medication administration overview practice questions Flashcards
1
Q
- Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for a medication error?
a) A 30-year-old receiving antibiotics for pneumonia
b) A 68-year-old with polypharmacy for chronic conditions
c) A 45-year-old on short-term pain management
d) A 22-year-old receiving vaccinations
A
b) A 68-year-old with polypharmacy for chronic conditions
Rationale: Elderly patients with multiple medications (polypharmacy) are at higher risk due to drug interactions, altered pharmacokinetics, and cognitive impairments.
2
Q
- A nurse prepares to administer a medication and notices the label is smudged and partially unreadable. What is the nurse’s best action?
a) Administer the medication if most of the label is visible
b) Estimate the dosage based on patient history
c) Contact the pharmacy for clarification
d) Ask another nurse for assistance
A
c) Contact the pharmacy for clarification
Rationale: When labels are unreadable, contacting the pharmacy ensures the correct medication is administered and prevents potential harm.
3
Q
- During shift change, a nurse reports giving 10 mg of a medication instead of the prescribed 1 mg. What is the priority nursing action?
a) Notify the patient’s family
b) Complete an incident report
c) Monitor the patient for adverse effects
d) Inform the physician immediately
A
c) Monitor the patient for adverse effects
Rationale: Monitoring the patient takes priority to detect and treat any adverse effects promptly. The incident should also be reported, but patient safety is paramount.
4
Q
- What is a primary reason pediatric patients are at high risk for medication errors?
a) Children refuse medication frequently
b) Medication doses are based on weight and age
c) Pediatric medications are only available in liquid form
d) Pediatric patients are often unable to express side effects
A
b) Medication doses are based on weight and age
Rationale: Pediatric dosing is complex, and errors can occur due to incorrect calculations based on weight or age.
5
Q
- A nurse is preparing to administer a high-alert medication. Which strategy is most effective in preventing errors?
a) Administering the medication slowly
b) Double-checking the dose with another nurse
c) Providing detailed verbal instructions to the patient
d) Checking the patient’s vital signs before administration
A
b) Double-checking the dose with another nurse
Rationale: For high-alert medications, a second nurse verifying the dose is a key safety practice to prevent errors.
6
Q
- A nurse receives a medication order that is unclear. What should the nurse do first?
a) Administer the most likely dose based on previous experience
b) Call the pharmacist for clarification
c) Contact the prescribing provider to clarify the order
d) Ask another nurse what they would do
A
Answer: c) Contact the prescribing provider to clarify the order
Rationale: The nurse must clarify any unclear orders directly with the provider to prevent medication errors.
7
Q
- Which of the following strategies can most effectively reduce medication errors?
a) Relying on memory for drug interactions
b) Using barcode scanning technology during administration
c) Administering medications before documenting orders
d) Skipping double-checks for low-risk medications
A
Answer: b) Using barcode scanning technology during administration
Rationale: Barcode scanning helps ensure the right medication is administered to the right patient, reducing errors.
8
Q
- A nurse administers a medication to the wrong patient. What is the first action the nurse should take?
a) Notify the nurse manager
b) Inform the patient about the error
c) Monitor the patient for adverse effects
d) Complete an incident report
A
Answer: c) Monitor the patient for adverse effects
Rationale: Patient safety is the top priority. The nurse must immediately monitor for any potential harm before taking further steps.
9
Q
- Which factor is most likely to contribute to a medication error in children?
a) Parents administering the medication at home
b) Pediatric medications being prepared in adult doses
c) Children refusing to take their medications
d) Using color-coded syringes
A
Answer: b) Pediatric medications being prepared in adult doses
Rationale: Children’s doses are typically weight-based, and using adult doses increases the risk of overdose.
10
Q
- A nurse prepares a liquid medication but finds the label difficult to read. What is the best action?
a) Dilute the medication to ensure accuracy
b) Administer the dose and monitor the patient
c) Discard the medication and order a new one
d) Contact the pharmacy for a replacement
A
Answer: d) Contact the pharmacy for a replacement
Rationale: The nurse should ensure the label is readable to avoid errors and must contact the pharmacy for a clear label.
11
Q
- Which communication technique can reduce the risk of medication errors during handoffs?
a) Verbal communication only
b) SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation)
c) Written notes with shorthand
d) Asking the patient to describe their medications
A
Answer: b) SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation)
Rationale: SBAR ensures concise, structured communication during handoffs, reducing errors.
12
Q
- Which of the following is an example of a prescribing error?
a) Giving a medication at the wrong time
b) Administering the wrong dose to a patient
c) The provider orders a medication the patient is allergic to
d) The nurse forgets to document medication administration
A
Answer: c) The provider orders a medication the patient is allergic to
Rationale: Prescribing a medication despite an allergy is a prescribing error that can cause harm.
13
Q
- A nurse gives a patient a double dose of a medication by mistake. What should the nurse do next?
a) Immediately induce vomiting
b) Call the pharmacist for advice
c) Assess the patient and notify the provider
d) Document that the patient tolerated the dose well
A
Answer: c) Assess the patient and notify the provider
Rationale: The nurse must first assess for adverse effects and inform the provider to receive further instructions.
14
Q
- A new nurse asks how to prevent medication errors when preparing high-alert medications. What advice is most appropriate?
a) Prepare high-alert medications quickly to avoid delays
b) Use only the medication label to verify the dose
c) Double-check with another nurse before administration
d) Estimate doses for patients based on appearance
A
Answer: c) Double-check with another nurse before administration
Rationale: Double-checking high-alert medications with another nurse reduces the risk of serious errors.
15
Q
- Which of the following orders would require clarification before administration?
a) Acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hours
b) Furosemide 20 mg IV push STAT
c) Insulin 10 units IV once
d) Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV every 2 hours PRN pain
A
Answer: c) Insulin 10 units IV once
Rationale: Insulin IV administration is uncommon and requires clarification to prevent harm.
16
Q
- What is the most effective way to prevent errors related to look-alike/sound-alike medications?
a) Store them together to save time
b) Rely on memory for correct doses
c) Use “tall man” lettering on labels (e.g., hydrOXYzine vs. hydrALAZINE)
d) Only administer these medications at night
A
Answer: c) Use “tall man” lettering on labels
Rationale: “Tall man” lettering highlights differences between look-alike drugs, reducing errors.
17
Q
- Which step of the nursing process is critical in preventing medication errors?
a) Planning
b) Evaluation
c) Documentation
d) Assessment
A
Answer: d) Assessment
Rationale: Assessing the patient ensures that medications are appropriate and reduces the risk of errors.
