Mesa GOM Flashcards
(177 cards)
1
Q
How many hours do you have to wait to fly after scuba diving?
A
24 Hours
2
Q
Hours after consuming alcohol?
A
12 hrs/company; 8 hrs/FAR
3
Q
What is the lowest reported visibility that will allow a FO to perform the T/O on a 121 flight?
A
1 SM
4
Q
What % of the effective length of the runway at the destination must a turbojet airplane be able to make a landing and come to a complete stop?
A
60%
5
Q
What is listed on the dispatch release for MELs?
A
MEL item, MEL #, Description, and Expiration Date
6
Q
CA must contact dispatch when delayed more than how many minutes?
A
15 minutes
7
Q
What kinds of pax are we unable to carry?
A
Incubated infants, infants less than 1 day old, pregnant women within 7 days of due date w/o MD approval w/i 72 hrs, barefoot pax, intox. pax, pax with O2 tanks, Pax armed, CA discretion, pax that can’t sit upright or fit in the seat
8
Q
How many high risk prisoners can you take aboard?
A
No more than 1 high risk prisoner accompanied with 2 LEOs and must board first and deplane last
9
Q
What is the min uninterrupted sleep behind closed doors?
A
8 hrs
10
Q
Which pax will not be permitted to sit in exit row?
A
- deaf or hard hearing,
- < 15 yrs of age,
- Can’t read, speak, or understand English,
- lack physical capability to operate exit door
- Not guard or prisoner
11
Q
Which PEDs are prohibited to be used at all times?
A
radios, TVs, remote control devices, GPS devices, and e-cigs
12
Q
What are the procedures for obtaining a temp Airmen Cert if lost?
A
- Pilot will contact Mesa CS and request Sup and have his/her identity verified.
- Temp Airmen Cert. Letter serves as pilot cert. for 72 hrs
- A replacement airmen cert. request must be made to FAA w/i 72 hrs of issue
- Real temp cert. must be sent to Crew Quals w/i 24 hrs
13
Q
How long can the real temp airmen cert. be carried around after issue by FAA
A
60 days
14
Q
What are the 4 Pillars of Safety?
A
- Safety Policy
- SRM
- Safety Assurance
- Safety Promotion
15
Q
Codeshare Performance Goals
A
- DP D-0
- STAR/Head Start Flights - on time perf. first flight out
- Arrival-14 no later than 14 mins past sched. arrival time
16
Q
Dispatcher Responsibilities
A
- Monitor progress of flight
- Issue info for safety of flight
- Canceling or redispatching
17
Q
PIC Responsibilities
A
- Command of a/c and crew and safety of all aboard
- Full op. control and authority without limitation
- Inflight Security Advisor
- Monitors Nav Perf and verifying present position
- Monitoring WX
- Verification of A/C Airworthiness (no open discrepencies, ARROW, and AML onboard)
18
Q
Define Operational Control
A
The exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, and terminating a flight
19
Q
SOC maintains air-to-gnd comms through which 3 channels?
A
- Station Frequencies
- ARINC
- ACARS
20
Q
What defines a theater?
A
FDP DP and Arrival point that differs no more than 60˚ in longitude
21
Q
How many hours in theater must a crewmember be in to be considered acclimated?
A
72 hrs or 36 consecutive hrs free from duty
22
Q
How many hours can 1 LEO transport a low risk prisoner alone?
A
4 hours or less and can only carry a max of 2 low risk prisoners
23
Q
The RAP or reserve availability period may not exceed how many hours?
A
14 hrs
24
Q
A pilot cannot be scheduled inside the WOCL for no more than ___ days?
A
3 consecutive FDPs
25
How many minutes prior to departure should the aircraft be ready for pax boarding?
30 mins
26
When must a full briefing be executed?
1. first flight of the day
2. crew change
27
Which FA brings pax count to pilots as well as confirms with CA that cockpit door can be closed?
FA #1
28
When can surface movement be accomplished?
Only once flight deck door is closed and locked
29
EFBs must have what % charge at beginning of each working day and may not commence a flight with what %?
95% and 40%
30
Documents on board ERJ?
