MECIR Theory Flashcards
Theory for MECIR. Covers more than necessary i.e. wx radar knowlege and other stuff you may want to skip. Accurate as of MAR 2016 (315 cards)
1
Q
What climb requirement to what height is required for a multi-engine aircraft with one engine inoperative?
A
1% up to 5000ft.
2
Q
When must an aircraft be equipped with an altitude alerting system?
A
Piston-engine aircraft and unpressurised turbine aircraft operating above 15,000 ft in CTA under IFR.
Pressurised turbine aircraft in CTA under IFR.
3
Q
When must an aircraft be equipped with an assigned altitude indicator?
A
Any IFR aircraft operating in CTA without an altitude alerting system.
4
Q
When is GPWS or TAWS required?
A
GPWS - turbine aircraft with MTOW of more than 15,000kg or carrying 10 or more passengers and is engaged in RPT or charter.
TAWS - turbine aircraft with MTOW less than 5700kg but more than 10 passengers.
5
Q
What instruments are required for aircraft with MTOW more than 5700kg IFR charter?
A
ASI with means of preventing malfunctioning due to either condensation or icing. 2 Altimeters Magnetic Compass Timepiece VSI OAT 2 AH's DG Turn and slip Means of discerning whether the power supply to the gyroscopic instruments is working. Machmeter in turbo-jet Alternate static port Duplicated power supply
6
Q
What instruments are required for aircraft operating under aerial work or private IFR or freight only charter less than 5700kg under IFR?
A
ASI Altimeter Magnetic Compass Timepiece (may be carried on the pilot) VSI OAT AH DG Turn and Slip Means of indicating whether the power supply to the gyroscopic instruments is working. Means of preventing malfunctioning due to either condensation or icing of at least 1 airspeed indicating system. Alternate static source Duplicated power supply
7
Q
What operations can a single engine aircraft fly in?
A
Private
Aerial Work
Charter operations not involving passengers
Charter or RPT involving passengers if the operation is approved in writing by CASA and the operations are conducted in a turbine aircraft.
8
Q
Who is responsible for determining visibility and cloud base for take-off on an IFR flight?
A
PIC
9
Q
How does the PIC determine cloud base before take-off?
A
Using current available weather forecasts and reports.
10
Q
How does a PIC determine cloud base for landing?
A
From the cockpit of the aircraft while in flight.
11
Q
An aircraft whilst on a route segment must fly above the LSALT except _____?
A
During take-off or landing
During an arrival or departure procedure being flown in accordance with any instructions published in the AIP and at a safe height above the terrain.
During an authorised instrument departure or approach procedure.
In day VMC.
Flown in accordance with instructions from ATC.
12
Q
What does an instrument rating let you do?
A
Fly under the IFR or night under the VFR.
13
Q
When are you authorised to pilot an aircraft in a single-pilot operation under the IFR?
A
Only if you passed the flight test in a single-pilot aircraft or completed your IPC in a single-pilot aircraft.
14
Q
When are you authorised you conduct a circling approach under the IFR?
A
If the holder passed the flight test for the rating within the previous 12 months and the flight test included a circling approach or the holder’s most recent IPC included a circling approach or the holder is successfully participating in a training and checking system including circling approaches.
15
Q
When does the regulation on recency of approaches not apply?
A
If you have passed an IPC within the previous 3 months or the holder is successfully participating in a operator’s training and checking system for IFR.
16
Q
How many approaches must be completed in the previous 90 days to be authorised to fly IFR? What can they be done in?
A
- In an aircraft or approved flight simulation training device.
17
Q
How many approaches have to be completed in an aircraft or flight simulation training device of the same category before you can fly IFR?
A
1.
18
Q
When can you conduct a 2D approach?
A
When you have completed a 2D approach in the last 90 days.
19
Q
When can you conduct a 3D approach?
A
When you have completed a 3D approach in the last 90 days.
20
Q
When can you conduct an azimuth guidance approach?
A
When you have completed an azimuth guidance approach in the last 90 days.
21
Q
When can you conduct a CDI approach?
A
When you have completed a CDI approach in the last 90 days.
22
Q
What recency requirements are involved for a single-pilot operation?
A
Flight or simulated flight under IFR in the last 6 months.
The flight must have a duration of at least one hour and include one instrument approach.
23
Q
If you pass your MECIR on 3rd August, when is your next IPC due?
A
Before 31st of August the following year.
End of the month in a years time.
24
Q
If your last IPC was 5th November 2016 and you sit your next IPC on the 21st of September 2017, when is your instrument rating valid until?
A
30th November 2018
25
What does NVFR rating let you do?
Fly under the VFR at night other than in an operation using a night vision imaging system or a night aerial application below 500ft AGL.
26
What are the recency requirements for NVFR?
In the last 6 months conduct at least one take-off and landing at night in the aircraft category whilst controlling the aircraft or been assessed as competent to conduct a flight at night in an aircraft of that category by a flight instructor who holds a night VFR training endorsement.
27
How long until a flight review is required for a multi-engine NVFR rating?
24 months.
28
What is a balked landing?
A landing manoeuvre that is unexpectedly discontinued below DA/MDA or beyond the MAP.
29
What is a base turn?
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track. The tracks are not reciprocal.
30
What is a decision altitude?
A specified altitude or height in the precision approach or approach with vertical guidance at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.
31
What is the definition of a discrete code?
A four-digit SSR code with the last two digits not being "00".
32
What is a DME distance?
The line of sight distance (slant distance) from the source of a DME signal to the receiving antenna.
33
What is the Final Approach Course?
A bearing/radial/track of an instrument approach leading to a runway or an extended runway centreline all without regard to distance.
34
What is the Final Approach?
The part of the instrument approach procedure which commences at the specified final approach fix or point, or where such a fix or point is not specified:
At the end of the last procedure turn, base turn or inbound turn of a racetrack procedure, if specified, or;
At the point of interception of the last track specified in the approach procedure; and ends at a point in the vicinity of an aerodrome from which:
A landing can be made or a MAP is initiated.
35
What is the Final Approach Fix?
A specified point on a non-precision approach which identifies the commencement of the final segment. The FAF is designated in the profile view of Jeppesen Terminal charts by a Maltese Cross symbol.
36
What is the Final Approach Point?
A specified point on the glide path of a precision instrument approach which identifies the commencement of the final segment.
37
What is the Grid Minimum Off-Route Altitude (Grid MORA)?
The altitude which provides terrain and man-made structure clearance within the section outlined by latitude and longitude lines. MORA does not provide for navaid signal coverage or communication coverage.
Grid MORA values derived by Jeppesen clear all terrain and man-made structures by 1000ft in areas where the highest elevations are 5000ft MSL or lower.
MORA values clear all terrain and man-made structures by 2000ft in areas where the highest elevations are 5001MSL or higher.
Grid MORA values derived by the State Authority provide 2000ft clearance in mountainous areas and 1000ft in non-mountainous areas.
38
What is ILS Category I?
An ILS procedure which provides for an approach to a decision height not lower than 60m and a visibility not less than 800m or RVR not less than 550m.
39
What is ILS Category II?
