Men's Health Flashcards

(93 cards)

1
Q

Number 1 Male Health Issue

A

Coronary Heart Disease

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2
Q

Delayed Sexual Maturity is due to

A

hypogonadism

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3
Q

Young men are most at risk for (2)

A
  • testicular cancer
  • alopecia
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4
Q

Hypogonadism

  • incomplete/delayed puberty and lack of testicular growth at ___ yo
  • ___ % of adolescent population
  • ___ (CDGP) is most common cause.
  • Functional hypogonadism (secondary to another ___)
  • organic/___ hypogonadism
A
  • 14
  • 2
  • Constitutional delay of growth and puberty
  • chronic illness
  • genetic
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5
Q

Testicular Cancer

Prognosis
* ___ yr survival rate of ___%
* ___% cure rate even if stage III
Treatment
* surgery - ___
* radiation
* chemotherapy

A
  • 5 year, 95%
  • 80%
  • orchiectomy
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6
Q

Alopecia

Major type

male pattern baldness

A

androgenic alopecia

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7
Q

Androgenic Alopecia

  • affect ___% of men
  • hereditary
  • hairs change to short, wispy, and non-pigmented
  • increased ___ could be the cause
A
  • 50
  • DHT
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8
Q

What type of alopecia is this?

A

Alopecia areata

Autoimmune; small round patches

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9
Q

What type of alopecia is this?

A

Alopecia universalis

Complete hair loss on scalp and body

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10
Q

Traction alopecia
* caused by ___

A

man buns

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11
Q

Drug-induced alopecia examples

A
  • anabolic steroids
  • Cancer chemotherapy
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12
Q

Alopecia Treatment

Finasteride (Propecia®)
MOA: inhibits ___ which stops the conversion of testosterone to ___
Dose: ___ mg po ___ daily
SE: decreased ___; ED; dec volume of ___

A
  • type II 5-alpha reductase, DHT
  • 1, once
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13
Q

T or F: women of child bearing age should avoid handling Finasteride

A

True

alters sexual development of the fetus

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14
Q

Alopecia Treatment

Minoxidil (Rogaine®)
MOA: enlarging miniaturized hair follicles by increasing ____ to the follicle. Stimulates hair folicle from ___ (resting phase) to ___ (growth phase)
Dose: ___% foam/solution applied to dry scalp ___ daily every day
* may take ___ months to see results

A
  • blood flow, telogen, anagen
  • 5%, twice
  • 4
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15
Q

Diagnosis of Hypogonadism

must have both low ___ levels with symptoms

A

testosterone

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16
Q

examples of specific signs/symptoms of low testosterone

A
  • reduced libido
  • gynecomastia
  • loss of body hair
  • reduced muscle bulk and strength
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17
Q

T or F: initial diagnostic blood testing for testosterone can be done any time during the day

A

false; should be done in the morning

Confirm with 2nd test; Free testosterone level less than 5 ng/dl

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18
Q

T or F: Low testosterone is less than 300 ng/dL

A

True

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19
Q

What dosage form of testosterone is most similar to physiologic levels

A

the patch

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20
Q

T or F: Oral testosterone capsules (Jatenzo) must be taken with food

A

True

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21
Q

Most OTC products are hormone
____ derived from natural
products.

A

precursors

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22
Q

Testosterone undecanoate capsules

Jatenzo
Dosing: 150-___ mg ___ daily with food
Measure serum testosterone levels 6 hours after AM dose

A
  • 396, twice
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23
Q

Contraindications to THT

  • ___ and ___ cancer
  • Hematocrit >50%
  • Baseline PSA greater than ___ ng/mL or PSA > ___ ng/mL in men with high risk for prostate cancer
  • recent or poorly controlled ___
A
  • prostate, breast
  • 4, 3
  • CVD
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24
Q

Black Box Warnings

  • gel formulation has concerns of secondary exposure to ___
  • controversy regarding ____ risk (injection > patches and gels)