1. Pax Briefing Cards
2. Airworthiness and Registration
3. Radio Staton Certificate
4. (1) Jumpseat Briefing Card
5. AML
6. W & B Manifest
7. Loading Table
8. QRH
9. 2 EPCs
10. Pax Count Card
11. TOLD Cards
12. (2) ECS T/O, Engine Battery Start Checklists
13. (2) Lightning Strike, Turb. Penetration, Hot WX Checklists
14. (2) Normal Checklists
15. (2) CAT II Checklists
16. (2) Icing Conditions
31
Mesa must report w/i how many days a refusal to board to an intox. pax?
5 days to FAA
32
Lap child is defined as more than _ day old but less than _ yrs
1 day, 2 yrs
33
UM procedures for UAX
A UM > 5 yrs but < 13 yrs; > 5 yrs aren't accepted for UM Service
1. 5-7 yrs non-stop w/o connections
2. 8-11 non-stop, direct and connecting
3. 12-17 UM service optional
FA #1 has all responsibility for UMs
34
Within how many hrs must Mesa update its flight deck jumpseat database after a status change?
12 hrs
35
Who are not allowed to jumpseat on intl flights?
1. Mesa pilots not on business
2. Mesa MX personnel
3. Dispatch
4. Other employees of other airlines
36
What Form must an Aviation Safety Inspector (ASI) possess to get free and uninterrupted access to the flightdeck?
Form FAA 110A
37
A load manifest will be completed prior to departure when what is not avail?
ACARS
38
Average bag weight is
30 lbs
39
Up to what weight can human remains be carried?
80 lbs
40
What are the weights of ballast bags and ballast plates?
Bags - 50 lbs
Plates - either 25 lbs or 50 lbs
41
ERJ live animals can be carried provided what?
They are carried in a suitable container only in FWD cargo compartment and actual weight is obtained
42
Can the aircraft be refueled with the engines running?
No, under no circumstances
43
In the event of a medium or large fuel spill.....
1. Fueler will notify crew to evacuate
2. A/C will be evac immed.
44
First flight of the day preflight inspections are conducted when?
1. 1st flight
2. A/C sitting for > 4 hrs
45
When can the Enhanced Emergency Medical Kit be accessed and where is it located?
EEMK is in the overhead bin, row 24, A/C left and can only be opened when directed by MedLink or a licensed MD verified on forms located within the EEMK
46
Repo flights are dispatched under which part?
Part 91
47
When would you write an Occurence Report about a Pax PED?
1. Nav interference
2. PED unit or battery failure produced smoke or fire
3. Pax disruption caused by their PED
48
How many spare Lithium-Ion batteries can a PAX carry on?
2 and those exceeding 160 Watt-hours are not permitted on board.
49
Which personnel open and close the EJET door?
Open - GND personnel
Close - FA
50
Below what surface vis must SMGCS charts be used?
<1200 RVR
51
Where do you write taxi instructions?
TOLD card
52
Within how many secs should you receive a T/O clearance after LUAW?
90 secs then contact ATC
53
Can t/o or ldgs be made on an unlit runway btw civil twilight night and morning?
No
54
Which scenarios are a rejected takeoff above 80 knots recommended?
1. Configuration Warning
2. Engine Fire or failure
3. Thrust Reverser Deployment
55
Is a rejected takoff above 80 knots recommended for a blown tire, nose wheel vibration, or MASTER CAUTION light?
NO
56
What are the WX mins for a takeoff will in no case be less than _____ or per Part 121 ____?
No less than Mesa Airlines OpSpecs or 1 SM (5000 RVR)
57
Which RVR report is controlling when operating above RVR 1600?
TDZ RVR report
58
How many RVR reports are required when operating in RVR < 1600?
1. Min of 2 reports
2. All RVR Reports are controlling
59
With long runways that have 4 RVR sensors (TDZ, mid, rollout, far-end), are they all controlling?
Far end is not controlling
60
Blood donation wait time?
72 hours
61
Current Mesa CEO?
Jonathan Ornstein (JO)
62
Current Chief Pilot?
Mike Whitman II
63
In which manual would you find aircraft specific operational information?
CFM
64
How will you determine the currency of your manuals?
The MCL or APCL
65
Where can you find safety reporting forms?
Pilot Lounge and Safety Tab on Mesa Employee Intranet
66
What documents and equip. are required in crew member's flight kit?