An ILS procedure which provides for an approach to a decision height lower than 60m but not lower than 30m and a RVR not less than 300m for Cat A, B, C (D with auto-landing) and not less than 350m for cat D without auto landing.
40
What is ILS Category IIIA?
An ILS approach procedure which provides for an approach with either a decision height lower than 30m or with no decision height and with a runway visual range of not less than 175m.
41
What is ILS Category IIIB?
An ILS approach procedure which provides for approach with either a decision height lower than 15m or with no decision height and with a runway visual range of less than 175m but not less than 50m.
42
What is ILS Category IIIC?
An ILS approach procedure which provides for approach with no decision height and no RVR limitations.
43
What is the Initial Approach Fix?
A fix that marks the beginning of the initial segment and the end of the arrival segment, if applicable. In RNAV applications this fix is normally defined by a fly-by waypoint.
44
What is the Initial Approach Segment?
The segment of an IAP between the IAF and the intermediate approach fix or where applicable, the final approach point or fix.
45
What is an Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP)?
A series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles form the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point form which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en-route obstacle clearance criteria apply.
46
What is a non-precision approach?
An IAP which utilizes lateral guidance but does not utilize vertical guidance.
47
What is a precision approach?
An IAP using precision lateral and vertical guidance.
48
What is the intermediate approach segment?
That segment of an instrument approach procedure between either the intermediate approach fix or point or between the end of a reversal, racetrack or dead reckoning track procedure and final approach fix or point as appropriate.
49
What is the intermediate fix?
A fix that marks the end of an initial segment and the beginning of the intermediate segment. In RNAV applications, this fix is normally defined by a fly-by waypoint.
50
What is a minimum descent altitude (MDA)?
A specified altitude in a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
51
What is a minimum enroute IFR altitude? (LSALT)
The lowest published altitude between radio fixes that meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes and in many countries assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.
52
What is a minimum sector altitude (MSA)?
The lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum clearance of 1000ft above all objects located in an area contained within a sector of a circle of 25nm radius centred on a radio aid to navigation.
53
What is a minimum vectoring altitude (MVA)?
The lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller.
54
What is a missed approach?
A maneuver conducted by a pilot when an IAP cannot be completed to a landing. The route of flight and altitude are shown on IAP charts. A pilot executing a missed approach prior to the missed approach point must continue along the final approach to the MAP. The pilot may climb immediately to the altitude specified in the missed approach procedure.
55
What is the missed approach point (MAP)?
That point in an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed.
56
What is a reversal procedure?
A procedure designed to enable aircraft to reverse direction during the initial approach segment of an instrument approach procedure. The sequence may include procedure turns or base turns.
57
What is RNP type?
A containment value expressed as a distance in nautical miles from the intended position with which flights would be for at least 95% of the total flying time.
E.g. RNP4 represents a navigational accuracy of plus or minus 4nm on a 95% containment basis.
58
What is runway visual range (RVR)?
The range over which the pilot can see the runway surface marking or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line.
59
What is an IFR Visual Approach?
An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to the terrain.
60
What is a visual descent point (VDP)?
A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced, provided the approach threshold of that runway, or approach lights, or other markings identifiable with the approach end of the runway are clearly visible to the pilot.
61
Rated coverage of a VOR below 5000?
60nm
62
Rated coverage of a VOR between 5000 - 10000
90nm
63
Rated coverage of LOC at 2000AGL within +/- 10 degrees of course line?
25nm
64
Rated coverage of LOC below 5000?
30nm
65
Rated coverage of LOC above 5000?
50nm
66
What system is the GPS based on?
WGS-84
67
What can GNSS be used for under the IFR?
DR substitute
IFR Area Navigation
RNAV NPA
68
What special planning requirements apply to a TSO-129 for RNAV approaches?
An alternate airport with a fixed ground-based navigation aid must be chosen if only an RNAV is available at the arrival aerdrome.
69
List the following in regards to IFR in Class A airspace:
Are they allowed?
Who are they separated from?
Speed Limitation
Yes.
All other IFR aircraft.
N/A
70
List the following in regards to IFR in Class C airspace:
Are they allowed?
Who are they separated from?
Speed Limitation
Yes.
IFR, SVFR, VFR.
250 KIAS below 10,000ft
71
List the following in regards to IFR in Class D airspace:
Are they allowed?
Who are they separated from?
Speed Limitation
```
Yes.
IFR, SVFR
Traffic information on VFR.
200KIAS at or below 2500ft AAL within 4nm of the primary class D airport.
250KIAS in the remaining.
```
72
List the following in regards to IFR in Class E airspace:
Are they allowed?
Who are they separated from?
Speed Limitation
Yes.
IFR
Traffic information on VFR.
250 KIAS below 10,000ft
73
List the following in regards to IFR in Class G airspace:
Are they allowed?
Who are they separated from?
Speed Limitation
Yes.
Nil.
Traffic information on IFR, VFR
250 KIAS below 10,000 ft
74
What lighting is required for a PVT, AWK or CHTR aircraft arriving at an airport at night?
Runway edge lighting
Threshold lighting
Illuminated wind direction indicator
Obstacle lighting when specified in local procedures
75
What lighting is required for an RPT aircraft arriving at an airport at night?
```
Runway edge lighting
Threshold lighting
Illuminated wind direction indicator
Obstacle lighting when specified in local procedures
Taxiway lighting
Apron floodlighting
```
All lighting must be electric
76
If an illuminated wind direction indicator is not available, can an aircraft still operate to an airport at night?
Yes - if wind velocity information can be obtained from an approved observer.
77
When airport lighting is required and PAL is not being used, between what periods must the lighting be operating on departure?
10 minutes before to 30 minutes after take-off.
78
When airport lighting is required and PAL is not being used, between what periods must the lighting be operating on arrival?
30 minutes before ETA to the time landing and taxiing has been completed.
79
When is an alternate required for an IFR flight?
Aids - Require the right amount of aids for the aircraft operation.
For RPT or Charter - Either 2 in aircraft and one on ground or one of two types of aid in aircraft.
For Aerial Work or Private - One in aircraft and one on ground.
If planning to a destination airport with no radio navigation aid, an alternate is not required if cloud is forecast less than SCT below final route segment LSALT + 500ft and forecast visibility more than 8km.
Ceiling - Not greater than SCT below alternate minima printed on Jeppesen Approach charts.
Visibility - Not less than specified on Jeppesen Approach charts.
Wind - Not forecast greater than crosswind component.
Prov/Prob - Provisional TAF or Probability of weather deteriorating past the above minimas
Lighting - Lighting required as per operation available.
Storms - Are there thunderstorms forecast?
80
Do buffer periods apply to TTF's?
No.
81
When do you NOT have to provide an alternate for a destination under night VFR?
The destination is served by a radio navigation aid (NDB/VOR) and the aircraft has a system capable of using that aid or the aircraft is fitted with an approved GNSS receiver.
82
If an alternate is required under night VFR, how far away can the alternate be?
Within one hour flight time of the destination.
83
When is an alternate required at night to an aerodrome with Portable Lighting?
