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IPAP Class 21-2 > Micro Lecture Cards Viruses > Flashcards

Micro Lecture Cards Viruses Flashcards

1
Q

What stain do you use for TB? What happens with this stain?

A

Acid Fast, it Glows

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2
Q

Individual coughing with acid-fast positive is likely what diseases*?

A

TB

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3
Q

What causes TB?

A

Pulmonary Lesions, Mycobacterium

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4
Q

Where does TB disseminate?

A

Kidney, Liver, Testes

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5
Q

When are you infectious with TB if you previously were infected?

A

After your body walls off the bacteria, if the bacterium penetrates the wall and comes out of latency you will become infectious

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6
Q

Who is most susceptible to TB?

A

AIDs patients, crowded populations, homeless people

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7
Q

Is TB always highly contagious?

A

Not if your body walls off the bacteria and it is latent, uncontained it is highly communicable.

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8
Q

What was the reason for the spike of TB in the 1980s?

A

Due to the Spike of HIV

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9
Q

What happens during Primary TB infections?

A

Macrophages migrate to local lymph nodes, CMI slows the growth of bacteria, the bacteria become contained in epithelioid giant cell granules

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10
Q

What happens to tubercles at the end of TB infections?

A

They can become calcified with sequestered bacteria that produce a positive skin test, negative X-ray.

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11
Q

What is the main difference between primary TB and Latent TB

A

Primary = First Exposure

Latent = Controlled exposure in granules

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12
Q

What is Secondary TB?

A

Skin test positive, X-Ray Positive, Sputum Positive

Clinical TB

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13
Q

Two ways Active TB interferes with lipid metabolism?

A

Night Sweats, Weight Loss

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14
Q

What is the Ghon complex?

A

Enlarged Tubercles rupture into airways and blood vessels ( Cheesy Spread ) [Pos, skin test Pos, X-ray]

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15
Q

What are the physiologic reactions due to the Macrophages in secondary TB?

A

Fever and weight loss

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16
Q

What is the most likely form of TB infection?

A

Latent

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17
Q

What patients are at risk for Rapid failure of CMI due to TB?

A

Immunocompromised patients.

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18
Q

How do we test for TB?

A

Inject PPD in the skin, observe the response of CMI by the diameter of TB ‘bump’

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19
Q

How do we get around TB’s drug resistance when treating patients?

A

Use 2,3,4 drug combos

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20
Q

What is the MAC?

A

Mycobacterium avium - intracellulare

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21
Q

What is disseminated miliary TB?

A

Miliary = milit seed disseminated = pass out

Radio graph = Lesions spread out all throughout the body
(Prevalent in immunocomplex. pts)

Associated with Secondary TB

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22
Q

What two stains are used for MAC?

A

Acid Fast + fluorochrome

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23
Q

A pt with a CD4 count that is extremely high with positive skin test, lesions all over the body what could be the cause?

A

TB

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24
Q

What causes syphilis? how is it transmitted?

A

Treponema Palladium , infectious chancre lesion

-sexually transmitted

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25
Q

If your pt does not have lesions, but syphilis symptoms do you use RPR tests or immunofluorescence?

A

RPR blood test, testing for a spirochete.

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26
Q

Explain the stages of syphilis.

A

[Spirochete]
Primary - Chancre lesion (21 days) painless, heals w/o treatments

Secondary - Rash over a wide area ( 1 - 6 months later)

Tertiary - Multi-organ failure, death if not treated (>6 months)

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27
Q

What does Borrelia Burgdorferi cause?

A

Lyme Disease, tick bite. [Spirochete]

Asymptomatic—>Non Specific flu symptoms—-> Rash—->Neurologic /Cardio/Arthritic involvement

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28
Q

What is the shape of the skin rash in lime disease?

A

Bullseye

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29
Q

How do you transmit Leptospira interrogans? what are the symptoms?

A

contact with infected animal urine or contaminated water

[spirochete]

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30
Q

What is a unique feature of the Ab response in leptospira interrogans?

A

Over the course of time, the Ab response rises (rising ab titer)

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31
Q

What is the difference between an increasing titer and a constant titer?

A

increasing = recent infection

constant = either not infected or not a recent infection

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32
Q

Burkholderia malia

A

Associated with horses (animal blood transmission) , HIGH fatality if not treated

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33
Q

Burkholderia psuedomalia is a _____ threat that causes _________.

