Merryl and Meaghan Perritti Board Review Flashcards
(229 cards)
1
Q
What is the Scintillator made of?
A
Cesium Iodide
2
Q
What is the purpose of the Scintillator?
A
Converts X-rays to Light
3
Q
What is a photodiode made of?
A
Amorphous Silicon
4
Q
What is a Scintillator made of?
A
Cesium Iodide
5
Q
Number of Ionizations in Air
A
Exposure
6
Q
Measures the energy of ionizations in air
A
Air KERMA
7
Q
Air KERMA unit of measurement is:
A
Gya
8
Q
1 Gy=
A
1 joule/kilogram (J/kg)
9
Q
KERMA stands for:
A
Kinetic Energy Released in Matter
10
Q
Energy absorbed in matter per unit mass
A
Absorbed Dose (D)
11
Q
Includes photoelectric and absorption and Compton scatter
A
Absorbed Dose (D)
12
Q
Absorbed Dose=
A
Photoelectric + Compton
13
Q
If you increase mA how would it effect absorbed dose to patient?
A
increase
14
Q
Increase SID how would that effect absorbed dose?
A
decrease
15
Q
Expressed as Sieverts
A
Equivalent Dose
16
Q
Equivalent Dose is expressed as
A
Sieverts
17
Q
Factor reflecting the relative harmfulness of various types of radiation
A
WR
18
Q
Wr for X-rays, Beta, Gamma Rays
A
1
19
Q
Determined by multiplying the absorbed dose by radiation weighting factor
A
Equivalent Dose (EqD)
20
Q
X-rays have a ______ LET and _________ RBE
A
low, low
21
Q
The amount of energy deposited per unit length of track
A
LET
22
Q
Gy x Wr = Sv
A
Equivalent Dose
23
Q
Sv = Gy x Wt x Wr
A
Effective Dose
24
Q
Can be used to calculate the risk of cancer
A
Effective Dose
25
A calculated dose that takes into account the type of radiation the patient was exposed to (equivalent dose) as well as what part of the body was irradiated
Effective dose
26
Where is the image intensifier?
-In stationary fluoroscopy room above the patient
-In mobile fluoroscopy + C-arm (it should be placed above the patient, but can be placed in a lateral position)
27
Input phosphor is made of:
Cesium Iodide
28
Focuses the beam in the image intensifier
Electrostatic Lens
29
The output phosphor is made of:
zinc Cadmium Sulfide
30
Image Intensifier Process:
XLELM
-X-rays are converted to light in the input phosphor, light to electrons in the photocathode, electrons to light, converts the light photons to electrical signal (CCD), see on the monitor screen
31
Mobile Fluoroscopy SSD:
30 cm
32
Stationary Fluoroscopy SSD:
38 cm
33
Spell HIPAA
HIPAA
34
If you increase the kVp, what will happen to the speed of x-rays?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain the Same
Remain the Same
35
If you are collimated to a 14 x 17 to 10 x 12 what will happen to receptor exposure, contrast, % scatter?
Receptor Exposure: Decrease
Contrast: Increase
Scatter: Decrease
36
What Projection? What sinuses are seen?
AP Axial, NO sinuses seen
37
Leakage Radiation Occurs at:
1 mGy per hour at 1 meter
38
Radiation that comes out of the tube housing is called:
Leakage Radiation
39
What is a mR or mGy?
1/1000 Gy
40
What is a milli?
one thousandth
41
FOV/Matrix
Pixel Size
42
Pixel Size x Matrix
FOV
43
FOV/Pixel Size
Matrix
44
The distance between the center of one pixel to the center of another pixel
Pixel Pitch
45
Inherent Filtration has to be:
.5 mm of Aluminum
46
The glass envelope, the oil, the mirror from collimator has to be:
2 mm Aluminum Equivalent
47
How does filtration minimize patient exposure?
48
How does filtration effect receptor exposure? Contrast?
Decrease
Decrease
49
Low kVp is:
increase contrast
50
High hVp is:
Decreased contrast
51
When filtration is increased
contrast is decreased
52
Image Intensifier
53
label
54
.000375 ms to seconds
.000000375 seconds
55
25 cm is how many mm?
250 mm
56
300 ms to seconds
.3 seconds
57
1 inch=
2.54 cm
25.4 mm
58
Lead and Concrete Equivalent for Primary Protective Barrier
1.6 mm
59
The length of the portable exposure cord?