If there is no responsible person between the times specified.
84
When is an alternate required at night to an aerodrome without Standby Power?
If there is no responsible person and portable lighting available between the period specified.
85
When is an alternate required at night to an aerodrome with PAL?
If there is no responsible person between the times specified.
86
For an RPT (excluding cargo-only operations or an aircraft below 3500kg MTOW) aircraft or one with single VHF communication, what must the alternate airport be equipped with? (For Night)
Either a lighting system not PAL
or
Served by PAL with a responsible person.
87
For non-RPT, RPT engaged in cargo-only ops and RPT below 3500kg MTOW, what are the requirements in terms of PAL at an alternate?
The alternate may have PAL without a responsible person as long as the aircraft has duel VHF or a single VHF and HF with 30 minutes holding fuel.
88
If you choose to hold until morning instead of designated an alternate, until what time must you carry holding fuel for?
First light + 10 minutes.
89
Does an alternate need to have standby power or standby portable lighting?
No.
90
What is a 'responsible person'?
One who has been instructed in, and is competent to display, the standard runway lighting with portable lights.
91
If a partial lighting failure occurs at night whereby there is doubled spacing of runway lights i.e 60m to 120m, what requirements apply to visibility requirements at the minima on approach?
In VMC: No restriction
| In Less than VMC: Prevailing visibility must be greater than the published minima multiplied by a factor of 1.5.
92
What does a steady green light in flight mean?
Authorised to land if no collision risk exists.
93
What does a steady red light in flight mean?
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
94
What does a flashing green light mean in flight?
Return for landing.
95
What does a flashing red light mean in flight?
Airport unsafe - do not land.
96
What does a flashing white light mean in flight?
No significance.
97
What does a steady green light mean on the ground?
Authorised to take-off if no collision risk exists.
98
What does a steady red light mean on the ground?
Stop.
99
What does a flashing green light mean on the ground?
Authorised to taxi if no collision risk exists.
100
What does a red flashing light mean on the ground?
Taxi clear of landing area in use.
101
What does a white flashing light mean on the ground?
Return to the starting point on the airport.
102
When should PAL be activated on departure?
Before taxi
103
When should PAL be activated on arrival?
Within 15nm of AD and above LSALT.
104
In excess of what amount of error would deem an IFR altimeter u/s?
+/- 75ft
105
If two altimeters are required for an operation, what happens if one reads within 60ft and the other reads between 60-75ft?
The flight may continue but the second altimeter must be checked at the first point of landing and must be accurate to within 60ft.
106
If one altimeter are required for an operation, what happens if one reads within 60ft and the other reads between 60-75ft?
The operation may continue. If the other altimeter reads more than 75ft in error it must be placarded unserviceable.
107
If one altimeters are required for an operation, what happens if you only have one and it has an error between 60-75ft?
You may continue to the first point of landing then recheck the altimeter which must be accurate to within 60ft.
108
What operations may be conducted in a single-engine aircraft under the IFR?
Private, airwork and freight-only charter.
109
How must a flight under the IFR be navigated?
By:
A full time licensed navigator; or
An approved area navigation system that meets performance requirements of the intended airspace or route; or
Use of a radio aid system after making allowances for possible tracking errors of 9 degrees from the last positive fix, the aircraft will come within the rated coverage of a radio aid which can be used to fix the position of the aircraft. The maximum time interval between positive fixes must not exceed two hours; or
Visual reference to the ground or water by day on route segments where suitable en route radio navigation aids are not available, provided that weather conditions permit flight in VMC and the visual position foxing requirements of the VFR are met.
110
How accurate must a timepiece be?
Within 30s.
111
What is the order of precision for use of radio navigation aids for tracking?
Localizer, GNSS, VOR, then NDB.
112
What is a positive fix?
One determined by passage of the aircraft over:
A NDB; or
A VOR station, TACAN site or marker beacon; or
A DME; or
Is one determined by the intersection of two or more position lines which intersect with angles of not less than 45 degrees and which are obtained from NDB's, VOR's, localizers or DME's in any combination. A position line must be within the rated coverage of the aid. For a fix entirely from NDB's, the position lines must be within 30nm from each of the NDB's; or
Is one determined by GNSS meeting the requirements for area navigation.
113
After what deviation within controlled airspace must you notify ATC of your deviation for a VOR, LOC, NDB, DME, GNSS or Visual Tracking?
```
VOR - half-scale deflection
LOC - half scale deflection
NDB - +/- 5 degrees
DME - +/- 2nm
GNSS - half-scale deflection for the current mode
Visual Tracking - +/- 1nm
```
114
What is the CDI scale for a TSO-129 in en-route, terminal and approach mode?
5nm, 1nm, 0.3nm
115
What is the CDI scale for a TSO-145 in en-route, terminal and approach mode?
2nm, 1nm,
116
What navigation aids are required for an RPT operation?
2 ADF or VOR or TSO-145 and 1 DME or GNSS (including at least one ADF or VOR.
or
2 TSO-145's
117
What navigation aids are required for a charter/airwork operation above 5700kg MTOW?
2 ADF or VOR or TSO-145 and 1 DME or GNSS (including at least one ADF or VOR.
or
2 TSO-145's
118
What navigation aids are required for a charter/airwork operation below 5700kg MTOW and private in CTA?
2 ADF, VOR, DME or GNSS (including at least 1 ADF or VOR)
or
1 TSO-145
119
What navigation aids are required for a charter/airwork operation below 5700kg MTOW and private in non-CTA?
1 ADF, VOR, TSO-145
120
What navigation aids are required for night VFR?
1 ADF, VOR, GNSS
121
What systems are required for an ILS/localizer operation and is there any time these aren't required?
A 75 MHz Marker Beacon Receiver.
Not required for CAT 1 operations when a serviceable DME or GNSS is fitted and glide slope guidance and accuracy can be checked by reference to information provided on the appropriate instrument approach chart.
122
When is an airborne weather radar required?
IFR RPT and charter aircraft required to be crewed by two or more pilots must be fitted with an approved airborne weather radar system.
Unpressurized turbine engine aircraft with an MTOW of less than 5700kg and unpressurized piston aircraft are exempt from this.
123
If an aircraft requiring an airborne weather radar has an unservicable weather radar, can the flight depart?
Only if there is no forecasts indicating probability of thunderstorms of cloud formations associated with severe turbulence.
124
If ATC give a clearance or requirement based on a GNSS distance and RAIM is not available, is there a requirement to let them know?
Yes.
125
If you give a GPS distance and RAIM isn't currently available but has been within the past 5 minutes, what must the call be suffixed with?
Negative RAIM.
126
When must ATC be advised about the status of your RAIM?
If RAIM is lost for periods greater than 5 minutes even if the GPS is still providing position information.
RAIM is not available when ATC requests GPS distance, or if an ATC clearance or requirement based on GPS distance is imposed.
GPS is in DR mode or experiences loss of navigation function for more than one minute.
Indicated displacement from track centreline exceeds 2 nm.
127
If valid position information is lost or non-RAIM operation exceeds 5 minutes on the GPS, what must you do with your tracking?