18
Q
- A patient receiving a new medication experiences a severe allergic reaction. What is the nurse’s priority action?
a) Notify the provider
b) Administer epinephrine if ordered
c) Document the allergic reaction
d) Call the pharmacist to discontinue the medication
A
Answer: b) Administer epinephrine if ordered
Rationale: In life-threatening allergic reactions, epinephrine is the priority treatment.
19
Q
- A nurse accidentally administers a patient’s bedtime medication at lunchtime. What is the nurse’s first action?
a) Re-administer the medication at bedtime
b) Report the error to the nurse manager
c) Inform the provider and monitor the patient
d) Complete an incident report
A
Answer: c) Inform the provider and monitor the patient
Rationale: Informing the provider allows for further instructions, and monitoring ensures patient safety.
20
Q
- Which practice is recommended to reduce medication errors when using automated dispensing cabinets?
a) Allowing multiple medications to be dispensed at once
b) Bypassing overrides to save time
c) Performing independent double-checks before removal
d) Skipping barcodes for frequently used medications
A
Answer: c) Performing independent double-checks before removal
Rationale: Double-checking ensures the correct medication is dispensed and administered.
21
Q
- Which aspect of pharmacokinetics refers to how a drug is absorbed into the bloodstream?
a) Distribution
b) Metabolism
c) Absorption
d) Excretion
A
Answer: c) Absorption
Rationale: Absorption describes how the drug moves from the site of administration into the bloodstream.
22
Q
- A drug that is highly protein-bound will likely have which characteristic?
a) Rapid onset of action
b) Short half-life
c) Decreased availability for action
d) Immediate excretion by the kidneys
A
Answer: c) Decreased availability for action
Rationale: Protein-bound drugs are inactive while bound, reducing their availability for therapeutic effects.
23
Q
- What legal responsibility does a nurse have if a provider writes an incomplete prescription?
a) Administer the medication and document the error
b) Complete the prescription based on prior experience
c) Contact the provider to clarify the order
d) Report the provider to the Board of Nursing
A
Answer: c) Contact the provider to clarify the order
Rationale: Nurses are legally required to clarify unclear orders to ensure safe medication administration.
24
Q
- Which phase of pharmacokinetics involves the chemical alteration of a drug in the body?
a) Absorption
b) Metabolism
c) Distribution
d) Excretion
A
Answer: b) Metabolism
Rationale: Metabolism (often in the liver) transforms drugs into more water-soluble forms for easier elimination.
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5. A drug labeled by its chemical name represents what classification?
a) Generic name
b) Trade name
c) Chemical name
d) Pharmacologic classification
Answer: c) Chemical name
Rationale: The chemical name describes the molecular structure of the drug.
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6. Which regulatory body ensures that medications are safe and effective for public use?
a) Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
b) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
c) American Nurses Association (ANA)
d) Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
Answer: b) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
Rationale: The FDA is responsible for approving drugs and ensuring their safety and efficacy.
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7. What is the primary purpose of the generic name of a drug?
a) To reflect the manufacturer’s brand
b) To describe its chemical properties
c) To provide a universal name for the drug
d) To indicate the medication’s strength
Answer: c) To provide a universal name for the drug
Rationale: Generic names are standardized to be recognized internationally, regardless of brand.
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8. A nurse gives a narcotic analgesic but forgets to document it. What legal principle has been violated?
a) Autonomy
b) Veracity
c) Accountability
d) Nonmaleficence
Answer: c) Accountability
Rationale: Nurses are accountable for documenting medication administration to ensure accurate records and patient safety.
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9. What is the difference between pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics?
a) Pharmacokinetics describes drug actions, while pharmacodynamics describes movement through the body
b) Pharmacokinetics describes drug movement, while pharmacodynamics describes the drug’s effects on the body
c) Pharmacokinetics focuses on drug receptors, while pharmacodynamics focuses on metabolism
d) Both terms mean the same thing
Answer: b) Pharmacokinetics describes drug movement, while pharmacodynamics describes the drug’s effects on the body
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics focuses on absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion; pharmacodynamics describes how the drug interacts with the body to produce effects.
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10. Which of the following describes the time it takes for a drug concentration to reduce by half in the body?
a) Onset
b) Peak
c) Half-life
d) Duration
Answer: c) Half-life
Rationale: Half-life refers to the time required for the drug’s concentration to be reduced by 50%.
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11. Which type of medication order must be carried out immediately?
a) PRN order
b) STAT order
c) Standing order
d) Single order
Answer: b) STAT order
Rationale: A STAT order indicates that the medication must be administered immediately.
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12. What does the term bioavailability refer to?
a) The extent to which a drug is metabolized in the liver
b) The ability of a drug to bind with plasma proteins
c) The amount of active drug that reaches systemic circulation
d) The ability of a drug to cause adverse effects
Answer: c) The amount of active drug that reaches systemic circulation
Rationale: Bioavailability measures how much of the drug is available to exert its effect.
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13. Which nursing regulation ensures that medication errors are reported and analyzed?
a) HIPAA
b) QSEN initiative
c) The Nurse Practice Act
d) The Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act (PSQIA)
Answer: d) The Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act (PSQIA)
Rationale: The PSQIA promotes reporting of errors to improve healthcare quality and prevent future errors.
34
14. A nurse notes that a medication has a narrow therapeutic index. What does this indicate?
a) The drug must be given with food
b) It has a wide safety margin
c) Small changes in dose could cause toxicity
d) It is excreted rapidly by the kidneys
Answer: c) Small changes in dose could cause toxicity
Rationale: Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index require careful monitoring due to the small difference between therapeutic and toxic doses.
35
15. Which of the following drug routes has the fastest absorption?
a) Oral
b) Subcutaneous
c) Intramuscular
d) Intravenous
Answer: d) Intravenous
Rationale: Intravenous administration delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, leading to the fastest absorption.
36
16. What is the primary function of the DEA (Drug Enforcement Agency)?
a) Ensuring all drugs are labeled correctly
b) Regulating controlled substances
c) Monitoring adverse drug reactions
d) Developing new medications
Answer: b) Regulating controlled substances
Rationale: The DEA enforces laws related to controlled substances to prevent misuse and abuse.
37
17. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication listed as a controlled substance. Which action is required?
a) Administer it without documentation
b) Count the remaining stock after each administration
c) Discard unused portions without witness
d) Report usage directly to the FDA
Answer: b) Count the remaining stock after each administration
Rationale: Controlled substances must be tracked carefully to prevent misuse.
