Micro final Flashcards

(120 cards)

1
Q

Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to

A

viral infections

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2
Q

Focal infections initially start out as

A

local infections

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3
Q

A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle c ells of a horse. This is an example of

A

nucleic acid vaccine

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4
Q

A reactions between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a

A

precipitation reaction

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5
Q

The clumping of test red blood cells indicates a negative test result (no antibodies against the virus in the patient’s serum) in the

A

viral hemagglutination inhibition test

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6
Q

All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step?

A

vasodilation

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7
Q

D4+ T cells are activated by

A

interaction between CD4+ and MHC II

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8
Q

All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccine has not been developed EXCEPT

A

vaccines are not effective against viral infections

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9
Q

All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT

A

antibody synthesis

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10
Q

A test used to detest anti-Rickettsia antibodies in a patient’s serum is the

A

indirect fluorescent antibody test

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11
Q

A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of

A

delay cell mediated immunity

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12
Q

TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT

A

AMPs

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13
Q

Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MCH II

A

TH cell

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14
Q

What type of immunity results from vaccination

A

artifically acquired active immunity

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15
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of

A

complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints

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16
Q

All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT

A

HCl

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17
Q

Which is true regarding Herceptin therapy

A

it is used to treat some breast cancer patients

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18
Q

Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?

A

macrophages

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19
Q

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are

A

Found in basophils and mast cells

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20
Q

The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway beginning with the activation of

A

C3

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21
Q

Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?

A

Shock

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cell?

A

they recognize antigens associated with MHC I

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A

Coagulase destroys blood clots

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24
Q

The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by the host’s antibodies is called