Track off another navigation source until RAIM is restored.
128
When RAIM comes back online after an outage which required you to notify ATC of your loss of RAIM, what must be done before you can track off the GPS?
ATC must be notified to reassess the separation standards.
129
When notifying ATC of RAIM status, what two phrases are used to indicate the status or the RAIM?
"RAIM FAILURE" or "RAIM RESTORED"
130
What is the difference between minimum fuel and emergency fuel?
Minimum fuel means a plane is committed to land at a specific airport due to the fact that any change to plan will result in using part of the fixed reserve. This is NOT an emergency condition and the pilot should not expect any priority tracking.
Emergency fuel is when the planned fuel on landing at the nearest suitable airport for landing will include the use of fixed reserve. It will be notified by the phrase "MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL"
131
If a forecast is required for a flight and cannot be obtained, when is the flight permitted to depart?
If weather at the departure point will permit the safe return of the aircraft within one hour of departure and a forecast can be obtained for the intended destination within 30 minutes from departure.
132
What are the forecast requirements for night VFR under private, airwork or charter operations?
Forecast must indicate that the flight can be conducted in VMC at a height not less than 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 10nm either side of the track.
133
When must the destination and alternate aerodrome forecasts be valid for?
Not less than 30 minutes before and 60 minutes after the planned ETA.
134
What requirements apply to an aircraft operating under IFR at night with a MTOW of less than 5700kg planning to a destination without a radio navigation aid or IAP?
Sufficient fuel must be carried to permit flight to a qualified alternate aerodrome.
The aircraft must be able to be navigated to the aerodrome and alternate aerodrome using IFR navigation requirements.
Descent below LSALT must not be commenced until the aircraft is positively fixed within 3nm from the destination aerodrome and the aerodrome lighting has been visually identified. Subsequent maneuvering for descent and landing must be in VMC and confined within 3nm of the destination aerodrome.
The pilot is responsible for ensuring that they are familiar with all terrain and obstacles surrounding the aerodrome within the 3nm circling area and the aircraft is maneuvered for landing at a height sufficient to maintain the obstacle clearance specified for circling. (300ft for Cat A and B).
Aerodrome lighting must comply with the requirements of runway lighting as applicable.
135
What requirements apply to an aircraft operating under IFR at night with a MTOW of more than 5700kg?
The aircraft must only plan to a destination which has an approved IAP for which the pilot is qualified for.
However, an aircraft may plan to such a destination which has an IAP but the navigation aid for the IAP has failed, only if:
Enough fuel is carried to permit flight to a qualified alternate aerodrome.
The aircraft can be navigated to the destination and the alternate in accordance with IFR navigation requirements.
Descent below the LSALT/MSA must only occur in accordance with requirements for visual approaches at night.
136
When do IFR aircraft have to put in a flight plan?
Always.
137
On first contact with ATC is it a requirement for an IFR to notify number of POB?
Yes.
138
What are the ATC responsibilities when a pilot has been issued a "visual departure"?
ATC must ensure the cloud base is such that the pilot can maintain flight in VMC below the MVA, MSA or LSALT before issuing a visual departure.
The word "visual" must be used when issuing any heading or altitude instructions under the MVA, MSA or LSALT.
139
What are a pilot's responsibilities when issued with a "visual departure"?
A pilot must not request a visual departure if the cloud base is such that the pilot can maintain flight in VMC below the MVA, MSA or LSALT or the pilot cannot maintain VMC if the crusing level is below LSALT.
The pilot must maintain track(s), heading(s) authorised by ATC.
Remain not less than 500ft above the lower limit of CTA.
Maintain obstacle clearance visually.
140
When may an aircraft request a VFR departure as an IFR aircraft?
(Different to a VISUAL departure)
In Class D with the expectation of receiving an IFR clearance en-route.
141
What must an IFR pilot conducting a VFR departure comply with?
Must comply with the VFR.
Be responsible for traffic separation within Class D.
Must obtain clearance before entering Class A or C airspace.
Must obtain clearance before resuming IFR in Class A, C, D or E airspace.
Must notify ATC when reverting to IFR once in class G airspace.
142
How will an IFR aircraft conducting a VFR departure be treated by ATC?
VFR for purpose of traffic separation in class C, D and E
VFR in Class C or D, or VFR in receipt of a SIS in Class E or G for traffic information
IFR for all other services such as SAR, weather and NOTAM information in all classes of airspace.
143
Within what distance must an aircraft be established on the departure track on departure?
5nm
144
When can a pilot request to climb/descend VFR?
Within Class D or E airspace.
145
What is VFR-on-top and when can it be requested?
VFR-on-top is a procedure whereby a pilot must fly at VFR cruising levels, comply with VFR visibility and distance form cloud requirements, comply with IFR minimum altitudes, position reports, radio requirements and clearances, and advise ATC of any altitude change.
It can only be requested in Class E.
146
Are you required to nominate a descent point to ATC?
Not if identified.
147
During a visual approach by day, how low may an IFR aircraft descend?
Not less that 500ft above the lower limit of CTA and not below the lowest altitude permissible for VFR flight.
148
During a visual approach by night, how low may an IFR aircraft descend?
Not less than route segment LSALT/MSA or appropriate DGA step or 500ft above the lower limit of CTA if this is higher or if being radar vectored, not below the last assigned altitude.
UNTIL:
Within the circling area; or
Within 5nm (7nm for runways equipped with ILS/GLS) and aligned with runway centreline established not below "on slope" on PAPI or T-VASIS; or
Within 10nm if established not below ILS/GLS glide path (14nm for runway 16L or 34 L Sydney) with less than full azimuth deflection.
149
Are IFR aircraft required to make a taxi call to ATC? If ATC cannot be reached on the ground, what can the aircraft do?
Yes they are.
If ATC cannot be reached on the ground, then an RPT, CHTR or AWK flight must be assured of radio contact with his or her operator, or a representative of his or her operator who has immediate access to a servicable telephone, until contact is made with ATS; or
For flights other than RPT, a SARTIME for departure has been established with a maximum of 30 minutes from EOBT.
150
When making a departure report to ATC, what should the departure time be?
The current time minus an adjustment for the distance from the airport; or
When over or abeam the airport.
151
How long after your ETA at your final destination do you have to cancel your SARWATCH, before ATC will try to contact you for a landing report or to extend your SARWATCH?
10 minutes.
152
Is a clearance required for an IFR aircraft into Class E?
Yes.
153
What is a clearance void time?
If a clearance void time is issued with a clearance, the clearance is valid only if the flight enters controlled airspace in accordance with the clearance at or before that time.
154
How long before a flight into controlled airspace should a flight notification be submitted?
30 minutes
155
For IFR in classes A, C, D and E, what cruising levels should be flown?
Only those assigned by ATC.
(ATC will only assign levels other than those in the table of cruising levels, when traffic or other operational circumstances require).
156
For IFR flights maintaining VFR-on-top flights in class E, what cruising levels should be flown?
In accordance with VFR Table of Cruising Levels.
157
When may a pilot request a level other than one that conforms to the table of cruising levels, and what words must be said in the request?