2 meters
60
Mortise View of the ankle
15 degrees
61
Medial Oblique of the ankle
45 degrees
62
Gall bladder location of a hypersthenic patient
High and Transverse
Level T10-T11
63
Stomach location for Hypersthenic patient
High and more transverse
Level T9-T12
64
Duodenal Bulb location for Hypersthenic patient
T11-T12
65
Stomach location for a Hyposthenic/Asthenic patient
T11-L5
66
Duodenal bulb location for Hyposthenic/Asthenic patient:
L3-L4
67
Gallbladder location for Hyposthenic/Asthenic patient:
L3-L4 (just above crest)
68
Name the Body Habitus.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. Sthenic
B. Hyposthenic
C. Asthenic
D. Hypersthenic
69
Identify the body habitus.
A.
B.
C.
A. Hypersthenic
B. Sthenic
C. Asthenic/Hyposthenic
70
Why is the right hemidyaphragm positioned more superior than the left?
Liver
71
What condition might cause flattening of the diaphragm?
Emphysema/COPD
72
What study and what position?
Upper GI
PA (air in the fundus)
73
The patient is not oblique enough
Oblique the patient more
35-40 degrees
74
RAO drinking Esophagus
35-40 degrees
75
What is this? What is it used for?
Swallowing Dysfunction Study (CINE)
Aspiration
Stroke Patients
76
KNOW ANATOMY
77
KNOW ANATOMY
78
KNOW ANATOMY
79
KNOW ANATOMY
80
What lives in the C-loop of the duodenum?
Head of the pancreas
81
What position?
What Projection?
Prone (PA)
82
What position?
What projection?
Supine (AP)
83
What position?
RAO
84
What position?
LPO
85
What Projection?
What is it demonstrating?
Right Lateral Stomach
Retrogastric Space
86
What position?
Right Lateral Stomach
87
Know Anatomy
88
Know Anatomy
89
The order of the small Intestine:
1. Duodenum
2. Jejunum
3. IlEum
90
Performed to best compress the bowel:
Prone Abdomen
91
Know anatomy
92
transverse colon sits:
anteriorly to the flextures
93
Maximum enema bag height is above the table:
18-24 inches ( cm)
94
BE tip insertion:
sims position
95
What study?
Supine AP And Prone- Single Contrast Study
96
If the patient is in an RPO which flexture is opened up?
The Upside
The Splenic
97
If the patient is in an LPO which flexture is opened up?
The Upside
The Hepatic Flexture
98
If the patient is in an RAO which flexture is opened up?
Hepatic Flexture
The downside
99
If the patient is in an LAO which flexture is opened up?
Splenic Flecture
The downside
100
What position?
LPO
RAO
101
What position?
RPO
LAO
102
RAO & LPO will both demonstrate:
Right Hepatic Flexture
103
LAO & RPO will both demonstrate the:
Left Splenic Flexture
104
What position? What is best demonstrated?
LPO
Right Hepatic Flexture Best Demonstrated
105
What position? What is best demonstrated?
RAO
Right Hepatic Flexture is Best Demonstrated
106
What position? What is best demonstrated?
RPO
Left Splenic Flexture best demonstrated
107
What position? What is best demonstrated?
LAO
Left Splenic Flexture Best Demonstrated
108
What study? What position?
Double Contrast Study
Supine
109
What study? What position?
Double Contrast Study
Prone
110
What Position?
Right Lateral Decubitus
(Right side is filled with barium, Right side is lower)
111
What position?
Left Lateral Decubitus
112
Left Lateral Decubitus
113
Rectosigmoid Region
Single Contrast Enema
Lateral Rectum
Left lateral
114
Double Contrast Enema (air) uses X-table lateral Rectum
Air Fluid Levels
115
AP Axial Sigmoid Tube Angle:
30-40 cephalad
116
PA Axial Sigmoid Tube angle:
30-40 Caudad
117
What Method?
PA Axial Sigmoid
"Butterfly Method"
118
What method?
AP Axial Sigmoid
"Butterfly Method"
119
Abdomen taken prior to the start of any fluoroscopy study involving contrast:
Scout
120
Abdomen (PA or AP) taken after a fluoroscopy study with contrast
(Patient should try to evacuate as much contrast as possible prior to taking exposure)
Post- Evacuation
121
What study? Best Demonstrates?