FDA voted to add strict new limitations to testosterone inidustry

A
  • children
  • cardiac
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25
# Monitoring * Patients should be monitored ___ months after initiating therapy * Goal levels: ___ ng/dL * if hematocrit goes above ___%, therapy should be stopped
* 3-6 * 400-700 * 54%
26
What drugs cause drug induced sexual dysfunction? (5)
* antidepressants * antihypertesnisve agents * estrogens * 5 alpha reductase inhibitors * cancer chemotherapy
27
T or F: "if you don't use it, you lose it." Regular sex protects against ED
True
28
three subtypes of erections
* psychogenic * reflexogenic * nocturnal
29
T or F: erections are initiated by the sympathetic nervous system and suppressed by the parasympathetic system
False; difficult to run away from a mountain lion with a full erection | initiated by parasympathetic, suppressed by sympathetic
30
# erection 101 1. Upon sexual stimulation, ___ is released which casues release of ___ from the ___ neurons in the penis. 2. NO activates ___ which converts GTP to ___. 3. Elevated levels of cGMP results in ___ release and produces smooth muscle ___ in the penis. 4. This results in ___ flooding the penis chambers and veins being ___ to prevent draining.
* ACH, nitrous oxide, NANC * guanylate cyclase, cGMP * Ca2+, relaxation * arterial blood, squeezed shut
31
# Nocturnal Erections * ___ is important to penile health * normal range of nocturnal erections per night: ___ * frequency influenced by ___ levels * controlled by ___ nerves * associated with ___ sleep and suppression of the ___ system * full ___ may mildly stimulate this nerve
* oxygen * 3-6 * testosterone * sacral * REM, sympathetic * bladder
32
# Step-wise treatment of ED 1. treat/eliminate known causes 2. oral ___ inhibitors ( ____ if contraindicated) 3. Intra ___ or intra ___ Tx 4. possible ___ therapy 5. Penile prosthesis
* PDE-5, vacuum * urethral, cavernous * combo
33
# PDE-5 inhibitors * originially intended for ___ * promotes smooth muscle ___ by stopping the hydrolyzation of ___ to 5'GMP * Sexual stimulation is required * enhances development and ___ (more rigid and longer lasting) * decreases ___ period
* angina * relaxation * cGMP * maintenance * refractory
34
# PDE-5 inhibitors Dosing Sildenafil (Viagra) * Common strengths: ___ , ___ , and ___ * Starting dose: ___ * Max dose: ___ * Onset ___ * Duration: ___ * DI with ___ inhibitors * Lower dose with ___ blockers * take on ___ stomach
* 25, 50, 100 mg * 50 mg * 100 mg * 30-60 min * 4 hrs * CYP3A4 * alpha * empty | 25 mg starting dose in patients > 65 yo, hepatic impairment, CrCl < 30
35
# PDE-5 inhibitors Dosing Vardenafil (Levitra) * Common strengths: ___ , ___ , ___ , and ___ * Starting dose: ___ * Max dose: ___ * Onset ___ * Duration: ___ * take on ___ stomach
* 2.5, 5, 10, 20 mg * 10 mg * 20 mg * 30-60 min * 4 hrs * empty
36
# PDE-5 inhibitors Dosing Tadalafil (Cialis) * Common strengths: ___ , ___ , ___ , and ___ * Starting dose: ___ ( ___ if daily) * Max dose: ___ * Onset ___ * Duration: ___ * does NOT decrease ___ * indicated for ___ * Okay to take with ___ * daily low dose may be more effective for some patients
* 2.5, 5, 10, 20 mg * 10 mg, 2.5-5 mg * 20 mg * 60 min * 36 hrs * BP * BPH * food
37
# PDE-5 inhibitors Dosing Avanafil (Stendra) * Common strengths: ___ , ___ , and ___ * Starting dose: ___ * Max dose: ___ * Onset ___ * Duration: ___ * DI with ___ inhibitors * Lower dose with ___ blockers * Okay to take with ___
* 50, 100, 200 mg * 100 mg * 200 mg * 30-60 min * 6 hrs * CYP3A4 * alpha * food
38
# PDE-5 inhibitors T or F: 30-40% of men may not respond to the initial dose
True | next step is to try a larger dose
39
T or F: there is tachyphylaxis with PDE-5 inhibitiors
False | no known tachyphylaxis
40
CYP3A4 inhibitors (5)
* cimetidine * ketoconazole * erythromycin * ritonavir * grapefruit
41
T or F: Food delays the absorption of many PDE-5 inhibitors