If PIC determines it to be essential to the safety of the flight and its occupants. The phrase "DUE OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENT" must be included in the request.
158
For IFR in class G what cruising levels should be flown?
In accordance with Table of Cruising Levels.
159
Can an IFR flight in class E request a block level?
No.
160
What is a block level?
A block level clears you to operate between the lower and upper limits of the block of airspace.
161
How long after an ATC request to change altitude must you commence the change in level?
As soon as possible but no longer than 1 minute.
162
How does a step climb work?
The PIC of the lower aircraft shall report approaching each assigned level in the sequence.
The PIC of the higher aircraft, on hearing the lower aircraft reporting approaching each assigned level, shall report the last vacated level.
163
How does a step descent work?
The PIC of the higher aircraft shall report approaching each assigned level in the sequence.
The PIC of the lower aircraft, on hearing the higher aircraft reporting approaching each assigned level, shall report the last vacated level.
164
What is a "standard rate" climb or descent?
A climb or descent at not less that 500ft per minute except that the last 1000ft shall be made at 500ft per minute.
165
How big are the grids on a low-altitude ERC?
2 degrees of latitude by 2 degrees of longitude or 1 by 1 depending on scale.
166
How can a pilot LSALT be calculated?
| Don't include % splays as of yet - just heights
Where the highest obstacle is more than 360ft above the height determined for terrain, the LSALT must be 1000ft above the highest obstacle; or
Where the highest charted obstacle is less than 360ft or there is no charted obstacle, the LSALT must be at least 1360ft above the elevation determined for terrain; except that
Where the elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle in the tolerance area is not above 500ft, the LSALT must not be less than 1500ft.
167
When may a pilot descend below an LSALT?
If being assigned levels in accordance with ATS surveillance service terrain clearance procedures, flying in accordance with a published DME arrival, instrument approach or holding procedure, or if necessary during climb after departure from an aerodrome, or during VMC by day.
168
If navigation of the aircraft is inaccurate or the aircraft is deliberately flown off track, or where there is a failure of a radio navigation aid normally available, the area to be considered for the current LSALT is?
A circle centered on the DR position, with a radius of 5nm plus 20% of the distance flown from the last positive fix.
169
If operating from radio aid to an aerodrome with another radio aid, how is the area determined from which to calculate the LSALT?
10.3 degree splays out to 50nm, then once they come within rated coverage of the destination aid, converge the lines to the aid. Add a 5nm buffer to this area.
170
If the destination aid has a long range, what might occur with the LSALT area and what must be done?
The splays to the aid may be less than 10.3 degrees so the lines must continue parallel at 50nm until angles of 10.3 degrees can be made.
171
If the 10.3 degree lines meet the rated coverage arc from the destination before they have extended 50nm from track, what should you do?
Track from that point at which it meets the destinations 10.3 degree splay to the destination aid, so long as that line doesn't form an angle less than 10.3 degrees. If it does form an angle less than 10.3 degrees, then continue until it meets the lines of 10.3 degrees outwards form the destination aid.
172
If the destination does not have an aid, what area do you use to calculate the LSALT?
Create a radius of 50nm around the destination aid (and add the 5nm as normal).
173
If the 10.3 degree lines do not reach 50nm by the time you are abeam the destination which doesn't have an aid, what radius around the destination do you use to calculate LSALT?
Use whatever distance you would arrive abeam the destination as the radius (add the 5nm as normal).
This distance can be calculated with the formula:
d = D / 60 x 10.3
174
If no aid is available at the departure aerodrome, what splays are used instead of 10.3 percent?
15 degrees.
175
If the rated coverage is less than 50nm, what happens?
Treat the destination as if it doesn't have an aid?
176
If using a GPS, what distance do you go out to instead of the 50nm for an LSALT?
7nm (plus the 5nm as normal).
177
For flight under night VFR, what area is used to calculate an LSALT?
Same as IFR or 10nm either side of the nominal track.
178
When may you operate below LSALT for VFR at night?
During take-off and climb in the vicinity of the departure aerodrome.
When the destination aerodrome is in sight and descent can be made within the prescribed circling area of 3nm.
When being vectored.
179
When do you require a radio?
VFR - 5000ft and above, at aerodromes where radios are required and below 3000ft MSL or 1000ft AGL in reduced VMC.
NVFR - always
IFR - always and HF if beyond VHF range of ATS frequencies
CHTR - always and HF if VHF does not allow continuous communication with ATS at all stages of flight.
RPT - VHF and HF or two VHF
180
At what airports is radio carriage mandatory?
All CERT, REG and MIL aerodromes.
181
Is a departure of airborne report required on departure from a Class G aerodrome IFR?
Departure report.
182
Is a departure of airborne report required on departure from a Class C aerodrome IFR?
Airborne report.
183
Is a departure of airborne report required on departure from a Class D aerodrome IFR?
Departure report.
184
On receipt of a heading instruction by ATC, within how long must you start the turn and at what bank angle must the turn be?
Immediately.
Rate one or standard rate turn for the aircraft type.
185
If with a heading or altitude vector the term "visual" is used, what does this mean?
The pilot must arrange terrain clearance.
186
When aircraft are on headings that could infringe terrain clearance or separation standards, the interval between transmissions will not exceed how long?
30 seconds.
187
What code should you squawk in Class E under IFR if you haven't been given a discrete code?
3000
188
What code should you squawk in Class G under IFR if you haven't been given a discrete code?
2000
189
If IFR and you have a communications failure, what are your actions?
Squawk 7600 and listen out on ATIS and/or voice modulated navaids. Transmit intentions and normal position reports. Assume transmitter is operating and prefix calls with "transmitting blind"
If in VMC, and certain of maintaining VMC, remain in VMC and land at the most suitable aerodrome. Report arrival to ATS.
If in IMC or uncertain of maintaining VMC:
ATC will assume your final level to which you will climb is the one on the flight notification, or the last level cleared to.
If no clearance limit has been received and acknowledged, the proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged and climb to the planned level.
If a clearance limit involving an altitude or route restriction has been received and acknowledged:
Maintain last assigned level, or minimum safe altitude if higher, for three minutes and/or hold at nominated location for three minutes; then proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged and climb to planned level.
If being vectored:
Maintain last assigned vector for two minutes; and climb, if necessary, to minimum safe altitude; then proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged.
If holding:
Fly one more complete holding pattern; then proceed in accordance with the flight plan or the latest ATC clearance acknowledged, as applicable.
Track to the destination in accordance with flight plan as amended by the latest ATC clearance acknowledged if applicable.
Commence descent in accordance with SOP's or flight plan. Descend to the initial approach altitude for the most suitable approach aid in accordance with published procedures.
Carry out the approach to the prescribed circling minima.
Note that the most suitable approach aid is normally the destination primary tracking aid; however when the primary tracking aid does not have an approach procedure or the pilot is receipt of ATIS or directed information that another destination aid is required for the approach, that aid may be used.
If an approach time has been given by ATC and acknowledged, adhere to that time.
When within 25nm of the destination, the pilot may track direct to the most suitable approach aid.