Hysterosalpingogram
Patency of Fallopian Tubes
Lithotomy Position
122
Contrast Media is administered vis spinal puncture into the subarachnoid space-intrathecal injection
Myelography
123
Preferred site for spinal puncture for myelography:
L3-L4
Using Water Soluble Contrast
124
Primary Pathology for Myeolography:
Herniated Nucleus Pulposus (HNP)
125
When the nucleus pulposus protrudes into the annulus fibrosis
Herniated Disk
126
Myelography
L3-L4
127
Study of Synovial Joints and surrounding tissues with contrast media:
Arthography
128
Arthrography
129
Involves Informed and Written Consent, Patient History, Medications, blood thinners, allergies, sterile technique
Arthography
130
Synarthroses Joints
Immovable, fixed or fibrous joints, no movement
Bones of the Skull
131
Amphiathrosis Joints
slightly movable (cartilaginous joints)
limited movement
Vertebrae and Spine
132
Diarthroses Joints
Freely Movable
Synovial Joints
Synovial Fluid
Knee and Shoulder
133
Where is the saddle joint?
Thumb
134
IVU is a:
functional test, Antegrade Contrast Method
135
Know Anatomy
136
What type of study is this?
IVU study
Intravenous Urography
137
IVU AP scout, and series
Pt. should empty bladder prior to injection
-
138
IVU Obliques RPO and LPO
30 degree posterior oblique
139
Radiographic examination of the bladder
Cystography
140
To see the posterior aspect of the bladder
Ureterovesical junction (UV)
141
Voiding Cystourethrogram
142
Males Voiding Cystourethrogram position:
30 degree RPO
143
Female Cystourethrography Position:
AP Position
144
What pathology?
Urinary Reflux
145
What pathology?
Double Collecting System
146
What pathology
Horseshoe Kidney
147
Procedure to adress kidney stones:
Ureteroscopy
148
Involves the passage of a ureteroscope through the urethra and bladder and up the ureter to the point where the stone is located
Ureteroscopy
149
Done in the operating room with a urologist
Ureteroscopy
150
What procedure
Ureteroscopy
151
Ureteroscopy
152
Know Anatomy
153
Know Anatomy
154
Duct that connects gallbladder
Cystic Duct
155
Hepatic Duct
Duct that connects the liver
156
Cystic and Hepatic Duct combine to form this duct
Common bile duct
157
What procedure?
ERCP
158
Common bile duct joins the pancreatic duct together they empty into the:
Hepatopancreatic Ampulla (Ampulla of Vater)
159
Presence of stones in the gallbladder
Cholelithiasis
160
Inflammation of the pancreas
Pancreatitis
161
Juandice
Yellow collowing
162
What procedure
Surgical Cholangiogram
163
Surgical Removal of Gallbladder
Cholecystectomy
164
Composed of higher-atomic number elements
Positive Contrast
165
Appears radiopaque on an image
Positive Contrast
166
Barium Sulfate
Atomic Number 56
167
Water soluble iodinated
Atomic Number 53
168
Composed of low atomic number elements
Negative Contrast
Appears radiolucent on image
Air
CO2
169
Thoracic Cavity is lined with:
Visceral and Piratial Flora
170
Abdomin is lined with:
Visceral and Piretial
171
Three structures of the diaphagm:
Inferior Vena Cava
Aorta
Esophagus
172
How many ribs are on this image?
10 posterior ribs
173
What is this structure?
Sphenoid Sinus
174
The back part of the sella turcica is called:
Dorsum Cella
175
Cervical Vertebrae
Two top holes: Transverse Foramen
Bottom big hole: intervertebral Foramen
176
Gaynor Hart method
Carpal Bones
177
KNOW ANATOMY
178
1. AP
2. Internal Rotation (Coronoid Process)
3. External Rotation (Head of Radius)
179
1.
2.
180
A.
B.
A. Greater Tubericle in profile
B. Lesser Tubericle in profile but superimposed
AP Shoulder
181
Shoulder Internal Rotation
Epicondyles perpendicular to IR
Lesser Tuberosity in Profile
182
Name this position
Grashey Method for Shoulder (45 degree oblique)
Glenoid Fossa in Profile
183
Which cell would you choose if this was your patient?