A

Biological threat, melioidosis

[gram neg bacilli]
[south east asia, pacific, australia]

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34
Q

Unique features of Burk. cepacia

A
  • Hard to kill
  • Common in soil and water
  • Nosocomial infections

[Gram Neg Bacili]

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35
Q

Infectious properties of Burkholderia species

A
  • lung , airways affected
  • pneumonia
  • quickly can lead to death in the immuno compromised

[gram neg bacili]

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36
Q

Where is peptostreptococcus normal vs. abnormal body microbiota?

A 
Normal = vagina 
Abnormal = Bone and Joints
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37
Q

Key features of Fusobacterium

A

Anaerobic, periodontal infections, skin ulcers

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38
Q

Faecalibacterium is normal when? and abnormal when?

A

Normal in high numbers as a boost to the immune system

Abnormal in low numbers as an indication of clinical disorders

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39
Q

Bifidobacterium

A

Probiotic, normal bacteria of the vagina and mouth and gut

[Gram pos bacili, non spore forming]

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40
Q

Propinobacterium sets the stage for what?

A

Acne

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41
Q

Lactobacillus spp. characteristics

A

Gram pos bacillus, normal in digestive and genital tract

a common probiotic in food

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42
Q

Influenza is what kind of virus?

A

Myxovirus

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43
Q

The flu is transmitted mostly by what 3 things?

A

Droplets, contact, inhalation

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44
Q

Who is affected most by the flu?

A

The young and old

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45
Q

If your body can’t fight off viral influenza what are you most likely to die from? vs. a secondary bacterial pneumonia infection

A

More likely to die from the viral influenza URT infection.

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46
Q

What is the purpose of Hemagluttin and Neuraminidase in flu infection?

A

Attachment and virulence.

Vaccines try to match up to these for attack.

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47
Q

Which type of flu has high variability?

A

Type A

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48
Q

H and N of the flu come from what?

A

Surface Proteins that vary with virulence

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49
Q

How should we treat for the flu?

A

Antivirals and treat early

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50
Q

Which strain is the most important to get right when predicting for the flu vaccine?

A

Type A

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51
Q

Type B and C of the flu are _________ stable.

A

Antigenically

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52
Q

Common human subtypes of the flu

A

H3N2 , H1N1

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53
Q

Early in the flu season you get flu ___ late you get flu ___

A

A, B.

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54
Q

What is RSV?

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus

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55
Q

What can cause the common cold?

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus, Respiratory Syncytial Virus, Corona Virus

RNA virus

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56
Q

What is the primary cold infection of infants and children?

A

RSV, Respiratory syncytial virus

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57
Q

What is the transmission of Covid?

A

Person to person, contaminated surfaces, droplets

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58
Q

Symptoms of covid

A

Fever, Cough, Shortness of breath, loss of smell taste, MISC in children

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59
Q

What is significant about the covid virion structure

A

Virus codes its own replicase (RNA polymerase) and proofreading enzymes

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60
Q

What is an ACE-2 / NRP-1 ?

A

They are docking site receptors in nasopharyngeal and bronchial tissues. Antigen spikes attack here.

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61
Q

About how many viruses can be made from one infected cell of covid?

A

~2100

62
Q

With a covid infection at what point are you contagious vs. symptoms?

A

2.5 days to 4 days after exposure you are contagious until day 12
Symptoms go from day 4 to about day 7.5

63
Q

After exposure to the Covid virus, what happens to surface receptors?

A

There is an increase which can lead to an increase in infection

64
Q

What does NRP-1 do?

A

Blocks pain signaling pathways, allows infection to spread w/o inflammatory pain.

65
Q

What is the effect of blocked interferon response

A

Decrease in immune efficiency

66
Q

Common pathology of Covid?

A

Vascular system damage= Bradykinin storm [bp lowers] Co opt of ACE-2

67
Q

Parainfluenza

A

Enveloped causing croup, member of parmyxovisu

68
Q

Human metapneumovirus is common when?

A

Early spring

69
Q

Adenovirus

A

DNA non enveloped can cause atypical pneumonia with a vaccine in types 4 and 7 which cause acute respiratory disease

70
Q

Herpes chracteristics

A

DNA enveloped, latent and reoccurring. type 1 and 2

71
Q

What does a syphilis legion look like?

A

Canchre

72
Q

Which legion is painful? Herpes vs. syphillis

A

Herpes, canchre is hard not painful

73
Q

Why is herpes recurrent?

A

Branches off the ganglion so you normally get a legion in the same spot

74
Q

How is the herpes virus normally held in check?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

75
Q

Herpes Zoster (Varicella-Zoster) causes what 2 infections?

A

Chickenpox, Shingles

76
Q

Why can chickenpox turn into latent recurring shingles?

A

Because your CMI gets keeps it in check most of your life, as you get old it gets old as well, HZV remerges from the nerve ganglia.