38
18. What does a black box warning on a medication label indicate?
a) The drug is only available over-the-counter
b) The drug is nearing its expiration date
c) The drug carries a significant risk of severe side effects
d) The drug is experimental and under trial
Answer: c) The drug carries a significant risk of severe side effects
Rationale: Black box warnings highlight serious risks that could result from taking the medication.
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19. Which law ensures that patients are informed about their medications and have the right to refuse treatment?
a) HIPAA
b) Informed Consent Law
c) The Nurse Practice Act
d) The Controlled Substances Act
Answer: b) Informed Consent Law
Rationale: Informed consent ensures that patients understand their medications and can accept or refuse treatment.
40
20. What is the primary goal of pharmacology in nursing practice?
a) To create new medications
b) To promote safe and effective medication use
c) To enforce legal regulations
d) To monitor drug development trials
Answer: b) To promote safe and effective medication use
Rationale: The goal of pharmacology in nursing is to ensure patient safety and optimize therapeutic outcomes.
41
1. Which route of administration results in the fastest absorption?
a) Oral
b) Intramuscular
c) Intravenous
d) Subcutaneous
Answer: c) Intravenous
Rationale: IV administration bypasses absorption, delivering the drug directly into the bloodstream.
42
2. What is the primary site of drug metabolism in the body?
a) Kidneys
b) Liver
c) Stomach
d) Lungs
Answer: b) Liver
Rationale: The liver is the primary organ for metabolizing medications through enzymatic processes.
43
3. Which pharmacokinetic process involves the movement of a drug from the bloodstream to tissues?
a) Absorption
b) Distribution
c) Metabolism
d) Excretion
Answer: b) Distribution
Rationale: Distribution refers to the transport of the drug throughout the body to its target tissues.
44
4. How does renal impairment affect drug excretion?
a) Increases drug excretion
b) Causes faster metabolism
c) Decreases drug elimination
d) Has no effect on pharmacokinetics
Answer: c) Decreases drug elimination
Rationale: Impaired kidneys reduce drug clearance, leading to drug accumulation and possible toxicity.
45
5. What role does albumin play in pharmacokinetics?
a) Enhances metabolism of drugs
b) Binds to drugs, reducing free drug levels
c) Increases the excretion rate
d) Breaks down drug molecules
Answer: b) Binds to drugs, reducing free drug levels
Rationale: Albumin binds to medications, making them inactive until they are released.
46
6. Which type of drug administration is most affected by first-pass metabolism?
a) Intramuscular
b) Oral
c) Subcutaneous
d) Sublingual
Answer: b) Oral
Rationale: Oral drugs pass through the liver before reaching systemic circulation, where some are metabolized and inactivated.
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7. A drug has a half-life of 6 hours. How much of the drug remains after 12 hours?
a) 100%
b) 75%
c) 50%
d) 25%
Answer: d) 25%
Rationale: After two half-lives (12 hours), 25% of the drug remains in the body.
48
8. Which factor is most likely to decrease drug absorption?
a) High lipid solubility
b) Delayed gastric emptying
c) High blood flow at the absorption site
d) Basic pH in the stomach
Answer: b) Delayed gastric emptying
Rationale: Delayed gastric emptying slows the movement of drugs into the intestine, where most absorption occurs.
49
9. What happens when two highly protein-bound drugs are administered together?
a) They have no effect on each other
b) One drug displaces the other, increasing free drug levels
c) Both drugs become inactive
d) They are excreted more rapidly
Answer: b) One drug displaces the other, increasing free drug levels
Rationale: Competition for protein-binding sites can increase the level of free, active drug, raising the risk of toxicity.
50
10. Which factor enhances the distribution of a drug?
a) Poor blood flow to tissues
b) High plasma protein binding
c) Increased capillary permeability
d) Presence of a blood-brain barrier
Answer: c) Increased capillary permeability
Rationale: Increased capillary permeability allows drugs to move more easily from the bloodstream to tissues.
51
11. What is the term for the fraction of an administered dose that reaches systemic circulation?
a) Bioavailability
b) Half-life
c) Clearance
d) Distribution
Answer: a) Bioavailability
Rationale: Bioavailability refers to the proportion of a drug that enters the bloodstream and is available for use.
52
12. How does body fat affect drug distribution?
a) It reduces the drug’s effect
b) It accelerates drug excretion
c) Lipophilic drugs accumulate in fat tissue
d) Fat tissue enhances water-soluble drug distribution
Answer: c) Lipophilic drugs accumulate in fat tissue
Rationale: Lipid-soluble drugs can be stored in fat tissue, leading to delayed release.
53
13. A nurse notes that a medication has a short half-life. What does this mean for dosing frequency?
a) The drug will need frequent dosing
b) The drug is administered once a day
c) The drug is given only as a loading dose
d) The drug is likely to accumulate in the body
Answer: a) The drug will need frequent dosing
Rationale: Short half-life drugs leave the body quickly and need more frequent dosing to maintain therapeutic levels.
54
14. Which factor decreases drug metabolism in elderly patients?
a) Increased liver enzyme activity
b) Reduced hepatic blood flow
c) Increased renal function
d) Rapid gastric emptying
Answer: b) Reduced hepatic blood flow
Rationale: Decreased blood flow to the liver in elderly patients slows drug metabolism.
55
15. Which statement about drug excretion is correct?
a) All drugs are excreted through the lungs
b) Renal function is the primary determinant of drug excretion
c) Lipid-soluble drugs are excreted unchanged in urine
d) Bile plays no role in drug excretion
Answer: b) Renal function is the primary determinant of drug excretion
Rationale: The kidneys are the main route for drug elimination, especially water-soluble drugs.
56
16. Which medication characteristic promotes rapid absorption?
a) High molecular weight
b) Poor lipid solubility
c) Large surface area of absorption site
d) Low concentration gradient
Answer: c) Large surface area of absorption site
Rationale: A larger surface area increases drug absorption, as seen in the small intestine.
57
17. Which process describes the movement of a drug from the liver into the bile and back to the intestine?
a) Enterohepatic recycling
b) First-pass effect
c) Hepatic clearance
d) Renal filtration
Answer: a) Enterohepatic recycling
Rationale: Some drugs are excreted into bile and reabsorbed from the intestine, prolonging their effect.