Manual Technique
NO AEC
184
Wilhelm Roentgen discovered x-rays in
1895
185
NCRP stands for
national council for radiation protection and measurements
186
NCRP 116 measures:
limitation of exposure to ionizing radiation of people
187
NCRP 102:
Medical X-ray, Electron Beam, and Gamma Ray protection for up to 50 MeV, equipment
188
Avoidance of serious x-ray induced skin injuries to patients during fluoroscopy guided procedures
FDA
189
Exposure Factors (Fluoroscopy)
High kVp 100 or more, allows the mA to be between 1-5 mA or .1 - 5 mA
-limit the number of spot films
-limit the use of magnification feature
-tightly collimate
190
For radiation protection purposes the fluoroscopic table top exposure rate must not exceed:
10 mR/min
191
The table top intensity should not exceed: (fluoroscopy exposure rate)
*2.2 R/min for each mA of current at 80 kVp
192
(Grids) The use of a 5:1 grid will increase the patient's exposure by:
2 xs
193
(Grids) The use of a 10:1,12:1 grid will increase the patient's exposure by:
5 xs
194
The relationship between Grids and minimizing patient exposure:
No relationship, they don't
195
(positioning) position the patient in fluoroscopy:
with the fluoroscopy off, do what you need to do and then turn the beam on
196
Where is the radiation coming from in fluoroscopy? (positioning)
Below the patient
197
Proper positioning of the patient is more important in fluoroscopy or radiography?
fluoroscopy because of the continuous beam
198
Where do you put the shield in a fluoroscopy room?
Put the shield on the table and then the patient lays on top of it (positioning)
199
(fluoroscopy time) a cumulative timer must be used after how long in fluoroscopy?
5 minutes
Audio Signal
200
Where the radiologist periodically activates the x-ray beam instead of using a continuous beam (fluoroscopy time)
Intermittent Fluoroscopy
201
If you are flouroing you can hold the image so that the doctor can insert the guidewire without the use of fluoroscopy
Last Image Hold, Dose Saving Technique
202
The fluoroscopic equipment maintains image brightness by adjusting of part thickness by automatically varying the kVp, mA, or both
ABC (automatic brightness control)
203
To keep the signal to noise ratio (SNR) constant by adjusting the exposure factors automatically:
AERC System
204
21 CFR states that the source-skin distance (SSD) cannot be less than _________ on stationary fluoroscopes.
38 cm SSD (receptor positioning)
205
21 CFR states that source to skin (SSD) distance cannot be less than _______ for mobile fluoroscopes.
30 cm SSD (receptor positioning)
206
During mobile fluoroscopy, the C-arm should be positioned so the x-ray tube is ___________. The image intensifier is ___________.
-under the patient
-close to the patient as possible (receptor positioning)
207
Magnification Mode:
-conventional, multi field image intensifiers a magnified image is less distorted and makes small details easier to see, but it comes at a cost of more radiation to the patient.
-digital, dynamic flat-panel detectors allow the operator to zoom without an increase in exposure
208
KERMA stands for:
Kinetic Energy Released in Matter or Mass
209
Allow for the operator to zoom without an increase in exposure
Magnification Mode
210
What does this represent?
Cumulative dose AIR KERMA Display. That is documented in the patients chart.
211
The last frame is displayed when the beam is turned off, allowing the operator to evaluate the image before continuing the procedure
Last Image Hold (LIH)
212
means shall be provided to limit the source-to-skin distance to no less than ________ on stationary flouroscopes.
38 cm
213
Source-to-skin distance is no less than _________ on mobile fluoroscopes (C-Arm).
30 cm
214
Where is the DAP meter located?
on the collimator, in front of it.
215
*The unit that measures DAP (dose area product):
*Gy-cm^2
OR
*cGy-cm^2
216
DAP meters measure:
the radiation dose to air x the area of the x-ray field
217
DAP stands for:
Dose Area Product
218
*Protective Drapes have to be a minimum:
*0.25 mm Pb (LEAD)
219
Shielding devices such as lead screen drapes and table sides:
SHALL be provided to minimize over-table scatter radiation from reaching the operator
220
The Bucky slot cover has to be a minimum of:
0.25 mm Pb
221
To attenuate all scatter or leakage radiation originating under the table
Bucky Slot Cover
222
Activated by the fluoroscope exposure switch
Deadman Type Switch
223
Produces an AUDIBLE signal or interrupts beam after 5 minutes of fluoro time:
Cumulative Timer
224
What is this?
An installed remotely controlled digital fluoroscopic imaging system with a over-table x-ray tube and under table image receptor
225
Set Standards for the use of Ionizing Radiation:
NCR, NCRP, CFR-21
226
Conducts Inspections of Institutions to determine if the radiographic Equipment Meets Standards
The Food and Drug Administration
227
Doing a regular chest x-ray the wall where the Bucky is:
Primary Protective Barrier
228
Any barrier that intercepts the primary useful beam.
Primary Protective Barrier
229