If visual at circling minima, circle to land. However, at a controlled aerodrome, if in receipt of directed aerodrome information and/or a landing clearance (e.g. green light or through a voice modulated navigation aid) the pilot may continue a runway approach.
If not visual at circling minima, depart for a suitable alternate aerodrome. However, if in receipt of directed aerodrome information indicating that a runway approach is available and the runway is available for landing, the pilot may continue descent to the appropriate minima and, if visual, land. Otherwise depart for a suitable aerodrome.
If insufficient fuel is carried to divert to a suitable alternate, the pilot may hold or carry out additional approaches until visual.
190
If an ATS Surveillance System fails, what is the course of action?
In the event of ATS surveillance system failure, or loss of identification, appropriate instructions will be issued.
191
What should a pilot losing two-way communication squawk?
7600
192
How and when would a pilot request a speechless radar procedure?
A pilot may request a speechless radar approach when microphones are serviceable (however carrier wave still works) by transmitting four separate and distinct unmodulated transmissions of one second duration.
- - - -
193
In a speechless radar procedure, how would a pilot respond to a question which requires an answer of "affirmative or acknowledgement"?
One distinct transmission.
-
194
In a speechless radar procedure, how would a pilot respond to a question which requires an answer of "negative"?
Two distinct transmissions.
- -
195
In a speechless radar procedure, how would a pilot respond to a question which requires an answer of "say again"?
Three distinct transmissions.
- - -
196
In a speechless radar procedure, how would a pilot indicate a further and relevant unservicablity or emergency?
Five distinct transmissions.
- - - - -
197
In a speechless radar procedure how would a pilot indicate that they are going to abandon the aircraft?
A single continuous transmission. If possible, the transmitter key should be locked on.
____________
198
In a speechless radar procedure how would a pilot indicate that they have completed an instruction?
A two second transmission.
__
199
For an emergency change of level in controlled airspace, what procedure should be followed?
Squawk 7700.
Transmit:
PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN with relevant issue as per normal PAN call.
200
What is considered "night"?
The period between evening civil twilight and morning civil twilight.
201
What are the old PANS OPS?
Circling Area is 3nm from the ARP
400' obstacle clearance
Maximum speed of 175kts.
(See Georgetown IAP's)
202
What is the normal direction of a holding pattern?
Right.
203
Speed limitation in a hold up to and including FL140?
230kt or 170kt for holding where an approach is limited to Cat A and B aircraft only.
204
Speed limitation in a hold above FL 140 up to and including FL 200?
240kt
205
Speed limitation in a hold above FL200?
265kt
206
When does outbound timing start for a holding pattern?
Abeam the fix, or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes later.
207
How long can the outbound leg be up to and including FL140?
1 minute or the time or distance limit specified on the chart.
208
How long can the outbound leg be above FL 140?
1.5 minutes or the time or distance limit specified on the chart.
209
What angle of bank should turns be in a holding pattern in nil wind?
25 degrees or rate one, whichever is less.
210
Should wind allowances be made in a holding pattern?
Allowances should be made in heading and timing to compensate for the effects of wind to ensure the inbound track is regained before passing the holding fix inbound. Full use should be made of the indications available from the aid and estimated or known winds.
211
Entry into a holding pattern is based off what?
Heading.
212
Is there any flexibility in the sector entry you join?
5 degrees either side.
213
How big is the sector three?
180 degrees
214
How big is the sector one?
110 degrees
215
How big is the sector two?
70 degrees
216
Which side is the sector one on?
Holding side
217
How do you conduct a sector 1 entry?
On reaching the holding fix, the aircraft is turned onto an outbound heading for the appropriate time (taken from over or abeam the holding fix whichever is later, or until reaching the limiting DME distance if earlier; then the aircraft is turned onto the holding side to intercept the inbound track or to return to the fix; and then on the second arrival over the holding fix, the aircraft is turned to follow the holding pattern.
218
How do you conduct a sector 2 entry?
On reaching the holding fix, the aircraft is turned onto a heading to make good a track making an angle of 30 degrees from the reciprocal of the inbound track on the holding side; then flown outbound for the appropriate period of time from the holding fix, where timing is specified, up to a maximum of 1 minute and 30 seconds; or, if earlier until the limiting DME distance is attained, where distance is specified;; then the aircraft is turned to intercept the inbound holding track; then on second arrival over the holding fix the aircraft is turned to follow the holding pattern.
219
How do you conduct a sector 3 entry?
On reaching the holding fix, the aircraft is turned to follow the holding pattern. Outbound timing begins abeam the fix, or when the abeam position cannot be determined, from completion of the outbound turn.
220
What sector entries can be completed onto a DME arc?
Sector 1 and 3.
221
What does a DME limit mean?
The "DME limit" where prescribed for holding patterns is the DME distance at which the outbound lef of the holding pattern shall be terminated and the turn to the reciprocal track commenced.
222
Can a pilot shorten a holding pattern?
The pilot may shorten the holding pattern to leave the holding fix at a specified time.
223
Can a pilot descend in a holding pattern?
Subject to ATC approval, where appropriate, aircraft may descend as required.
224
Why are SID's produced?
```
To satisfy the requirements of:
Noise abatement procedure tracks;
Airspace segregation for ATC purposes;
Obstacle clearance requirements; and
Maximum traffic flexibility
```
225
If already airborne, can you commence a SID? If so, are there anything you have to do before commencing the SID?
Yes you can, however the pilot must visually position the aircraft over the runway centreline so that all tracking an altitude requirements can be met.
226
Should a pilot allow for wind on a SID?
Not if it is a radar vectored SID but yes if it is a SID expressed with tracks.
227
What obstacle clearance does a SID allow for?
2. 5% gradient of obstacle identification surfaces, or a gradient based on the most critical obstacle, penetrating those surfaces, whichever is the higher gradient.
0. 8% increasing obstacle clearance from zero at the departure end of the runway.
In total, 3.3%.
228
What are the bank angle and maximum speed for turning flight parameters for a SID?
Bank angle - average of 15 degrees
| Maximum speed for turning departures - 290 knots
229
When can a descent be started on a DGA arrival?
When the aircraft is established within the appropriate sector or on the specified inbound track.
230
When can you maneuver on a DGA?
The pilot must ensure the aircraft is kept within the sector or above the appropriate MSA. Maneuvering within a sector after passing the final approach fix is prohibited.
231
What specific restrictions apply to the conduct of a GPS arrival?
Database medium must be current and of a kind endorsed by the receiver manufacturer.
The coordinates of the destination VOR or NDB, to which the descent procedure relates, must not be capable of modification by the operator or crew.]
GPS integrity (e.g. RAIM) must be available before descending below the LSALT/MSA.
The nominated aziumth aid (VOR or NDB) must be used to provide track guidance during the arrival procedure.
If at any time during the approach, there is cause to doubt the validity of the GPS information (eg. RAIM warning), or if GPS integrity is lost (eg. RAIM not available), the pilot must conduct a missed approach.
232
What do STAR's satisfy the requirements of?
Noise abatement procedure tracks.
Airspace segregation for ATC purposes.
Maximum traffic handling capacity.