58
18. How does the pH of urine affect drug excretion?
a) Acidic urine enhances elimination of acidic drugs
b) Basic urine enhances excretion of acidic drugs
c) Urine pH has no effect on drug excretion
d) Neutral urine increases drug clearance
Answer: b) Basic urine enhances excretion of acidic drugs
Rationale: Urine pH can alter drug solubility, affecting how quickly they are eliminated.
59
19. A patient with liver disease is prescribed a medication. What should the nurse monitor closely?
a) Reduced heart rate
b) Signs of toxicity
c) Faster drug metabolism
d) Increased renal excretion
Answer: b) Signs of toxicity
Rationale: Liver disease impairs drug metabolism, increasing the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity.
60
20. Which term describes the time it takes for a drug to reach its maximum concentration in the blood?
a) Half-life
b) Onset
c) Peak
d) Duration
Answer: c) Peak
Rationale: Peak time refers to when the highest concentration of the drug is achieved in the bloodstream.
61
1. What is the intended, desired effect of a medication called?
a) Adverse effect
b) Therapeutic effect
c) Side effect
d) Toxic effect
Answer: b) Therapeutic effect
Rationale: The therapeutic effect is the intended, positive outcome the drug is meant to achieve.
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2. A patient develops hives and shortness of breath after taking an antibiotic. What type of reaction is this?
a) Side effect
b) Toxic reaction
c) Allergic reaction
d) Synergistic effect
Answer: c) Allergic reaction
Rationale: Allergic reactions involve the immune system responding to a medication, sometimes severely.
63
3. Which of the following describes a predictable but often unpleasant drug effect?
a) Therapeutic effect
b) Side effect
c) Adverse effect
d) Synergistic effect
Answer: b) Side effect
Rationale: Side effects are expected, minor reactions to medications, such as nausea or dizziness.
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4. What term refers to two medications enhancing each other’s effects when taken together?
a) Antagonistic effect
b) Synergistic effect
c) Adverse effect
d) Cumulative effect
Answer: b) Synergistic effect
Rationale: Synergistic effects occur when two drugs increase each other’s effectiveness beyond what either could achieve alone.
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5. Which action should a nurse take if a patient experiences an adverse drug effect?
a) Administer the medication at a lower dose
b) Report the reaction to the provider immediately
c) Continue giving the medication and monitor closely
d) Encourage the patient to rest
Answer: b) Report the reaction to the provider immediately
Rationale: Adverse effects are unexpected and potentially dangerous, requiring immediate medical attention.
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6. What is an example of an antagonistic drug interaction?
a) Alcohol and sedatives causing increased drowsiness
b) Antihypertensive drugs causing dizziness
c) Naloxone reversing opioid overdose
d) Two antibiotics given to treat a resistant infection
Answer: c) Naloxone reversing opioid overdose
Rationale: Antagonistic interactions occur when one drug counteracts the effects of another.
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7. Which of the following is considered a toxic effect?
a) Dry mouth from antihistamines
b) Hair loss from chemotherapy
c) Severe liver damage from overdose
d) Constipation from opioids
Answer: c) Severe liver damage from overdose
Rationale: Toxic effects result from excessive drug levels, leading to organ damage or failure.
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8. Which is the most appropriate nursing action if a patient shows signs of an allergic reaction?
a) Administer the next dose early
b) Document the reaction for future reference
c) Stop the medication immediately and notify the provider
d) Wait to see if the reaction resolves
Answer: c) Stop the medication immediately and notify the provider
Rationale: Allergic reactions can escalate quickly and require prompt action to prevent severe outcomes.
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9. A patient reports dizziness after taking a blood pressure medication. What type of reaction is this?
a) Therapeutic effect
b) Side effect
c) Adverse effect
d) Toxic effect
Answer: b) Side effect
Rationale: Dizziness is a common side effect of blood pressure medications and usually not severe.
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10. What happens in a cumulative drug effect?
a) The drug is eliminated faster than expected
b) The drug's concentration builds up, leading to toxicity
c) The therapeutic effect is increased with each dose
d) Drug interactions are reduced over time
Answer: b) The drug's concentration builds up, leading to toxicity
Rationale: Cumulative effects occur when the drug is not metabolized or excreted adequately, causing buildup.
71
11. Which is an example of a therapeutic effect of insulin?
a) Weight gain
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Reduced blood glucose levels
d) Increased thirst
Answer: c) Reduced blood glucose levels
Rationale: Insulin’s therapeutic effect is to lower blood glucose in patients with diabetes.
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12. What should the nurse monitor for when two drugs are known to have synergistic effects?
a) Enhanced therapeutic response
b) Reduced drug efficacy
c) Development of drug tolerance
d) Incomplete absorption
Answer: a) Enhanced therapeutic response
Rationale: Synergistic drugs enhance each other’s effects, possibly improving patient outcomes.
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13. Which medication action involves counteracting the effect of another drug?
a) Toxic effect
b) Synergistic effect
c) Antagonistic effect
d) Side effect
Answer: c) Antagonistic effect
Rationale: Antagonistic effects occur when one drug blocks or reduces the effect of another.
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14. What is a priority nursing intervention for a patient showing signs of a toxic effect?
a) Reduce the dose and continue monitoring
b) Stop the medication and provide supportive care
c) Increase fluid intake
d) Administer the drug more frequently
Answer: b) Stop the medication and provide supportive care
Rationale: Toxic effects can be life-threatening, requiring immediate discontinuation of the drug.
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15. What is the nurse’s responsibility regarding side effects?
a) Disregard minor side effects
b) Withhold the medication for all side effects
c) Educate the patient on expected side effects
d) Ignore side effects if the drug is effective
Answer: c) Educate the patient on expected side effects
Rationale: Nurses must inform patients about common side effects and how to manage them.
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16. A patient taking two medications experiences an unexpected increase in blood pressure. What type of effect is this?
a) Synergistic
b) Therapeutic
c) Adverse
d) Toxic
Answer: c) Adverse
Rationale: An adverse effect is an unexpected and harmful reaction to a medication.
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17. What type of effect occurs when a medication produces no response in the patient?
a) Side effect
b) Therapeutic effect
c) Nocebo effect
d) Ineffective drug response
Answer: d) Ineffective drug response
Rationale: This indicates that the drug failed to achieve its intended therapeutic effect.
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18. Which factor increases the risk of drug toxicity?
a) Rapid metabolism
b) Frequent drug interactions
c) Slow excretion
d) Low therapeutic index
Answer: c) Slow excretion
Rationale: Reduced excretion allows drugs to accumulate, increasing the risk of toxicity.