FO
(4) Gov't Docs (airmen, med, Mesa ID, Passport )
(2) Pubs/Manuals (Jeppesen Inflight Pubs & 15 Req. Manuals)
(1) Flashlight
(1) Writing pen
Logbook
CA
FO Reqs + FCC Rest. Radio Op. Permit
67
What prevents two low-time on type pilots from flying together and what is the hour requirement?
Neither CA or FO can have < 75 hrs on type, known as "Green-on-Green"
68
List the (8) different circumstances that a < 100 hr SIC cannot takeoff?
1. Special Airport
2. Vis < 1 SM
3. RVR < 5,000
4. Contaminated Rwy
5. Braking action < Good
6. X-Wind Component > 15 kts
7. Windshear
8. PIC's prerogative
69
By what day of the month must you have submitted an updated medical to CrewQuals?
25th of the month
70
What are the stabilized approach requirements?
By 1,000 HAT:
1. Briefings/Checklists accomplished
2. A/C in ldg config (gear DnL, final ldg flaps, flt spoilers retracted)
3. A/C is on correct track w/ normal maneuvering acceptable but must be stabilized by 500' HAT
4. Not more than Vapp + 10 KIAS and not < Vref
5. Pwr setting appropriate with thrust levers NEVER coming to idle < 1,000' or GA MANDATORY
6. Rate of descent not > 1,000 fpm or special briefing performed
7. After GP intercept, no more than normal corrections (30º bank and +/- 300 fpm to target fpm)
71
How many LEOs to carry (1) low-risk prisoner for 4.5 hr flight?
2
72
How many LEOs to carry (1) high-risk prisoner?
2
73
How many LEOs to carry (2) high-risk prisoners?
Mesa doesn't carry more than (1) high-risk prisoner
74
What is the proper seating arrangements regarding prisoners and how are they boarded and deplaned?
Prisoner at window with LEO on aisle seat, board first, deplane last.
75
What comprises of Duty time?
1. Flight time
2. pre/post-flight duties (-45 mins showtime before 1st departure and +15 after last block in)
3. DHD transportation
76
How many hours in one period of rest must a pilot have in 168 hours?
30 hours
77
What is a high mins CA and limitations for high mins?
< 100 hrs of PIC (IOE included) and add 100' and 1/2 SM to the MDA/DA with lowest mins 300' & 1 SM
78
What are the requirements to be qualified for a Special Airport?
1. PIC must verify that PIC or SIC has landed at the airport within the last 12 calendar months
2. PIC has thoroughly reviewed all Jepp Special Apt Qual Charts published for that airport
79
What does (M) mean in the Remarks or Exceptions Column of the MEL?
Indicates that MX needs to accomplish a specific MX procedure
80
What does (O) mean in the Remarks or Exceptions Column of the MEL?
Indicates that crew needs to accomplish a specific procedure
81
How many days can an aircraft be flown with a Cat A, B, C, D, and M?
A = Time specified in remarks
B = 3 consecutive days
C = 10 consecutive days
D = 120 consecutive days
M = NEFs have specific time frames
82
Which categories can be extended?
B = 3 more days
C = 10 more days
83
How is a write-up properly cleared or deferred?
PIC under direction of MX control will make a statement in the Corrective Action block of the AML and transcribed onto MEL/CDL Placard
84
What should a pilot do if an expired MEL item is discovered?
Contact DX and MX control
85
What is the min info required on a release?
1. ID # of A/C
2. Flt or Trip #
3. DP, Intermediate, Destination, Alt
4. Type of Operation
5. Min Fuel Supply
6. MEL/CDL Items
86
How long is a dispatch release valid? Revalidated release?
Both 2 hrs
87
What is the procedure for correcting or making a change to a dispatch release?
1. Contact DX to obtain ammended release or
2. Pen is allowable with PIC making changes, Zulu time and DX initials written down
88
How much fuel must be carried on a 121 flight?
To the destination, then most distant alternate, then 45 mins under normal fuel burn
89
When must a takeoff alternate be filed?
When reported vis at DP APT is below ldg mins
90
When a takeoff alt is required, what conditions must be met in order for it to be a legal alternate?
On DX release & 1 hour normal cruise speed in still air OEI
91
When must a Dest. ALT be filed?
1-2-3 Rule, 1 hr b4 or after sched. ETA WX mins are below 2,000' AGL or 3 SM Vis
92
What is the process for deriving alternate mins?
