metabolic bone disease Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

what is the role of osteoclasts

A

to break down bone

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2
Q

what is the role of osteoblasts

A

to build up bone

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3
Q

where is vitamin D produced

A

by the skin

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4
Q

where is vitamin D stored

A

in the liver

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5
Q

where is vitamin D activated

A

at the kidneys

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6
Q

what is the name of the vitamin D that has been activated by the kidneys

A

calcitrol

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7
Q

what is the role of calciferol

A

to increase the amount of calcium that is absorbed from the gut

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8
Q

what will happen is there is a calcium or vitamin D deficiency in children

A

rickets

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9
Q

what will happen if there is a calcium or vitamin D deficiency in adults

A

osteomalacia

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10
Q

what is the difference between rickets and osteomalacia

A

fusion of the epiphyseal plates

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11
Q

name some clinical signs of rickets

A
  • stunted growth
  • large abdomen
  • large forehead
  • bent out legs
  • wide bones and joints
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12
Q

what is the cause of rickets

A

a deficiency in calcium or vitamin D in children

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13
Q

what is Paget’s disease

A

this is a disorder in which there is too much bone resorption and formation which leads to the formation of disordered bone

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14
Q

what is the treatment of rickets and osteomalacia

A

increased intake of calcium and vitamin D (if there is kidney failure you may need to give the patient activated vitamin D)

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15
Q

where is the mutation in Paget’s

A

on the loci of SQSTMI

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16
Q

what proportion of Paget’s is familial

A

15-30%

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17
Q

what are the symptoms of Paget’s disease

A
  • long history of bone pain
  • bone deformity
  • excessive heat over the affected bone
  • neurological problems (e.g. hearing loss) - Paget’s can occur in the skull bones
  • may present with an osteosarcoma
18
Q

what serum test will be raised in those with Paget’s

A

alkaline phosphatase

19
Q

what is the treatment of Paget’s disease

A

SHOULD NOT BE TREATED IF ASYMPTOMATIC UNLESS IN THE SKULL

  • IV bisphosphonate
20
Q

what is osteogenesis imperfecta

A

this is a genetic disorder characterised by fragile bones - there are different types and prognosis depends on the type

21
Q

what are the different types of osteogenesis imperfect

A

Type 1 = mild and potentially a few fractures
Type 2 = this is the most severe form and children usually die within weeks of being diagnosed
Type 3 = progressive deformity and bone dysplasia however not as severe as type 2
Type 4 = similar to type 1 but more severe

22
Q

what are the clinical signs of osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  • blue sclera
  • scoliosis
  • barrel chest
  • defective tooth formation
  • hearing loss
  • ligamentous laxity
23
Q

what is the management of osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  • IV bisphosphonates
  • surgery to repair fractures
  • social adaptations
  • genetic counselling
24
Q

what is osteoporosis

A

this is a bone disease that is characterised by low bone mass and micro architectural deterioration - enhances bone fragility and fracture risk

25
what investigation can be used to diagnose osteoporosis
a bone DXA scan - a score of -2.5 SD or more from the normal adult healthy mean in post-menopausal woman those with a score of -2.5 or more should be offered treatment and those with a score between -1 and -2.5 should be offered lifestyle advice (unless they have had a previous fracture - they should be offered treatment in this case)
26
when should someone be referred for a DXA scan
if they have a fracture risk assessment score of more than 10%
27
name the WHO fracture risk assessment tool
FRAX
28
name the fracture risk assessment tool that is most commonly used in Scotland
Q fracture risk assessment
29
name some conditions that can cause secondary osteoporosis
- bushings - hyperthyroidism - hyperparathyroidism - hypoparathyroidism - coeliac disease - cystic fibrosis - steroids, heparin and warfarin
30
how can you minimise someones osteoporotic fractures
- ensure good calcium and vitamin D status - medications - fall prevention strategies - minimise the risk factors if possible
31
name the different types of medications that are used in the management of osteoporosis
- hormone replacement therapy - selective oestrogen receptor modulator - bisphosphonates - teriparatide - denosumab
32
what is the benefit of using hormone replacement therapy
it is effective on all bones
33
what are the side effects of hormone replacement therapy
- increased risk of blood clots - increased risk of heart disease and stroke - increased risk of breast cancer SHOULD NOT BE USED A LONG TIME AFTER MENOPAUSE
34
what are the side effects of using selective oestrogen receptor modulators
- only works on vertebrae - increased risk of blood clotting - hot flushes if taken to close to menopause
35
what is the main treatment used in the management of osteoporosis
oral bisphosphonates
36
what are the side effects of using bisphosphonates
- oesphagitis - uveitis - femoral shaft fractures - osteonecrosis of the jaw - must have good renal function - must have good calcium/vit D status - drug holiday of 1-2 years needed after every 10 years
37
how do bisphosphonates work
bisphosphonates inhibit the osteoclasts and therefore prevent the breakdown of bone
38
what is teriparatide
this is an injection that works by building the bone up (this is the only anabolic treatment for osteoporosis)
39
what are the side effects of using teriparatide
- injection site reaction - allergy - cost - hypercalcaemia
40
what is denosumab
a subcutaneous injection given every 6 months that reduces osteoclast bone resorption this drug targets RANKL which usually inhibits the osteoblasts
41
what are the side effects of denosumab
- allergy - hypocalcaemia - osteonecrosis of the jaw - atypical femoral shaft fractures