True | Fatty meal can delay absorption of Viagra and Levitra by 1 extral hour
42
# PDE-5 inhibitors Side Effects SE are dose related, mild, and self limiting (6)
* headsche * flushing * dyspepsia (indigestion) * nasal congestion * light sensitivity * NAION non-artermitic ischemic optic neuropathy (sudden loss in vision)
43
Do not use PDE-5 inhibitors on patients on oral or transdermal ___
nitrates | severe hypotension
44
patients on ___ blockers require a lower dose of PDE-5 inhibitors
alpha
45
# Pulmonary Hypertension dosing Sildenafil (Revatio) Dosing: ___ mg po ___ daily | generic available
20 mg, three times
46
# Pulmonary Hypertension dosing Tadalafil (Adcirca) Dosing: ___ mg po ___ daily
40 mg, once
47
vacuum are contraindicated in patients with ____
sickle cell anemia
48
# Transurethral Suppositories * Alprostadil Pellets (Muse) common strengths: ___ , ___ , ____ , and ___ * less effective than ___ * onset within ___ * penile pain 30%, burning 10%
* 125, 250, 500, 1000 mcg * injection * 5-10 minutes
49
# Alprostadil Pellets (Muse counseling points) * before you insert, make sure to ___ * ___ penis for 10-30 seconds * max of __ doses per day
* pee * roll * 2
50
# Intracavernosal Injections Alprostadil injections (Caverject) * Drug of choice is patient fails with ___ inhibitors * Highly effective * best for ___ ED * onset within ___ * duration ____ * Max of ___ inj/day; ___ per week * NO ___ stimulation required
* PDE-5 * neurogenic * 5 min * 1 hr * 1, 3 * sexual
51
# Alprostadil injections (Caverject) side effects * local irritation * burning/dull penile pain * risk of ___ * cavernosal ___ or areas of ___
* priapism * plaques, fibrosis
52
# Alprostadil injections (Caverject) counseling points * use a ___ gauge needle * start at ___ mcg (many start at ___ mcg) * max dose: ___ * ___ to dose that produces an erection lasting 1 hour
* 27-30 * 2.5, 10 mcg * 60 mcg * titrate
53
# Penile Prostheses * irreversible * only use when other treatments fail * replace every ___ years
5-10
54
T or F: ischemic priapism is not painful
False; ischemic priapism is painful, non-ischemic is not painful
55
# Drug-Induced Priapism * ED drugs * antidepressants (5) * antipsychotics (2) * anticoagulants (2) * cocaine * Others (3)
Antidepressants * bupropion * trazadone * fluoxetine * sertraline * Li Antipsychotics * clozapine * chlorpromazine Anticoagulants * heparin * warfarin Others * EtOH * prazosin * hydroxyzine
56
# Tx of Priapism ischemic * phenylephrine ___ mg * blood ___ * saline ___ non-ischemic * cold packs and compression
* 0.1-1 mg * aspiration * irrigation
57
Peyronie’s Disease (PD) is also known as ___ disease
bent carrot
58
# Peyronie’s Disease bent erections (at least ___ degrees) * pain * palpable penile ___
* 30 degrees * plaques
59
# Peyronie’s Disease treatment Xiaflex * ___ clostridium histolyticum Injection * 2 treatments over ___ days; can be repeated up to __ cycles * $26k * penile ___ TID
* Collagenase * 3, 4 * stretching
60
Prostate cancer has high prevalence in ___ individuals
non-hispanic black
61
T or F: prostate cancer is the most common type of cancer in men
True
62
T or F: 80% of prostate cancer diagnosis is in stages III and IV
False: most are in stage I or II | Most men with diagnosis do not die from it
63
# PSA Screening Normal range: ___ Borderline range (25% risk) : ___ 50% Risk: ___
* < 4 ng/mL * 4-10 ng/mL * > 10 ng/mL
64
yearly screening for people with PSA level greater than or equal to ___
2.5 ng/mL
65
* Routine PSA screening recommended for men ___ and over * Start baseline screening for ___ men ages ___ with FH of prostate cancer
* 70 * african american, 40-45
66
normal size of prostate gland * growth is commonn for men over ___ years old
* 20 mg * 40
67
What type of receptors are in the prostate gland?
alpha-1a adrenergic
68
___ reductase in prostate converts testosterone to ___, which is respinsible for prostate growth
type-II alpha, DHT