77
Q

If you get shingles where is the rash typically?

A

One specific area following the ganglion.

78
Q

Who gets the shingles vaccine?

A

Anyone over 50

79
Q

Epstein Barr Virus affects what cells?

A

B Cells

80
Q

How is EBV transmitted

A

Saliva, oral secretions
[kissing disease]
infectious mono

81
Q

How does the EBV convert from lysogenic to lytic?

A

Latent viruses are reactivated upon B cell stimulation

[converts into lytic phase]

82
Q

Cytomegalovirus causes what?

A

Congenital cytomegalic inclusion disease from infected vaginal microbiota during the birthing
[CMV mono]

83
Q

What is CMV associated with clinically?

A

Impairs CNS and can develop mental/physical retardation of the affected child

84
Q

Latent CMV is expressed in what cases?

A

Immunosuppressed malignancy, AIDS, organ transplant, causes expression.

85
Q

Rotavirus is a _____ virus.

A

RNA

86
Q

Transmission of Rotavirus

A

Fecal to oral

87
Q

Norwalk virus Characteristics

A

RNA virus.
Worldwide cause of Gastrentereritis. 18-48 hours of incubation / 12-60 hrs of symptom.
[transmitted by food, water, vomitus- difficult to prevent spread] Think crews ship ( everyone gets sick )

88
Q

What generally happens to immunity in HIV infections?

A

Decreased and increased opportunistic infections

89
Q

Why are there so many different variants of the HIV virus?

A

Because it is an RNA virus

90
Q

Virion properties of HIV

A

Glycoprotein -41 / -120 attaches to CD4 and CXCR4.

CCR5 is for macrophages

P24 is the capsid protein

91
Q

HIV-1 is prevalent where vs. -2?

A 
1 = world wide 
2 = african countries
92
Q

What is reverse transcriptase?

A

produces a DNA copy of the RNA genome

93
Q

What is the purpose of reverse transcriptase in HIV

A

RNA enters a host cell then Reverse transcriptase makes new viral DNA.
[CD4 cells cant produce cytokines]

94
Q

What are key details of the 4 stages of HIV

A

1= Primary infection w spike in viral count [p24 antigen detectable] asymptomatic (1 to 4 months)

2= Latent (asymptomatic period) fought off the virus most of the time here. get a decrease in CD4 cells at the very end,

3 = Persistent infection [subclinical immune dysfunction, p24 spike at the end here.
[Kaposis sarcoma]

4 = AIDS , no longer have any CMI, decrease in CD8 here too.

95
Q

CD4 count under 200 suspects HIV. What else can happen?

A

More susceptible to other infections

96
Q

Symptoms of Viral Hepatitis

A

Anorexia
Hepatic tenderness
Jaundice and dark urine

97
Q

Hep B is what kind of virus

A

Viral enveloped DNA virus

Blood transmission

98
Q

What do HBsAg, HBcAg, and HBeAg stand for

A

Hep B

Surface - earliest chronic infection [long term infection]
Core -
Envelope - early acute infection [active virus]

99
Q 
Anti-HBe = indicates? 
Anti-HBs = indicates?
A

= seroconversion late acute resolution

=convalescence recover immunity [protective Abs]

100
Q

Seroconversion =

A

when Ab appears

101
Q

Is Hep B curable?

A

Yes it is an acute infection that resolves in 3-6 months

102
Q

What does the HBV vaccine solicit, or help create?

A

Anti-HBs for protection

103
Q

Hep C characteristics

A

Small, Enveloped RNA virus
Blood transmission
High co-infection with HIV

No vaccine, too many variants

104
Q

Hep A characteristics

A

Small, non enveloped RNA virus
Not chronic
Fecal to oral route

A vaccine is available.

105
Q

Bunyaviridae includes what viruses

A

Hantavirus , CCHF , RVF , [Hem fever]

106
Q

Filoviridae includes what viruses

A

Ebola and Marburg , [Hem fever]

107
Q

Flaviviridae includes what viruses

A

Dengue, yellow fever , [Hem fever]

108
Q

Togaviriddae includes what viruses

A

Chikungunya , [Hem fever]

109
Q

Common symptoms of Dengue fever

A

joint pain = break bone fever
conjunctivitis
headache
rash

[Hem fever]

Transmitted by mosquitos, not common in the USA

110
Q

Yellow fever is transmitted by

A

Mosquitos, not common in the USA because of the vaccine

[Hem fever]

111
Q

Places in the US that you can find Chikungunya

A

TX and Florida

112
Q

Congo - Crimean Hemorrhagic fever = ____ transmission

A

Tick

[Hem fever]

113
Q

What is the vector for ebola?