Reduction in pilot/controller workloard and air/ground communication requirements.
233
Where are STAR's designed to terminate?
At a fix for an instrument approach; or
A fix for a visual approach; or
By initiation of vectoring to the final approach course.
234
What is the STAR maximum speed requirement below 10,000ft?
250 KIAS
235
When do circling restrictions apply?
By day in less than VMC and at night.
236
What obstacle clearance do MSA's provide?
1000ft
237
If a 25nm MSA is separated into sectors and the sector you are in has a lower MSA than the 10nm MSA, do you have to conform with the 10nm MSA?
No. As long as you remain in the appropriate 25nm sector you can operate under that sector MSA.
238
When may an aircraft descend below the LSALT or MSA?
When complying with requirements for a visual approach.
Conforming to a DGA arrival.
Identified and assigned an altitude by ATC.
Arriving over an IAF for an IAP.
239
What is the normal decent profile in an approach? Where is the descent taking you down to?
```
3 degrees (320ft per mile)
Down to the 1000ft markers.
```
240
What is a V(at) speed?
Indicated airspeed at the threshold which is equal to the stalling speed V(s0) multiplied by 1.3 or the stalling speed V(s1g) multiplied by 1.23. Both speeds assume landing configuration at maximum landing weight. If both V(s0) and V(s1g) are available, the higher V(at) speed is used.
241
What is V(s1g)?
The one-G stall speed at which the airplane can develop a lift force (normal to the flight path) equal to its weight.
242
Can you reduce your aircraft category if you are operating at a lower weight?
No.
243
Do you have to increase your category if any of the handling speeds fit in a higher category?
Yes.
244
Is there any time when you can downgrade to a lower category?
If your aircraft can be operated within the limits of the handling speeds of a lower category than as determined by your V(at) speed, you have approval by CASA and your in a CAR 217 checking and training organisation.
245
Cat A V(at) speeds?
91 - 120 KIAS
246
Cat A range of speeds for initial and intermediate approach?
90 - 150 KIAS
| Maximum 110 KIAS for reversal.
247
Cat A range of final approach speeds?
70 - 100 KIAS
248
Cat A maximum speeds for visual maneuvering (circling)?
100 KIAS
249
Cat A maximum speeds for missed approach?
110 KIAS
250
Cat B V(at) speeds?
91 - 120 IAS
251
Cat B range of speeds for initial and intermediate approach?
120 - 180 KIAS
| Maximum 140 KIAS for reversal.
252
Cat B range of final approach speeds?
85 - 130 KIAS
253
Cat B maximum speeds for visual maneuvering (circling)?
135 KIAS
254
Cat B maximum speeds for missed approach?
150 KIAS
255
On a reversal procedure, when should you be within the final approach speeds?
Before descending on the inbound track.
256
Can you fly below the initial or intermediate approach speeds whilst on the initial or intermediate approach? When?
Yes. In order to enable the final approach speed to be achieved prior to the commencement of the final segment.
257
When do DA's need to be adjusted?
Always. An operated must either apply Pressure Error Correction (PEC) or alternatively, add at least 50ft to the published DA.
258
If an NDB associated with an ILS fails, what must an aircraft wanting to use the ILS do?
Join the ILS outside the outer marker as directed by NOTAM or ATC.
259
If a Glide Path associated with an ILS fails, what must an aircraft wanting to use the ILS do?
Only the localiser procedure is available for use.
260
If markers associated with an ILS fails, what must an aircraft wanting to use the ILS do?
If marker beacons are not available, aircraft may use the ILS if the alternate fixes nominated on the IAL chart or by NOTAM are used for altimeter checks.
261
At the final approach segment check, if the is an unexplained discrepancy between your altitude and the check altitude, what action should be taken?
ILS approach should be discontinued.
262
What flight tolerances are there for an ILS approach?
To ensure obstacle clearance, both LOC final approach course and glideslop shouldbe maintained within half scale deflection.
If, at any time during the approach after the FAP, the LOC final approach course or glideslope indicate full scale deflection a missed approach should be commenced.
263
Maximum and minimum rate of descent on a reversal procedure without a FAF?
Between 394ft/min to 655ft/min.
264
When you can track straight out on a reversal procedure without conducting a hold?
Within 30 degrees either side of the first track of the procedure. The sector can be extended to include the reciprocal of the inbound track.
265
When an RNAV has three IAF's, what are the capture regions?
Either side has a 180 degree capture region paralleling the first track of the GNSS procedure.
The "straight in" IAF has a 140 degree sector, 70 degrees either side from the first track of the GNSS procedure.
266
When an RNAV has two IAF's what are the capture regions?
One side has a 180 degree capture region paralleling the first track of the GNSS procedure.
The "straight in" IAF has a 180 degree capture region consisting of 110 degrees on the opposite side to the other IAF and 70 degrees on the same side as the other IAF, measured from the first track of the GNSS procedure.
267
If an outbound descent is specified on a reversal procedure, when may the aircraft start that descent?
The descent may be commenced after the aircraft has crossed the fix or facility and is established on the specified track or has turned to a heading to intercept the specified outbound track.
268
When can an aircraft descend on an inbound track on a reversal procedure?
Once established inbound.
269
On a reversal procedure without a FAF, where does the final segment commence?
At the completion of the reversal procedure.
270
What does "established" mean?
Within half full scale deflection for the ILS, VOR and GNSS.
| Within +/- 5 degrees of the required bearing for the NDB, or within +/- 2nm for the DME arc.
271
What bank angles are IAP's based on?
25 degrees or Rate One, whichever is less.
272
Can a DME arc be joined passed an IAF?
No.
273
What are the three types of reversal procedures?
Procedure Turn - 45 degree/180 degree turn
Procedure Turn - 80 degree/260 degree turn
Base Turn - Specified on chart.
274
How would you conduct a 45/180 procedure turn?
45 degree turn away from outbound track for 1 minute for Cat A and B, followed by a 180 degree turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound track.
275
How would you conduct an 80/260 procedure turn?
Turn 80 degrees away from the outbound track, followed by a turn of 260 degrees in the opposite direction at the conclusion of the 80 degree turn to intercept the inbound track.
276
When must you conduct a missed approach?
If during the final segment of an IAP, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use.
During an IAP and below the MSA, the performance of the radio aid becomes suspect or the radio aid fails.
Visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT or DA height.
A landing cannot be effected from a runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions equal to, or better than those specified for circling.
Visual reference is lost while circling to land from an IAP.
277
What does "visual reference" mean in regards to conducting a missed approach off a circling procedure?
Means the runway threshold or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway, clearly visible to the pilot.
278
What percentage climb gradient does a missed approach assume you can make at what obstacle clearance does this achieve?
2.5% and 100ft clearance.
279
If you conduct a missed approach before reaching the MAPT, what must you do before starting the missed approach?
Fly to the MAPT.
280
When conducting a missed approach from visual circling, what is the initial action?
Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and overhead the airport. Then track the published missed approach.
281
If upon reaching the MAP, the required visual reference is not established, what must the pilot do?
Immediately initiate the published missed approach procedure.