69
Obstructive Symptoms (5)
* Decreased force of stream * Hesitancy to initiate voiding * Strain or push to urinate * Terminal dribbling * Intermittency
70
Irritative Symptoms * incomplete ___ emptying * ___uria (night) * ___uria (pain) * frequency * urgency * Incontinence
* bladder * noct * dys
71
Nocturia is __ or more voids per night * redistribution of ___
2 * edema
72
BPH diagnosis requires ___ symptoms and a ___ exam
73
# Complications of BPH * chronic ___ failure * overflow urinary ___ * recurrent ___ * diminishes ___ of life
* renal * inconinence * UTIs * quality
74
# BPH AUA scores * Mild AUA: less than or equal to ___ * Moderate AUA: ___ * Severe AUA: greater than or equal to ___
* 7 * 8-19 * 20
75
# Non-Drug Therapy for BPH Avoid drugs with strong ___ properties * decreases ___ of bladder detrusor muscle * results in urinary ___ What are some examples of these drugs? (4)
* anti-cholinergic * contractility * retention * antihistamines (Benadryl) * tricyclic antidepressants * Cogentin, Artane, Scopolamine * anti-muscarinics (Ditropan)
76
T or F: Approximately half of men with BPH also have OAB (incontinence)
True
77
Men with both BPH and OAB have better results if they take a combo alpha antagonist and anti-muscarinic... but antimuscarinics ahould be avoided in BPH patients with post void residual > ___ mL or max urine flow rate of < ___ mL/s
* 200 mL * 5 mL/s
78
Moderate BPH Treatments * ___ blockers +/- * ___ therapy * ___ inhibitors
* alpha * hormone * PDE
79
Severe Treatment Option: ___ * TUIP * TURP * open prostatectomy
surgery * Transurethral Incision of Prostate * Transurethral Resection of the Prostate | Picture is TURP
80
# Alpha-1a Adrenergic Blockade * ___ smooth muscle tone of prostate gland and bladder neck * improved urine ___ * Does NOT reduce ___ of prostate gland * decreases AUA by ____ %
* relaxes * flow * size * 30-40%
81
# Alpha-1 Adrenergic Blockers Dosing Terazosin Brand: Starting Dose: Maintenance Dose:
* Hytrin * 1 mg hs * 10-20 mg hs
82
# Alpha-1 Adrenergic Blockers Dosing Doxazosin Brand: Starting Dose: Maintenance Dose:
* Cardura * 1mg hs * 4-8 mg hs
83
# Alpha-1 Adrenergic Blockers Dosing Tamsulosin Brand: Starting Dose: Maintenance Dose:
* Flomax * 0.4 mg hs * 0.4-0.8 mg hs | Take ½ hr after same meal each day!
84
# Alpha-1 Adrenergic Blockers Dosing Alfuzosin Brand: Starting Dose: Maintenance Dose:
* Uroxatrol * 10 mg daily * 10 mg daily
85
# Alpha-1 Adrenergic Blockers Dosing Silodosin Brand: Starting Dose: Maintenance Dose:
* Rapaflo * 4 mg daily * 4-8 mg daily | Take with food!
86
# Alpha-1 Adrenergic Blockers Side Effects * Dizziness * Fatigue * headache * orthostatic hypotension (first dose with ___ and ___ ) * retrograde ejaculation ( espepcially with ___ and ___ ) * Floppy ___ Syndrome
* Cardura and Hytrin * Rapaflo and Flomax * Iris
87
# Moderate BPH Treatment PDE Inhibitors * effectiveness similar to alpha antagonists * Tadalafil ___ mg daily * ___ smooth muscle tone of prostate gland and bladder neck * improves urine ___
* 5 mg * relaxes * flow
88
# Hormonal Therapy for BPH * ___ inhibitors which decreases dihydrotestosterone (DHT) production decreases size of prostate by ___ % * men with prostate greater than ___ g benefit most * onset of action may be as long as ___
* 5-alpha reductase * 20-25% * 40 g * 6 months
89
# Hormonal Therapy Finasteride (Proscar) ___ mg po daily
5 mg
90
Dutasteride (Avodart) ___ mg po daily
0.5 mg
91
# Side Effects of Hormonal Therapy Mild and transient
* impotence * decreased libido * decrease volume of ejaculate * breast enlargement/tenderness
92
T or F: Hormonal therapy decreases PSA by 50% in 6 monthes
True
93
# Combination therapy for BPH * Jayln is made up of ___ and ___ * for BPH and ED * for BPH and OAB | more effective than either agent alone
* Dutasteride + Tamsulosin * Finasteride + Tadalafil * Tamsulosin + Tolterodine