One approach avail = add 400-1 to lowest mins
2 independent approaches avail = add 200-1/2 to lowest mins
93
What is the purpose of Exemption 17347?
Allows DX-ing when conditional language in the REMARKS of TAF (TEMPO, PROB, BECMG) of dest or first ALT is below MINS. The main body of TAF must still show WX above mins at ETA
94
When must a 2nd alt be filed under Exemption 17347?
When Dest and 1st ALT Remarks section of the TAF contain conditional phrases indicating WX below authorized mins
95
What is the lowest WX allowable in the remarks section of the forecast for the dest. under Exemption 17347?
1/2 of the lowest visibility
96
What is the lowest WX allowable in the remarks section of the forecast for the first alternate under 17347?
1/2 of the lowest visibility and ceiling for the approach
97
What must be added to a dispatch release for a flight operating under Exemption 17347?
DX will note in remarks of the release: "Dispatched under Exemption 17347 crew will monitor ACARS"
98
What does Mesa Airlines consider marginal conditions?
500' ceiling and 1 SM vis above lowest suitable landing mins
99
When is a second alternate required under the marginal conditions rule?
WX conditions forecasted for both destination and first alternate are "marginal" (500'/1 SM)
100
Does the marginal rule apply to +/- 1 hr of ETA?
No, only at ETA
101
Does the marginal conditions rule apply only to the remarks section of the WX forecast?
No
102
When applying the marginal conditions rule to your alternate, do you add 500' and 1 SM to the derived alternate mins or just the approach mins?
Just to the approach mins
103
What is the min age that infants can be legally transported?
UAL 7 days
AA 1 day
Both allow earlier with MD letter
104
What is the min age for UM online and interline travel?
5 years online
8 years interline
105
Is there a limit to # of pax pets onboard?
1. small animal or bird must fit in a container that can fit under seat or in overhead bin (meeting carry-on criteria)
2. Mesa allows codeshare partners to determine max # of pets onboard and will not be seated next to each other
3. Live animals must be weighed and listed on Cargo Form and FWD compartment for ERJ
106
Who is authorized to carry firearms on Mesa Airlines aircraft?
Gov't employees or officials on duty (LEOs or FAMs)
107
Is there a limit to low-risk prisoner carriage?
No limit except seating arrangements
108
What is the clean aircraft concept?
No T/O allowed w/ frost, ice, snow, or slush adhering to any critical surfaces
109
Describe Type I Fluid
Mix of glycol and water. Thin fluid applied heat and is primarily used for deicing. Very limited HOT and is orange or clear in color
110
Describe Types II, III, and IV Fluid
Type II: Thicker than Type I
Type III: Thickened, longer HOT than Type 1 but less than Type II
Type IV: Green, thick and sticky, used for anti-icing (longest HOTs)
111
Explain how deicing and anti-icing fluid prevents or eliminates ice accumulation
Type 1 (heated) acts as a deicing agent to remove ice and frost
Types 3/4 (unheated) coats flying surfaces to prevent new accretion of ice
112
What happens if Type IV is applied unevenly?
Fresh wash of Type I to clean off aircraft and reapply Type IV
113
Explain which factors determine the effectiveness of deicing fluid?
1. Temp
2. WX
3. Jetblast
4. Evenness of coating
114
When does HOT begin?
At start of application of fluid to A/C
115
What is a Pre-Takeoff Check? When must it be done and can it be done from cockpit?
It is a check of A/C wings and other critical surface areas for ice, frost, snow, or slush. Must be done within HOT and CANNOT be done from inside cockpit. Qualified deice personnel can advise A/C is all clear of ice.
116
What type of braking action report will cause Mesa to suspend ops?
Nil (O)
117
Describe some of the effects of snow, ice, or frost while on the ground?
1. Increased T/O weight
2. A/C may exceed max T/O weight
3. CG problems
4. Loss of lift
5. Increase in drag
6. Loss of controllability
7. Affects critical sensing devices
118
According to the GOM, how far should you avoid thunderstorms by? Can this be waived?
Avoid cells by horizontal dist. of 20 NM and if radar indicates steep rainfall gradient, this dist. should be increased if flying above FL 200
119
Can radar be used to penetrate hazardous WX?