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19. A patient takes aspirin and develops ringing in the ears. What kind of effect is this?
a) Adverse effect
b) Side effect
c) Synergistic effect
d) Allergic reaction
Answer: a) Adverse effect
Rationale: Tinnitus is an adverse effect, often associated with aspirin overdose or sensitivity.
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20. What is the purpose of understanding drug interactions?
a) To eliminate side effects
b) To predict therapeutic failure
c) To improve medication safety
d) To prevent allergic reactions
Answer: c) To improve medication safety
Rationale: Understanding interactions helps prevent harmful effects and ensures safe medication management.
81
1. What is the most appropriate nursing action when a medication order is unclear?
a) Administer the usual dose
b) Consult the pharmacist
c) Contact the prescribing provider for clarification
d) Use your best judgment
Answer: c) Contact the prescribing provider for clarification
Rationale: Unclear orders should always be clarified to prevent medication errors.
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2. Which system is preferred for accurate medication measurement?
a) Household system
b) Apothecary system
c) Metric system
d) Imperial system
Answer: c) Metric system
Rationale: The metric system is the most precise and standardized measurement system used in healthcare.
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3. What should be included in a complete medication order?
a) Only the medication name and dose
b) Patient’s name, medication, dose, route, and frequency
c) Patient’s ID number and drug formula
d) Medication name and date of prescription
Answer: b) Patient’s name, medication, dose, route, and frequency
Rationale: A complete medication order ensures safe and accurate drug administration.
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4. What abbreviation is commonly associated with medication errors and should be avoided?
a) BID
b) U (for units)
c) TID
d) mg
Answer: b) U (for units)
Rationale: Using “U” can be misinterpreted as “0” or “4,” leading to dosage errors.
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5. When should the nurse document medication administration?
a) Before preparing the medication
b) After administering the medication
c) At the end of the shift
d) During medication preparation
Answer: b) After administering the medication
Rationale: Documentation should occur immediately after administration to ensure accuracy.
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6. What is the best method to verify the right patient before giving medication?
a) Check the patient’s room number
b) Ask the patient to confirm their birthday and name
c) Match the medication to the chart alone
d) Rely on family members for patient identification
Answer: b) Ask the patient to confirm their birthday and name
Rationale: Using two identifiers ensures correct patient identification.
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7. What is the purpose of the “right route” principle in medication administration?
a) To ensure the patient takes the medication on time
b) To prevent incorrect drug delivery methods
c) To ensure the nurse follows hospital policy
d) To monitor patient preferences
Answer: b) To prevent incorrect drug delivery methods
Rationale: The right route ensures the medication reaches the appropriate site of action.
88
8. Which medication order is correctly written?
a) “Aspirin 325 mg PO BID”
b) “Lisinopril PO 10 mg”
c) “Tylenol as needed”
d) “Amoxicillin 500 mg TID PRN”
Answer: a) “Aspirin 325 mg PO BID”
Rationale: This order includes the medication name, dose, route, and frequency.
89
9. A patient refuses a prescribed medication. What is the nurse’s next step?
a) Force the patient to take the medication
b) Document the refusal and notify the provider
c) Skip the dose and administer the next one
d) Double the next dose
Answer: b) Document the refusal and notify the provider
Rationale: Patient autonomy must be respected, and the provider must be informed.
90
10. What is a priority for preventing medication errors?
a) Avoid administering medication during busy times
b) Use the 5 (or 6) Rights of Medication Administration
c) Double the prescribed dose for safety
d) Trust the pharmacy without verification
Answer: b) Use the 5 (or 6) Rights of Medication Administration
Rationale: The 5 Rights ensure that the correct patient receives the correct drug, dose, route, and time.
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11. Which right of medication administration requires checking expiration dates?
a) Right route
b) Right time
c) Right medication
d) Right dose
Answer: c) Right medication
Rationale: Checking expiration ensures the medication is safe and effective.
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12. What is the nurse’s role in preventing abbreviation-related errors?
a) Use approved abbreviations only
b) Invent clear abbreviations for medications
c) Rely on the pharmacist to clarify orders
d) Ignore any questionable abbreviations
Answer: a) Use approved abbreviations only
Rationale: Approved abbreviations reduce the risk of misinterpretation.
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13. Which of the following is a high-alert medication?
a) Acetaminophen
b) Insulin
c) Multivitamins
d) Ibuprofen
Answer: b) Insulin
Rationale: Insulin requires careful handling to prevent serious hypoglycemia.
94
14. A nurse gives a medication 30 minutes after the scheduled time. Which principle is relevant here?
a) Right documentation
b) Right time
c) Right patient
d) Right route
Answer: b) Right time
Rationale: Medications should be given within the prescribed time window to ensure effectiveness.
95
15. Which strategy minimizes interruptions during medication administration?
a) Administering all medications at once
b) Implementing a “No Interruption” zone or policy
c) Skipping non-essential medications
d) Leaving the medications with the patient to self-administer
Answer: b) Implementing a “No Interruption” zone or policy
Rationale: Minimizing distractions reduces the risk of errors.
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16. What is the correct action if the nurse gives the wrong dose of medication?
a) Document the error and notify the provider immediately
b) Wait to see if the patient develops symptoms
c) Administer the correct dose right away
d) Withhold the next dose
Answer: a) Document the error and notify the provider immediately
Rationale: Timely reporting ensures patient safety and corrective measures.
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17. A nurse reads a medication order that says, “Give 1 tablet daily.” What is missing from the order?
a) Route
b) Dose
c) Frequency
d) Medication name
Answer: d) Medication name
Rationale: Without the medication name, the order is incomplete and unusable.
98
18. How should the nurse handle a verbal medication order in an emergency?
a) Write the order later
b) Refuse the order until written
c) Immediately transcribe and read it back to the provider
d) Administer the medication without documentation
Answer: c) Immediately transcribe and read it back to the provider
Rationale: This prevents miscommunication and ensures accurate orders.
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19. What principle ensures the medication is given by the appropriate route?
a) Right dose
b) Right time
c) Right route
d) Right frequency
Answer: c) Right route
Rationale: Administering a medication by the correct route ensures optimal absorption and therapeutic effect.
100
20. Which nursing action demonstrates the “right documentation” principle?
a) Documenting only major medications
b) Pre-charting medications before administration
c) Accurately recording the drug, dose, time, and patient response
d) Leaving documentation until the end of the shift
Answer: c) Accurately recording the drug, dose, time, and patient response
Rationale: Timely and complete documentation is essential for continuity of care and safety.
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1. What is the primary responsibility of the nurse when receiving a medication order?