A

antigenic variation

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25
A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a
agglutination reaction
26
Pyelonephritis usually is caused by
Escherichia coli.
27
The lower respiratory tract is protected by all of the following EXCEPT
competition with the normal flora of the lungs
28
Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by
extended use of antibiotics.
29
You advise your pregnant friend to give her cat away because she could contract
toxoplasmosis
30
A patient has the following symptoms: a papule, enlarged lymph nodes. Microscopic examination of the papule reveals nucleated cells in white blood cells. The patient most likely
leishmaniasis
31
A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfringens is
gangrene
32
An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the eight-year-old have?
chickenpox
33
The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following EXCEPT
endocarditis
34
Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of
Lactobacillus
35
Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE?
The mortality rate is high.
36
Which of the following statements about puerperal sepsis is FALSE?
It is transmitted from mother to fetus
37
All of the following are normal microbiota of the skin EXCEPT
Streptococcus
38
Which of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)?
trichomoniasis
39
he most common reservoir for leptospirosis within the United States is
domestic dogs
40
Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because
many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood—brain barrier
41
Members of the group A streptococci (GAS) cause all of the following EXCEPT
epiglottitis
42
All of the following organisms cause meningitis EXCEPT
Mycobacterium leprae
43
The symptoms of tetanus are due to
tetanospasmin.
44
All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT
all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts.
45
All of the following are protective factors of the skin and its secretions EXCEPT
pyocyanin production
46
Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries?
lactic acid
47
Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitis is FALSE?
It is a gram-positive anaerobe.
48
Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of influenza?
diarrhea
49
Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis
undulant fever
50
Which of the following is NOT true of acne?
It can be treated by eliminating fatty foods from the diet.
51
``` Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+? anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh anti-A, anti-Rh anti-A anti-B ```
anti A
52
The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of ``` Answers: symbiotic bacteria. antagonistic bacteria. parasitic bacteria. commensal bacteria ```
antagonistic bacteria.
53
A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n) ``` Answers: subunit vaccine conjugated vaccine nucleic acid vaccine attenuated whole-agent vaccine ```
nucleic acid vaccine
54
Which of the following is an effect of opsonization? ``` Answers: increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms increased margination of phagocytes increased diapedesis of phagocytes inflammation ```
Selected Answer: Correct increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
55
Which of the following statements about M protein is FALSE? ``` Answers: It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes. It is found on fimbriae. It is heat- and acid-resistant. It is readily digested by phagocytes ```
Selected Answer: Correct It is readily digested by phagocytes
56
All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT ``` Answers: it occurs in the presence of an antigen it is synonymous with allergy it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time it is due to an altered immune response ```
Selected Answer: Correct it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time
57
A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n) ``` Answers: precipitation reaction complement fixation agglutination reactions immunofluerescence ```
Selected Answer: Correct agglutination reactions
58
All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT ``` Answers: antibodies toxoids parts of bacterial cells inactivated viruses ```
Selected Answer: Correct antibodies
59
Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis? ``` Answers: hay fever asthma hives shock ```
Selected Answer: Correct shock
60
An ELISA for Hepatitis C has 95 percent sensitivity and 90 percent specificity. This means that the test Answers: detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results. detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results. detects 90 percent of the true positive samples and has 5 percent false positive results. detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
Selected Answer: Correct detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
61
Large antibodies that agglutinate antigens are ``` Answers: IgG IgM IgA IgD ```
Selected Answer: Correct IgM
62
Which of the following are sources of antibodies for serological testing? ``` Answers: vaccinated animals monoclonal antibodies viral cultures vaccinated animals and monoclonal antibodies ```
Selected Answer: Correct vaccinated animals and monoclonal antibodies
63
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells? ``` Answers: They originate in bone marrow. They have antibodies on their surfaces. They recognize antigens associated with MHC I. They recognize vaccinated cultures ```
Selected Answer: Correct They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.
64
A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE? Answers: The patient may have the disease. The patient may have had the disease and has recovered. The patient may have been vaccinated. The patient was near someone who had the disease.
Selected Answer: Correct The patient was near someone who had the disease.
65
Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called? ``` Answers: bacteremia focal infection local infection septicema ```
Selected Answer: Correct septicema
66
What type of immunity results from vaccination? Answers: innate immunity naturally acquired active immunity naturally acquired passive immunity artificially acquired active immunity
Selected Answer: Correct artificially acquired active immunity
67
The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the Answers: mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract. skin parenteral route mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
Selected Answer: Correct mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
68
Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission ``` Answers: requires an arthropod involves fomites involves specific dieases requires direct contact ```
involves specific dieases
69
A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes? Answers: mucociliary escalator normal skin flora phagocytosis in the inflammatory response acidic skin secretions
Selected Answer: Correct phagocytosis in the inflammatory response
70
The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are ``` Answers: found in basophils and mast cells antibodies antigens antigen-antibody complexes ```
Selected Answer: Correct found in basophils and mast cells
71
Plasma cells are activated by a(n) ``` Answers: antigen T cell B cell memory cell ```
Selected Answer: Correct antigen
72
The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are ``` Answers: IgG IgM IgA IgE ```
Selected Answer: Correct IgA
73
Innate immunity ``` Answers: is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens. is nonspecific and present at birth. involves a memory component involves T cells and B cells ```
Selected Answer: Correct is nonspecific and present at birth.
74
The clumping of test cells indicates a negative test result in the Answers: direct agglutination test viral hemagglutination inhibition test. indirect agglutination test precipitation test
Selected Answer: Correct viral hemagglutination inhibition test.
75
Margination refers to Answers: the adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms. adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels. the chemotactic response of phagocytes. the movement of phagocytes through walls of blood vessels.
Selected Answer: Correct adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.
76
Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n) ``` Answers: immune complex dendritic cell proliferation Tc cell response antibody response against these bacterial toxins. ```
Selected Answer: Correct antibody response against these bacterial toxins.
77
Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the host's ``` Answers: antibodies red blood cells iron-transport proteins white blood cells ```
Selected Answer: Correct iron-transport proteins
78
A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a(n) ``` Answers: precipitation reaction agglutination reaction complement fixation neutralization reaction ```
Selected Answer: Correct precipitation reaction
79
Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms ``` Answers: are changes felt by the patient. are changes observed by the physician are specific for a particular disease always occur as part of a syndrome. ```
Selected Answer: Correct are changes felt by the patient.