A

Fruit bats and bushmeat

114
Q

At risk areas for ebola

A

direct contact with blood and body fluids.

Mucosal tissue
eyes
breaks in skin

115
Q

What ar e Ebola supersspreaders

A

A small number of people that get the virus infect most of the people with total infection of ebola.

116
Q

What is Encephalitis viral transmission?

A

Zika = Mosquito-borne and semen
EV = Tick Borne
West Nile = Mosquito

117
Q

Which virus is associated with Guillain Barre Syndrome

A

Zika , can cause microcephaly in fetus

118
Q

Which virus is associated with Guillain Barre Syndrome

A

Zika can cause microcephaly in the fetus

119
Q

Does Zika have a vaccine?

A

No

120
Q

General areas you can find the following infections :

  1. St. Louis Encephalitis
  2. West Nile fever
  3. Japnese Enceph.
  4. Murray Valley Fever
A
  1. California / South America
  2. Africa / Europe / small[mid USA]
  3. Japan
  4. Australia
121
Q

Where does Rabies virus replicate?

A

tissue at bite travels in PNS

122
Q

How do you die from rabies?

A

Often due to respiratory paralysis

123
Q

HPV is associated with what cancer

A

cervical cancer, genital warts Type 6 & 11.

not all are sexually transmitted

124
Q

Enterovirus is a __ Virus

A

RNA

125
Q

Enter. virus transmission

A

fecal to oral , resp. secretions, contact with vesicle fluid

126
Q

What type of enter. virus is an emerging cause of polio like illness (acute flaccid paralysis)

A

Enter. virus D68

127
Q

What type of enter. virus causes myocarditis , pleurodynia, vesicular rash

A

Coxsackie

128
Q

What does poliovirus invade

A

The CNS = muscle deterioration / paralysis

129
Q

How are measles transmitted

A

Person to person highly contagious

130
Q

What is re-emergent rubeola?

A

Red measles [re-emergent measles virus]When you are contagious with the measles, serious infection
Cough, rhinitis, high fever, red eyes, Koplik spots, rash

131
Q

When are you contagious with the measles

A

4 days prior to 4days after rash onset

Vaccine effective

132
Q

Meningitis, first tests you do

A

Blood culture and spinal tap

[imunnocompromised]

133
Q

What causes fungal ringworm? how can they be visualized

A

Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton

KOH wet prep

134
Q

Sporothrix has _______ that travels along with the lymph and gives you ulcerated ______.
With a history of what?

A

Nodules
Bumps

Working in soil/ rose garden, few weeks later.

135
Q

Histoplasma is associated with what transmission and what locations?

A

Bird droplets that you inhale and it gives you flu lesions
[systemic mold pathogen]

Ohio, Mississippi, Asia

136
Q

Where is coccidiosis located most commonly?

A

Southwest USA, North Mexico

137
Q

Candida Auris is an ____ . How is it identified?

A

emerging threat.

hard to identify
hospital infections

138
Q

How do you identify cryptococcus neoformans

A

India ink CSF

immunodiagnostic test

139
Q

If you have rabies, polio , and entero d68 , what are the differences

A
  • rabies = dog , vaccinations
  • polio = paralysis vaccinations
  • 68= more frequent in kids
140
Q

Difference between smallpox and chickenpox

A

vesicles in small pox are synchronous, chickenpox has different vesicles in different stages at a given time.

141
Q

What is a unique way that zika is transmitted

A

sexually

142
Q

What type of virus is HPV. Is the vaccine 100% affective?

A

DNA , no many strains.

143
Q

Mumps , rubella, and measles are all ____ viruses.

A

RNA

144
Q

What virus is associated with rodents and Asia?

A

Hantavirus

145
Q

Dengue is aka what? what symptoms are associated with this? Where is it endemic?

A

Breakbone Fever , associated with severe joint pain and hemorrhagic fever
Tropical Africa

146
Q

What is the vector for congo Crimean hemorrhagic fever

A

Ticks

147
Q

What does a high p24, capsid protein, mean in HIV?

A

It means the virus is active and replicating

148
Q

What virus causes upper and lower respiratory tract infections

A

HUMAN METAPNUEMOVIRUS

[enveloped rna virus]

149
Q

adenovirus is a ___ virus.

WHAT ARE THE COMMON SYMPTOMS

A

DNA

COLD, PINK EYE, GI, SORE THROAT

150
Q

What most commonly gives kids diarrhea from fecal to oral contact?

A

Rotavirus

[rna virus]

IPAP Class 21-2 (12 decks)

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