A. Verify the order.
B. Administer immediately.
C. Document it.
D. Contact the pharmacist.
A. Verify the order.
Rationale: Nurses must verify medication orders to ensure accuracy and appropriateness for the patient.
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2. Which action should a nurse take if a medication order seems unclear?
A. Administer as is.
B. Ignore it.
C. Contact the prescriber for clarification.
D. Consult the pharmacist.
C. Contact the prescriber for clarification.
Rationale: It's essential to clarify unclear orders to prevent medication errors.
103
3. When should a nurse assess a patient's understanding of their medication regimen?
A. After administration.
B. Before administering the medication.
C. Only if the patient asks.
D. During discharge.
B. Before administering the medication.
Rationale: Assessing understanding prior to administration ensures that patients are informed and can safely manage their medications.
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4. What is the nurse's role in monitoring the effects of a medication?
A. Administer the medication.
B. Change the dose.
C. Observe for therapeutic and adverse effects post-administration.
D. Report to the pharmacist.
C. Observe for therapeutic and adverse effects post-administration.
Rationale: Nurses are responsible for monitoring patient responses to medications to ensure safety and efficacy.
105
5. If a patient reports side effects from a new medication, what should the nurse do first?
A. Document it.
B. Assess the patient's symptoms.
C. Notify the physician.
D. Change the medication.
B. Assess the patient's symptoms.
Rationale: The nurse should assess symptoms to determine the severity and possible need for intervention.
106
6. Which of the following actions constitutes a medication error?
A. Administering after verification.
B. Asking the patient about allergies.
C. Administering a medication without verifying the patient’s identity.
D. Documenting the administration.
C. Administering a medication without verifying the patient’s identity.
Rationale: Proper identification is crucial to prevent administering medication to the wrong patient.
107
7. What legal responsibility does a nurse have regarding medication administration?
A. The nurse is not liable.
B. The nurse is legally liable for medication errors.
C. The nurse only has to document.
D. The nurse can delegate responsibility.
B. The nurse is legally liable for medication errors.
Rationale: Nurses are responsible for their actions and can be held liable for errors made during medication administration.
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8. Which is an important aspect of critical thinking in medication administration?
A. Following the same routine every time.
B. Ignoring patient history.
C. Analyzing the patient's medication history.
D. Relying solely on the pharmacy.
C. Analyzing the patient's medication history.
Rationale: Understanding the patient's history is critical for safe medication management and avoiding interactions.
109
9. When should a nurse document medication administration?
A. Before administration.
B. Only if there are issues.
C. Immediately after administration.
D. At the end of the shift.
C. Immediately after administration.
Rationale: Documentation should occur right after administering medication to ensure accuracy and timeliness.
110
10. What should a nurse do if a patient refuses a prescribed medication?
A. Ignore the refusal.
B. Document the refusal and notify the prescriber.
C. Force the medication.
D. Change the medication.
B. Document the refusal and notify the prescriber.
Rationale: Documentation is essential to maintain a clear record of patient choices, and notifying the prescriber allows for alternative plans.
111
11. Which of the following is a key responsibility of the pharmacist?
A. Administer medications.
B. Monitor patients.
C. Review medication orders for potential interactions.
D. Educate patients about surgery.
C. Review medication orders for potential interactions.
Rationale: Pharmacists are trained to identify potential drug interactions and advise on safe medication practices.
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12. What should the nurse do if they suspect a medication error has occurred?
A. Ignore it.
B. Report the error according to facility policy.
C. Change the medication.
D. Document it later.
B. Report the error according to facility policy.
Rationale: Timely reporting allows for appropriate actions to be taken to ensure patient safety and prevent recurrence.
113
13. Why is it important for nurses to be aware of the pharmacological effects of medications?
A. To ignore side effects.
B. To provide appropriate patient education.
C. To rush administration.
D. To delay assessments.
B. To provide appropriate patient education.
Rationale: Knowledge of medication effects enables nurses to educate patients effectively, promoting adherence and safety.
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14. How should a nurse handle a medication that is not available on the pharmacy formulary?
A. Consult the pharmacist for alternatives.
B. Administer it anyway.
C. Change the patient's medication.
D. Wait for it to become available.
A. Consult the pharmacist for alternatives.
Rationale: Pharmacists can provide guidance on safe alternatives if a medication is unavailable.
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15. Which is an essential step in the "Five Rights" of medication administration?
A. Right time.
B. Right patient.
C. Right route.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
Rationale: All steps in the "Five Rights" are critical to safe medication administration.
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16. If a medication's label indicates it should be taken with food, what should the nurse advise the patient?
A. Take on an empty stomach.
B. Take the medication as directed to enhance absorption.
C. Skip meals.
D. Only take if hungry.
B. Take the medication as directed to enhance absorption.
Rationale: Following medication instructions regarding food intake can enhance effectiveness and reduce side effects.
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17. What is a nurse's role in educating patients about potential side effects of medications?
A. Provide information about side effects and when to seek help.
B. Avoid discussing side effects.
C. Change the subject.
D. Only provide written information.
A. Provide information about side effects and when to seek help.
Rationale: Educating patients empowers them to recognize and report adverse effects promptly.
118
18. What action should a nurse take if a patient is experiencing an adverse reaction to a medication?
A. Stop the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
B. Continue the medication.
C. Document later.
D. Change the dose.
A. Stop the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
Rationale: Stopping the medication is critical to prevent further harm, and notifying the provider ensures appropriate care.
119
19. How can nurses ensure medication compliance among patients?
A. Provide clear instructions and encourage questions.
B. Ignore patient concerns.
C. Only provide written instructions.
D. Delay teaching until discharge.
A. Provide clear instructions and encourage questions.
Rationale: Clear communication fosters understanding and encourages patients to adhere to their medication regimen.
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20. Why is it essential for nurses to practice critical thinking during medication administration?
A. To ensure patient safety and minimize errors.
B. To rush through tasks.
C. To follow orders blindly.
D. To avoid patient interaction.
A. To ensure patient safety and minimize errors.
Rationale: Critical thinking is vital for assessing situations and making informed decisions, reducing the risk of medication errors.
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1. What does the "Right Patient" refer to in medication administration?
A. Administering medication to any patient.
B. Confirming the patient’s identity before administration.
C. Administering medication only to those who ask.
D. Checking the patient's medical history.
B. Confirming the patient’s identity before administration.
Rationale: Confirming the patient’s identity ensures that the right individual receives the medication, preventing errors.