NO
120
If radar fails while approach area of thunderstorms, what can you do? What if you are already in the thunderstorm?
Exercise extreme care and return to DP APT or divert. If already inside request help from ATC in identing cells
121
Procedures for flight into severe turbulence
Maintain wings level and desired pitch attitude and don't attempt to chase airspeed or altitude
122
Procedures for flight into severe icing?
1. Request priority handling from ATC and get out of the icing immediately
2. Disengage AP and be ready for adverse trim
3. avoid abrupt movements and reduce AoA if you get uncommanded roll
4. Don't keep flaps extended for long periods of time and don't retract them until flaps are clear of ice
123
Which flight conditions are conducive to inflight icing?
1. Visible rain below 10º C
124
What is the definition of wind shear?
A WX phenomenon of sudden windspeed and/or direction changes over a short distance with A/S changes > 15 kts or VS changes > 500 fpm
125
Conditions for windshear
1. thunderstorms
2. virga
3. frontal activity
4. low level jet stream (polar side)
5. Temp inversions
126
Sterile cockpit rule
Don't engage in non-essential activities during taxi, takeoff, landing, and ops below 10,000' and begins the moment you leave the gate
127
What do you need for a takeoff with less than 1 SM vis down to 1/4 mile or 1600 RVR?
TDZ RVR report is controlling and mid RVR report may sub if TDZ RVR report Unavail
128
What do you need for a takeoff with less than 1600 RVR down to 1200 TDZ or 1000 rollout RVR?
1. 2 operative RVR reporting systems required
2. ALL available RVR reports are controlling
3. HIRL or CL or RCLM avail
129
What do you need for a T/O with < 1200/1000 RVR down to 500/500/500 RVR?
1. RVR TDZ, Mid, and RO all 500 RVR
2. HIRL
3. CL lights
130
You were released for a flight with an alternate airport listed. While enroute, the alternate airport weather drops below the derived alternate mins. Can you continue? What must be done?
You may continue because only actual mins apply once airborne
131
What must be done in the event of engine failure enroute?
1. Land at nearest suitable airport in point of time
2. Advise ATC (declare), Advise Company, Advise FAs
3. Build it, Bug it, Brief it
4. Checklists
132
What conditions must be in place to accept a visual approach?
1. APT in sight
2. Maintain VFR WX mins (3 SM and 1,000' or CoC)
133
At non-towered airports, when must you monitor CTAF and self announce?
10 minutes and 10 miles
134
What must be reported by AWOS before it can be used for an approach?
Visibility
135
What is required to proceed beyond the FAF?
Visibility for the approach
136
What do you do if mins drop before reaching FAF? After FAF?
Before: execute MAP
After: continue to approach mins
137
What is required to descent below DA/MDA
1. Runway marking or approach lights
2. Required visibility for the approach
3. Able to make stab. descent using normal maneuvering under VFR conditions
138
What does "descend via" mean?
Comply with:
1. All speed restrictions
2. follow the lateral path
3. Descend at discretion to comply with all altitudes
139
What does "climb via" mean?
Comply with:
1. All speed restrictions
2. follow the lateral path
3. Climb at discretion to comply with all altitudes
140
If the CA is changed from the original CA on the release, do you need a new release?
Yes
141
What is considered "standard" takeoff mins vis for an aircraft with 2 engines?
1 SM
142
What is the lowest authorized RVR for t/o below standard mins?
500 RVR
143
What is meant by the term marginal?
1. Ceiling within 500' of the lowest landing min
2. Vis within 1 mile above the lowest landing min
144
When will SMGCS procedures be used?
SFC vis below 1200 RVR
145
CRM Cornerstone:
1. Authority with participation
2. Assertiveness with respect
146
What are the 6 components of CRM utilized by Mesa?
CCDTMS
1. Communications
2. Coordination
3. Decision Making
4. Task and Info Management
5. Mission Planning
6. Sit. Awareness
147
What is the systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances?
ADM
148
List the DECIDE Model:
DECIDE
1. Detect
2. Estimate
3. Choose
4. Identify
5. Do
6. Evaluate
149
What are the 3 basic concepts of TEM Philosophy?
1. Anticipation
2. Recognition
3. Mitigation
150
The adjusted holdover table (76% table) must be used when....?
