
The forward percentage will be negative.

C
The base currency is expected to appreciate versus the price currency.

A

B
The forward percentage will be negative.

60
Q

Which of the following statements is most accurate? A country that joins a monetary union:

A
does not have its own legal tender.

B
inherits the credit-worthiness of other member countries.

C
coordinates its monetary policy with those of other member nations.

A

A
does not have its own legal tender.

61
Q

In practice, both a fixed parity regime and a target zone regime allow the exchange rate to float within a band around the parity level. The most likely rationale for the band is that the band allows the monetary authority to:

A
be less active in the currency market.

B
earn a spread on its currency transactions.

C
exercise more discretion in monetary policy.

A

C
exercise more discretion in monetary policy.

62
Q

In a country that has adopted the US dollar as its medium of exchange, the central bank most likely:

A
must ensure the same interest rate on US dollar deposits as in the United States.

B
cannot use monetary policy to facilitate the growth of international trade and capital flows.

C
must maintain sufficient foreign exchange reserves to monetize the full amount of domestic government debt

A

B
cannot use monetary policy to facilitate the growth of international trade and capital flows.