122
2. The "Right Medication" ensures that the nurse:
A. Administers any available medication.
B. Checks the medication label before administration.
C. Gives the medication without verification.
D. Only administers medications from memory.
B. Checks the medication label before administration.
Rationale: Checking the medication label helps ensure that the correct drug is being given to the patient.
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3. Which action is necessary for the "Right Dose"?
A. Administering the maximum dose.
B. Confirming the dosage with a second nurse.
C. Rounding the dose to the nearest whole number.
D. Giving the dose without calculation.
B. Confirming the dosage with a second nurse.
Rationale: Verifying the dose with another nurse minimizes the risk of errors in dosage administration.
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4. What does the "Right Route" involve?
A. Administering medication through any available route.
B. Following the prescribed route for medication administration.
C. Changing the route based on personal preference.
D. Administering the medication orally regardless of the order.
B. Following the prescribed route for medication administration.
Rationale: The route specified in the order is important for ensuring the medication is effective and safe.
125
5. When is the "Right Time" particularly important?
A. When it is convenient for the nurse.
B. When the patient requests medication.
C. To ensure medication is given at the scheduled intervals.
D. Only during mealtime.
C. To ensure medication is given at the scheduled intervals.
Rationale: Administering medication at the right time maintains therapeutic levels and effectiveness.
126
6. What does "Right Documentation" entail?
A. Writing down only the medications given.
B. Documenting medication administration immediately after giving it.
C. Not documenting if the patient refuses.
D. Delaying documentation until the end of the shift.
B. Documenting medication administration immediately after giving it.
Rationale: Timely documentation ensures accurate medical records and accountability.
127
7. If a nurse realizes a medication was administered to the wrong patient, what is the priority action?
A. Document the error.
B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
C. Ignore it if the patient seems fine.
D. Change the patient's medication.
B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Rationale: Immediate notification allows for prompt assessment and intervention to mitigate any potential harm.
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8. Which scenario illustrates a failure of the "Right Medication"?
A. Administering aspirin to a patient with a known allergy.
B. Checking the medication label before giving it.
C. Giving the medication to the correct patient.
D. Confirming the dosage with another nurse.
A. Administering aspirin to a patient with a known allergy.
Rationale: This scenario represents a critical error in medication administration by not adhering to safety protocols.
129
9. A nurse is preparing to administer medication but finds that the patient’s identity bracelet is missing. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication anyway.
B. Search for the bracelet and confirm identity.
C. Use their knowledge of the patient’s appearance.
D. Wait for another nurse to confirm identity.
B. Search for the bracelet and confirm identity.
Rationale: It is crucial to verify patient identity using the proper methods to prevent medication errors.
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10. What should a nurse do if a patient refuses a medication?
A. Force the patient to take it.
B. Document the refusal and inform the healthcare provider.
C. Administer the medication anyway.
D. Ignore the refusal if the nurse thinks it's necessary.
B. Document the refusal and inform the healthcare provider.
Rationale: Documenting the refusal maintains accurate medical records and ensures that the healthcare provider is aware for further action.
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11. What is an important aspect of the "Right Dose"?
A. Administering based on the patient’s preference.
B. Verifying the prescribed dose with standard dosages.
C. Giving a dose that is higher than prescribed.
D. Administering the dose only if it is round.
B. Verifying the prescribed dose with standard dosages.
Rationale: Ensuring the prescribed dose is consistent with standard dosages helps avoid overdoses or underdoses.
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12. Why is the "Right Route" crucial in medication administration?
A. It determines how quickly the drug acts.
B. It allows for personal preference.
C. It ensures the nurse’s convenience.
D. It is the only consideration in medication safety.
A. It determines how quickly the drug acts.
Rationale: The route of administration significantly impacts the onset of action and overall efficacy of the medication.
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13. When is it appropriate to administer a medication before verifying the "Right Patient"?
A. In emergencies only, after confirming with another staff member.
B. It is never appropriate.
C. When the patient is requesting it.
D. If the nurse feels confident in the identity.
B. It is never appropriate.
Rationale: Patient identification must always be confirmed before administration to prevent errors.
134
14. Which statement reflects adherence to the "Six Rights"?
A. A nurse administers a medication at a convenient time for themselves.
B. A nurse administers the correct medication at the right time and documents it immediately.
C. A nurse gives medication without checking the dosage.
D. A nurse administers medication based on a patient’s guess of what they should take.
B. A nurse administers the correct medication at the right time and documents it immediately.
Rationale: This statement reflects full adherence to the "Six Rights" of medication administration.
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15. What should a nurse do if they realize they’ve made a medication error?
A. Cover it up.
B. Notify the healthcare provider and document the error as per policy.
C. Wait until the end of the shift to report it.
D. Blame the pharmacy.
B. Notify the healthcare provider and document the error as per policy.
Rationale: Reporting and documenting the error promptly is essential for patient safety and legal protection.
136
16. If a medication must be taken "on an empty stomach," what does this indicate about the "Right Time"?
A. The medication can be taken at any time.
B. It should be taken immediately after meals.
C. It should be taken at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after eating.
D. It should be taken at night.
C. It should be taken at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after eating.
Rationale: This timing helps enhance the absorption of the medication.
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17. When documenting medication administration, what is most critical?
A. The time of administration.
B. The patient's mood.
C. The name of the nurse.
D. The type of medication only.
A. The time of administration.
Rationale: Accurate documentation of the time helps maintain a clear record of medication schedules and adherence.
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18. Which scenario exemplifies the "Right Documentation"?
A. Not documenting if the patient is stable.
B. Writing down the medication after the shift ends.
C. Documenting medications administered immediately after administration.
D. Documenting only if there’s a problem.
C. Documenting medications administered immediately after administration.
Rationale: Timely documentation is essential for accurate medical records.
139
19. Why is patient identification crucial before medication administration?
A. It is a routine practice.
B. To ensure the right medication is given to the right patient.
C. To save time.
D. To fulfill a requirement.
B. To ensure the right medication is given to the right patient.
Rationale: Patient identification is essential for preventing medication errors and ensuring patient safety.
140
20. Which of the following is NOT one of the "Six Rights" of medication administration?
A. Right patient.
B. Right medication.
C. Right billing.
D. Right time.
C. Right billing.
Rationale: The "Six Rights" focus on ensuring safe medication administration, not billing practices.
141
1. What is the primary goal of emphasizing patient safety in medication administration?
A. To reduce nursing workload.
B. To ensure the correct medication is given to the right patient.
C. To increase hospital revenue.
D. To speed up the medication administration process.
B. To ensure the correct medication is given to the right patient.
Rationale: Patient safety is paramount in healthcare to prevent medication errors and protect patient welfare.