When flaps/slats are extended for deicing/anti-icing
151
Cold weather operations info, including deicing procedures and HOT tables can be found where?
GOM
152
Preferred configuration for deicing operations is what?
Engines running and APU off
153
What is a threat?
An event or error introduced outside of the crew’s influence that, if not managed properly, can reduce safety margins
154
What is possible regarding the passage of a warm front?
1. Prior to passage of the front, light to moderate precipitation likely
2. The temp of the air warms as the front approaches and passes
155
What type of wx would you be expect to be most likely along a cold front?
Cumuliform cloud with showery precipitation, possibly thunderstorms
156
What is a risk associated with solar flares?
Loss of radio comms and GPS Signal
157
To determine snowfall intensity to hide when calculating holdover times use:
The snowfall intensity as a function of prevailing visibility table
158
Max speed below 2,500 AGL and w/i 4 mi of Class D or C Airspace is?
200 KIAS
159
Max speed below a B shelf?
200 KIAS
160
If executing a missed approach prior to the MAP, the pilot...
should begin a climb (unless published alt. restrictions), but not execute a turn until reaching MAP
161
What is true regarding a Diverse Vector Area (DVA)?
Climb gradients have been established that the pilot must comply with to accept radar vectors on departure
162
RVSM exists between what altitudes?
FL290 and FL410
163
Within RVSM, how many feet are aircraft vertically separated?
1,000 feet
164
What equipment is required for RVSM?
1. AP
2. Altitude Alerting System
3. (2) ADCs both operational
4. (2) X-NDRs one operational
165
How many satellites orbiting the earth make up the GPS system?
24
166
I am cleared to "Climb Via" with a charted Top Altitude, what do I comply with?
SID's Top Altitude
167
What if the SID does not have published restrictions or a published “Top Altitude” ; what altitude will I climb to?
Climb to whatever altitude was given in clearance (climb and maintain 5000, etc)
168
I am cleared to “Climb Via SID”. What if there is a published altitude restriction at a fix that is higher than the charted “Top Altitude” ?
You are only cleared to the charted “Top Altitude” contained in the narrative of the procedure,
unless ATC assigns a different altitude.
169
What if I depart on a climb via clearance and later given a clearance to “Climb and Maintain” an altitude; should I comply with any published altitude restrictions?
NO. Unlike a “Climb Via” clearance, when cleared to “Climb and Maintain,” you are expected to vacate your current altitude and commence an unrestricted climb to comply with the clearance. For aircraft already climbing via a SID, published altitude restrictions are deleted unless re- issued by ATC. Speed restrictions remain in effect unless the controller explicitly cancels or amends the speed restrictions.
170
I depart on a climb via clearance with a “Top Altitude” of 15,000 feet and the departure controller says “Climb via the (SID NAME) departure, EXCEPT MAINTAIN one three thousand.” Do I comply with any published altitude restrictions prior to reaching 13,000?
All published restrictions, including speed, are mandatory
171
I’m on a climb via clearance and the controller vectors me off the procedure. Do I continue to “Climb Via?”
NO. You are laterally and vertically off of the procedure. The controller will issue an altitude to maintain and provide a further “expect” clearance. Note: Request an altitude to maintain if the controller does not provide one.
172
What if I receive a “Cleared” or “Cleared Via” clearance; am I permitted to climb to meet any published altitudes?
No, cleared or cleared via are lateral clearances only
173
What do I say to the departure controller on initial contact if I have received a “CLIMB VIA SID” clearance from the Tower or PDC?
report your flight number or aircraft identification, followed by your current altitude; then state “Climbing Via the (SID Name) departure.
174
How many feet of clearance does Actual (gross) Level Off give you over Net Level off for en route drift down?
Generally an additional 5,000 feet.
1000 + 5000 = 6,000 METW1
2000 + 5000 = 7,000 METW2
175
When is cold weather baro compensation used?
Either prescribed in the notes on the plate or below 0 degrees Celsius
176
Do you manually set the new cold weather compensated baro or does the FMS alone cover this?
New baro MDA/DA with adjustment must be set in baro mins always rounding up.
177
What kind of gradient does Net Level Off Altitude give you during drift down procedure?
1.1% gradient with your gross/actual altitude being your single engine service ceiling 0.0% climb gradient.