80
Twenty-five people developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea three to six hours after attending a church picnic where they ate a ham and green bean casserole with cream sauce. The most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is Answers: botulinum toxin. aflatoxin. staphylococcal enterotoxin. erythrogenic toxin.
Selected Answer: Correct erythrogenic toxin.
81
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of ``` Answers: delayed cell-mediated immunity autoimmunity acute contact dermatitis psoriasis ```
Selected Answer: Correct delayed cell-mediated immunity
82
The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway beginning with the activation of ``` Answers: C1 C2 C3 C4 ```
Selected Answer: Correct C3
83
Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the host's ``` Answers: antibodies RBCs iron-transport proteins WBSc ```
Selected Answer: Correct iron-transport proteins
84
Which of the following WBCs are NOT lymphocytes? ``` Answers: cytotoxic T cells helper T cells NK cells M cells ```
Selected Answer: Correct M cells
85
A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as ``` Answers: subacute subclinical latent zoonotic ```
Selected Answer: Correct latent
86
The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by the host’s antibodies is called ``` Answers: antigenic variation. lysogenic conversion virulence. cytopathic effect. ```
Selected Answer: Correct antigenic variation.
87
The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the Answers: mucous membranes of the respiratory tract. mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract. skin parenteral route
Selected Answer: Correct mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
88
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity? Answers: The cells originate in bone marrow. Cells are processed in the thymus gland. It can inhibit the immune response B cells make antibodies.
Selected Answer: Correct B cells make antibodies.
89
The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are ``` Answers: found in basophils and mast cells antibodies antigens antigen-antibody complexes ```
Selected Answers: Correct found in basophils and mast cellsq
90
Margination refers to Answers: the adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms the chemotactic response of phagocytes. adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels. dilation of blood vessels
Selected Answer: Correct adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.
91
A Treg cell deficiency could result in ``` Answers: increased number of viral infections increased number of bacterial infections autoimmunity. increased severity of bacterial infections. ```
Selected Answer: Correct autoimmunity.
92
In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms? ``` Answers: prodromal incubation and convalescence decline incubation ```
Selected Answer: Correct incubation and convalescence
93
Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II? ``` Answers: TC cell B cell TH cell natural killer cell ```
Selected Answer: Correct TH cell
94
Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE? ``` Answers: They destroy virus-infected cells They destroy tumor cells. They destroy cells lacking MHC They are stimulated by an antigen. ```
Selected Answer: Correct They are stimulated by an antigen.
95
An antibody's Fc region can be bound by ``` Answers: antibodies macrophages T helper cells B cells ```
Selected Answer: Correct macrophages
96
The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that Answers: microorganisms are present in a diseased animal. diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another microorganisms can be cultured. microorganisms cause disease.
Selected Answer: Correct microorganisms cause disease.
97
Which of the following statements is FALSE? Answers: Leukocidins destroy neutrophils. Hemolysins lyse red blood cells Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells. Coagulase destroys blood clots.
Selected Answer: Correct Coagulase destroys blood clots.
98
The following events occur in cellular immunity. What is the third step? ``` Answers: TH cells proliferate. TH cell produces cytokines. Dendritic cell takes up antigen. Antibodies are produced ```
Selected Answer: Correct TH cells proliferate.
99
Innate immunity Answers: is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens. is nonspecific and present at birth involves a memory component involves T cells and B cells.
Selected Answer: Correct is nonspecific and present at birth
100
In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor? ``` Answers: urinary tract infections pneumonia salmonellosis tetanus ```
Selected Answer: Correct urinary tract infections
101
The ID50 is Answers: a measure of pathogenicity. the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population. the dose that will kill some of the test population the dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population.
Selected Answer: Correct the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population.
102
Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism? Answers: acid production by bacteria bacteriocin production bacteria occupying host receptors bacteria causing disease
Selected Answer: Correct bacteria causing disease
103
Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin? ``` Answers: streptolysin S hemolysin A-B toxin streptolysin O ```
Selected Answer: Correct A-B toxin
104
IL-2, produced by TH cells, ``` Answers: activates macrophages stimulates TH cell maturation. causes phagocytosis activates antigen-presenting cells. ```
Selected Answer: Correct stimulates TH cell maturation.
105
CD4+ T cells are activated by Answers: cytokines released by B cells. cytokines released by dendritic cells interaction between CD4+ and MHC II. interaction between TCRs and MHC II.
Selected Answer: Correct interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.
106
The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of ``` Answers: symbiotic bacteria antagonistic bacteria parasitic bacteria commensal bacteria ```
Correct | antagonistic bacteria
107
Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occur in humans. Which of the following would be the MOST severe? ``` Answers: deficiency of C8 deficiency of C6 deficiency C5 deficiency C3 ```
Correct | deficiency C3
108
Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis? ``` Answers: hay fever asthma shock hives ```
Correct | shock
109
All of the following contribute to a pathogen’s invasiveness EXCEPT ``` Answers: toxins capsules cell wall components hyaluronidase ```
Correct | toxins
110
The lectin pathway for complement action is initiated by Answers: mannose on host membranes. mannose on the surface of microbes. lectins of the microbe. gram-negative cell walls
mannose on the surface of microbes.
111
All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT ``` Answers: multiple layers of cells tears saliva HCL ```
Correct | HCL
112
Which of the following statements is TRUE? Answers: All three types of interferons have the same effect on the body. Alpha interferon promotes phagocytosis. Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages. Alpha interferon acts against specific viruses.
Correct | Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages.
113
Which of the following is found normally in serum? ``` Answers: complement interferon histamine TLRs ```
Correct | complement
114
Most pathogens that gain access through the skin Answers: can penetrate intact skin just infect the skin itself enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts. must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate.
Correct | enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.
115
Each of the following is an effect of complement activation EXCEPT ``` Answers: interference with viral replication bacterial cell lysis opsonization increased phagocytic activtiy ```
Correct | interference with viral
116
The function of the "ciliary escalator" is to Answers: propel inhaled dust and microorganisms toward the throat. trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucous and propel it away from the lower respiratory remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory tract.
Correct | trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucous and propel it away from the lower respiratory
117
When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as ``` Answers: neutralization. agglutination opsonization apoptosis ```
Correct | neutralization.
118
Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is FALSE? C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway. The C1 protein complex is initiated by antigenantibody complexes. C3 is not involved in the classical pathway. Cleaved fragments of some of the proteins act to increase inflammation.
Correct | C3 is not involved in the classical pathway.
119
Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce ``` Answers: endotoxins exotoxins cytokines leukocidins ```
Correct | cytokines
120
All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT Answers: it occurs in the presence of an antigen its is synonymous with "allergy" it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time it is due to an altered immune response
Correct | it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time