142
2. What is the purpose of medication reconciliation?
A. To verify medication allergies.
B. To compare a patient's current medications with what they were taking previously.
C. To promote over-the-counter medications.
D. To document medication administration times.
B. To compare a patient's current medications with what they were taking previously.
Rationale: Medication reconciliation helps identify discrepancies and prevent errors during transitions in care.
143
3. When should medication reconciliation occur?
A. Only during discharge.
B. During admission, transfer, and discharge.
C. Only during transfer to another unit.
D. Only when a patient requests it.
B. During admission, transfer, and discharge.
Rationale: This process ensures accurate medication lists are maintained across care transitions.
144
4. What does a "triple check" in medication administration involve?
A. Checking the medication label only.
B. Verifying the medication three times before administration.
C. Asking the patient three times about their medications.
D. Confirming the dosage with a pharmacist three times.
B. Verifying the medication three times before administration.
Rationale: The triple check process enhances accuracy and reduces the risk of medication errors.
145
5. If a nurse makes a medication error, what is the first action they should take?
A. Inform the patient immediately.
B. Document the error.
C. Report the error to the healthcare provider.
D. Ignore it if the patient appears fine.
C. Report the error to the healthcare provider.
Rationale: Immediate reporting is essential for assessing and addressing any potential harm to the patient.
146
6. What is an essential component of a culture of safety in healthcare?
A. Blaming staff for errors.
B. Encouraging open communication and error reporting.
C. Keeping incidents secret.
D. Prioritizing speed over accuracy.
B. Encouraging open communication and error reporting.
Rationale: A positive safety culture allows for learning from mistakes and improving patient care.
147
7. Which of the following is a key aspect of continuous education in preventing medication errors?
A. Conducting annual tests for all staff.
B. Providing ongoing training about new medications and protocols.
C. Offering infrequent refresher courses.
D. Focusing solely on clinical skills.
B. Providing ongoing training about new medications and protocols.
Rationale: Continuous education keeps staff updated on best practices and enhances patient safety.
148
8. What should nurses do to prevent medication errors related to similar drug names?
A. Administer drugs based on nurse familiarity.
B. Use only generic names.
C. Always verify the medication with the label and the MAR.
D. Ignore potential confusion.
C. Always verify the medication with the label and the MAR.
Rationale: Verification minimizes the risk of administering the wrong medication due to name similarities.
149
9. Why is it important to document medication errors?
A. To blame someone for the error.
B. To ensure accountability and improve safety protocols.
C. To avoid further training on medications.
D. To keep it confidential.
B. To ensure accountability and improve safety protocols.
Rationale: Documentation helps track errors and contributes to developing strategies to prevent future occurrences.
150
10. Which of the following actions best exemplifies adherence to safety protocols?
A. Rushing to administer medications to meet time deadlines.
B. Taking time to verify each step in medication administration.
C. Administering medications without checking allergies.
D. Ignoring patients’ concerns about medications.
B. Taking time to verify each step in medication administration.
Rationale: Careful verification promotes patient safety and reduces the risk of errors.
151
11. In what situation should a nurse conduct medication reconciliation?
A. When a patient asks for it.
B. Only during discharge.
C. During admission, transfer, and discharge of the patient.
D. At the nurse’s discretion.
C. During admission, transfer, and discharge of the patient.
Rationale: These are critical times to ensure that medication lists are accurate and up-to-date.
152
12. What does effective error reporting lead to?
A. Increased workload for nurses.
B. Better patient safety practices and protocols.
C. Punitive actions against staff.
D. Decreased communication among staff.
B. Better patient safety practices and protocols.
Rationale: Reporting errors provides data that can be analyzed to enhance safety measures.
153
13. How can healthcare facilities promote a culture of safety regarding medication administration?
A. By conducting regular training and encouraging staff to report errors.
B. By punishing staff for mistakes.
C. By avoiding discussions about medication errors.
D. By limiting staff communication.
A. By conducting regular training and encouraging staff to report errors.
Rationale: Promoting open communication and ongoing education fosters a culture of safety and learning.
154
14. Which of the following is a benefit of medication reconciliation?
A. It complicates patient care.
B. It prevents medication errors during transitions in care.
C. It increases the length of hospital stays.
D. It only benefits pharmacy staff.
B. It prevents medication errors during transitions in care.
Rationale: Medication reconciliation is crucial for ensuring safe transitions between care settings.
155
15. What is a common barrier to effective medication reconciliation?
A. Engaging patients in their care.
B. Incomplete or inaccurate medication lists.
C. Collaboration among healthcare teams.
D. Effective communication.
B. Incomplete or inaccurate medication lists.
Rationale: Barriers like these can lead to medication discrepancies and potential errors.
156
16. Which strategy can help reduce the risk of medication errors?
A. Utilizing technology, such as electronic health records and barcoding.
B. Relying solely on memory.
C. Reducing staff training.
D. Ignoring patient allergies.
A. Utilizing technology, such as electronic health records and barcoding.
Rationale: Technology can enhance accuracy and accountability in medication administration.
157
17. Why is it essential for nurses to be involved in medication error reporting?
A. It is part of their job description.
B. It improves communication with physicians.
C. It helps identify patterns and prevent future errors.
D. It increases paperwork.
C. It helps identify patterns and prevent future errors.
Rationale: Involvement in error reporting is crucial for systemic improvements in patient safety.
158
18. What role does continuous education play in preventing medication errors?
A. It creates confusion among staff.
B. It helps staff stay informed about new medications and best practices.
C. It only benefits new nurses.
D. It is a one-time requirement.
B. It helps staff stay informed about new medications and best practices.
Rationale: Ongoing education is essential for keeping healthcare providers updated and competent.
159
19. When should a nurse use the "triple check" method?
A. When in a hurry.
B. Whenever administering any medication.
C. Only when administering IV medications.
D. It is not necessary.
B. Whenever administering any medication.
Rationale: The triple check method should be used consistently to enhance safety and accuracy in all medication administration.
160
20. What should a nurse do after conducting medication reconciliation?
A. File the information away without review.
B. Discuss discrepancies with the patient and healthcare team.
C. Ignore any errors found.
D. Document discrepancies only if they are significant.
B. Discuss discrepancies with the patient and healthcare team.
Rationale: Communication about discrepancies is critical for ensuring patient safety and proper medication management.