282
On a VOR approach where the missed approach procedure is. Track 070, climb to 2700, is it assumed you will track the 070 radial on the VOR during the missed approach?
Unless otherwise specified "from the VOR or radial", the instruction of track 070 is assumed to be a DR track. You may use the VOR for lateral guidance.
283
If a loss of RAIM or RAIM warning is indicated at any time after passing the IAF, what must the pilot do?
Conduct a missed approach.
284
If the RAIM warning ceases when the missed approach is selected, then can the GPS be used for missed approach guidance?
Yes.
285
If the RAIM warning remains when the missed approach is selected, or should there be any doubt about the accuracy of the GPS, can the GPS be used for missed approach guidance?
No. An alternative means of guidance or DR must be used to fly the missed approach.
286
During visual circling, when may the pilot descend below the MDA?
When the pilot maintains the aircraft within the circling area; and
Maintains a visibility along the intended flight path, not less than the minimum specified on the chart for the procedure; and
Maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment (runway threshold or approach lighting or other markings identifiable with the runway) and either
By night or day, while complying with the above paragraphs and from a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg of the landing traffic pattern at an altitude not less than the MDA, can complete a continuous descent to the landing threshold using rates of descent and flight maneuvers which are normal for the aircraft type and, during this descent maintains an obstacle clearance along the flight path not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway; or
In daylight only, while complying with the first three paragraphs, maintains visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path and an obstacle clearance not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway.
287
What obstacle clearance is required for Cat A and B aircraft in the circling area?
300ft
288
How big is the radius for the circling area for a Cat A aircraft?
1.68nm
289
How big is the radius for the circling area for a Cat B aircraft?
2.66nm
290
How is the circling area determined?
Drawing an arc centered on the threshold of each usable runway and joining these arcs by tangents. Radius of the arc depends on category.
291
When can you continue below straight-in MDA or below DA on an approach with vertical guidance?
Visual reference can be maintained;
All elements of the meteorological minima are equal to or greater than those published for the aircraft performance category; and
The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on e intended runway can be made at a normal flight maneuvers that will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.
292
Straight-in non precision approaches may be offset by up to how much for Cat A and B aircraft?
30 degrees.
293
Straight-in non precision approaches may be offset by up to how much for Cat C and D aircraft?
15 degrees.
294
When a visual segment is found on an approach chart, when must a missed approach be executed?
If the visual segment cannot be flown clear of cloud and in sight of the ground or water in accordance with the altitude and visibility specified for circling.
295
When can a visual approach by day be commenced?
Within 30nm not below LSALT or MSA, DGA step or MDA:
Clear of cloud
In sight of ground or water
With a flight visibility not less than 5000m
Can maintain the above at an altitude not less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight until within the circling area.
296
When can a visual approach by night be commenced?
Not below LSALT/MSA, DGA step or MDA:
Clear of cloud
In sight of ground or water
With a flight visibility not less than 5000m
Within the circling area; or
Within 5nm (7nm for a runway equipped with an ILS) of that airport aligned with the runway centreline and established not below "on slope" on the T-VASIS or PAP; or
Within 10nm (14nm for Sydney Intl. RWY 16L or 34L) of that airport, established not below the ILS glide path with less than full scale azimuth deflection.
297
How can runway visibility be assessed if an RVR sensor is not available?
Assessed by ground observer counting visible runway lights or visibility markers.
298
What is a qualifying multi-engine IFR aircraft?
a. The airplane is:
1. 2 pilot operated; or
2. A single pilot operated jet airplane; or
3. A single pilot operated propeller airplane with operative auto feather; and
b. For an airplane with a MTOW exceeding 5700kg the airplane can meet the relevant obstacle clearance requirements of CAO 20.7.1B; and
c. For an airplane with a MTOW not exceeding 5700kg
1. The gross climb gradient performance is at least 1.9% under ambient conditions with the loss of the most critical engine; and
2. the airplane engine-out climb gradient under ambient conditions specified in the manufactuer's data is at least 0.3% greater than the obstacle free gradient for runway length required; and
3. The PIC uses published obstacle free gradients only if such gradients are surveyed to at least a distance of 7500m from end of TODA;
4. An operator-established obstacle free gradient is used only if:
The gradient is established not more than 30 degrees from runway heading; and
The procedure involve not more than 15 degrees of bank to track within the splay.
d. For a 2-pilot operation - each pilot is:
1. Endorsed on type; and
2. Multi-crew trained on type; and
3. Multi-crew proficiency checked within the previous 13 months; and
4. Instrument Rated.
299
What are the take-off minima for a qualifying multi-engine airplane?
A ceiling of zero feet; and
550m visibility but only if the runway has illuminated edge lighting at spacing intervals not exceeding 60m and centreline lighting or centreline markings and if the airport is a non-controlled airport or an airport without ATC in operation, the take-off must be conducted in day only at an airport at which the carriage of radio is mandatory.
Otherwise - 800m.
300
What must also be taken into account for take-off minima in a multi-engine aircraft?
If a return to land at the departure airport will be necessary in the event of an engine failure - the meteorological conditions must be at or above instrument approach and landing minima for the airport or such as to allow a visual approach.
301
What is the take-off minima for a non-qualifying aircraft?
300ft ceiling.
| Visibility of 2000m.
302
What is the landing minima for airports without approved IAP's?
By day - visual approach requirements
| By night - VMC from LSALT within 3nm
303
What is the landing minima for airports with an approved IAP?
Whatever is stated on the chart.
304
For a precision approach, 1.5km visibility must be used if?
HIAL's are not available.
305
For a precision approach, 1.2km visibility must be used if?
The aircraft is not manually flown to the CAT I DA using a flight director or approved HUDLS; or the aircraft is flown to the Cat I DA using an autopilot coupled; and
The aircraft is not equipped with a servicable failure warning system for the primary attitude and heading reference system; and
HIRLS's are unavailable.
306
In cold conditions, will the true altitude be lower or higher than the indicated altitude?
Lower - reducing obstacle clearance margins.
307
When must you make a temperature correction to a MDA or DA?
When an airport is less than (colder than) ISA - 15 degrees.
308
When does QNH have to be set prior to an IAP?
Prior to passing the IAF.
309
What QNH's can be used?
Actual airport QNH from an approved source.
TAF QNH
Forecast Area QNH
310
How long is actual QNH from an approved source valid for?
15 minutes.
311
If actual QNH is set, what can the MDA be reduced by? (Allowed for on a Jepp chart)
100ft.
312
Does a METAR count as an approved source?
No.
313
If forecast area QNH is used, what does the minima need to be raised by?
50ft.
314
If a regular TAF service is not available, do you still need to raise the minima by 50ft?
No. It is included in the minima.
315
When can you use special alternate minima?
If an aircraft has dual ILS/VOR approach capabilities.
I.e. Duplicated LOC, G/P, marker, VOR receivers. Requirement for duplicated marker receivers may be satisfied by one marker receiver and a DME. If an NDB is required for the ILS, 2 ADF's are also required.
The minima cannot be used if local METAR/SPECI or forecasting services are unavailable or if an airport control service is not provided.
