Microbio Quizzes Flashcards by Tatiana Perez

Which of the ff sets of tests provide the best differentiation of L. monocytogenes & E.
rhusopathiae?

a. Reverse CAMP, gram-stained smear, b-hemolysis
b. Gram-stained smear, catalase, and motility
c. Gram-stained smear, oxidase, optochin
d. CAMP test, H2S production, esculin hydrolysis

d. CAMP test, H2S production, esculin hydrolysis

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LOA reaction of Klebsiella pneumoniae:

a. - + -
b. + - -
c. + + -
d. + - +

+ - -
Lysine positive only Kleb. pneumoniae

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Positive result for DNase test:

a. Pink
b. clearing of medium
c. Green
d. hemolysis

clearing of medium

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Chocolate agar-based medium containing vancomycin, colistin, anisomycin &
trimetrophrim is known as

a. New York City
b. Martin-Lewis
c. Modified Thayer Martin
d. Thayer-Martin

Martin-Lewis

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Which serological test is done for Chalamydia trachomatis on genital smears?

a. ELISA
b. RIA
c. Direct FA using monoclonal antibodies
d. Indirect FA using Chlamydia Antigens

Direct FA using monoclonal antibodies

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All are examples of egg-based media for culture of Mycobacteria, except:
a. American Thoracic Society
b. Lowenstein Jensen
c. Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11
d. Petragnani

Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11

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Which of the following is a dsRNA virus?

a. Rotavirus
b. HIV
c. Influenza
d. Measles

Rotavirus

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Which of the following arboviruses is not transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes?
a. Dengue
b. West Nile
c. Zika
d. Chikungunya

West Nile

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The protein coat of a viral particle is termed as
a. Capsomere
b. Capsid
c. Matrix
d. envelope

Capsid

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Atypical lymphocytes such as Downey cells are seen in which viral infection?
a. IM
b. Herpangina
c. HTLV-1
d. Varicella

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Substrate used in Kovacs indole test:
a.indole
b. para-dimethyaminocinnamaldehyde
c. para-dimethylaminobenzalehyde
d. tryptophan

para-dimethylaminobenzalehyde

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ONPG test allows organism to be classified as lactose fermenter by testing which of the ff:
a. β-galactosidase
b. tryptophanase
c. lactose permease
d. β-lactamase

β-galactosidase

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Which of the following is a correct pair?
a. E. coli – yellow colonies on XLD
b. S. aureus – pink colonies on MSA
c. S. pneumonaie – non-hemolytic on SBA
d. K. pneumoniae – colorless colonies on MAC

E. coli – yellow colonies on XLD

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Inhibitors for gram (+) bacteria on MAC:
a. crystal violet and vancomycin
b. trimetotphrim and vancomycin
c.
colistin and anisomycin
d. bile salts and crystal violet

bile salts and crystal violet

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Which of the following cell cultures are considered as immortal?
a. All of the above
b. MRC-5
c. RMK
d. HeLa

HeLa

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Match the following viruses and their associated disease:

Norovirus

Winter vomiting disease

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Match the following viruses and their associated disease:
Parvovirus B19

5th disease
Erythema Infectiosum

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Match the following viruses and their associated disease:
Varicella Zoster Virus

Chickenpox
Zoster/ Shingles

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Cytomegalovirus

Congenital Disease: Cytomegalic inclusion Disease
CMV Retinitis (HIV) – 40 day virus

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Epstein Barr Virus

Infectious Mononucleosis
Kissing Disease, Pfeiffer’s disease

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In the test for urease production, the presence of the enzyme hydrolyzes urea to which of
the following?
a. Amines and water
b.
Putrescine
c. . Amines and CO2
d. Ammonia and CO2

Ammonia and CO2

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Micrococcus and Staphylococcus species are differentiated by which test(s)?
1. O-F tube 2. Gram stain 3. Catalase test 4. Lysostaphin susceptibility
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 2

1 and 4

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Viral particles with a Star of David Appearance:

Calicivirus

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Which of the following viruses is neurotropic?
a. Rhinovirus
b. Influenza A
c. Hepatitis
d. Rabies

Rabies

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Which serologic marker is first to appear in HBV infections? a. HBcAg b. HBsAg c. HBeAg d. Anti-HBs

HBsAg

Match the following viruses to its characteristic CPE BK virus

decoy cells

Match the following viruses to its characteristic CPE Rabies

negri bodies

Match the following viruses to its characteristic CPE Adenovirus

Grapelike clusters smudge cells

Match the following viruses to its characteristic CPE: HPV

koilocytes

Match the following viruses to its characteristic CPE CMV

owls eye nuclear

Indole test differentiates which set of organisms? a. E. coli and Klebsiella oxytoca b. Morganella and Providencia c. Salmonella and Shigella d. P. vulgaris and P. mirabilis

P. vulgaris and P. mirabilis

What is the positive result of CAMP test? a. satelliting colonies around streaked colonies of S. aureus b. inhibition of growth of suspected organism when S. aureus is present c. arrowhead-shaped growth at the juncture of suspected organism and S. agalactiae colonies d. arrowhead-shaped zone of enhance hemolysis at the juncture of suspected organism & beta-lysin producing S. aureus

arrowhead-shaped zone of enhance hemolysis at the juncture of suspected organism & beta-lysin producing S. aureus

Arbovirus infections usually manifest as: a. Encephalitis b. Any of these c. Fever with or without myalgia and rashes d. Hemorrhagic Fever

Any of these

Which of the following dermatophytes infect skin, hair and nails? a. Trichophyton b. Trichosporon c. Microsporum d. Epidermophyton

Trichophyton

Which of the following viruses targets B cells that may lead to Burkitt’s Lymphoma and IM? a. HHV 8 b. HTLV-1 c. EBV d. CMV

EBV

All of the following are correct regarding methylene blue except: a. can be used as simple bacterial stain b. indicator of anaerobiosis c. inhibits gram-positive bacteria in enteric media d. pH indicator in TCBS

pH indicator in TCBS TCBS pH indicator are Bromthymol Blue and Thymol Blue

Correct about satellite phenomenon: 1. S aureus grows around the hemolytic colonies of H. inuenzae 2. H. inuenzae grows around the hemolytic colonies of S. aureus 3. Also known as Nagler reaction 4. Uses SBA instead of Chocolate agar a. 2 and 4 b. 1 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 2 and 3

2 and 4

Swabs are required to be placed in viral transport medium. Transport media such as UTM maintain the viability of specimens a. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false b. Both are true c. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true d. Both are false

Both are true

Yellow butt and red slant in TSI tube indicates fermentation of: a. glucose b. lactose and/ or sucrose c. lactose d. lactose and glucose

glucose

A hepatitis virus that is orally transmitted and causes higher mortality among pregnant women? a. HBV b. HDV c. HAV d. HEV

HEV

Which of the following sets of results represent the most common reactions for Moraxella catarrhalis when tested in CTA sugar tubes? a. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Positive; Sucrose: Negative b. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative c. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Positive; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative d. Glucose: Negative; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative

Glucose: Negative; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative

Lecithinase production, double zone hemolysis on sheep blood agar, and gram-stained morphology are all useful criteria in identification of a. Escherichia coli b. Clostridium tetani c. Clostridium perfringens d. Streptococcus agalactiae

Clostridium perfringens

Heat stable antigen of enterics located on their cell wall: a. O b. K c. H d. Vi

Positive for PYRase hydrolysis: 1. S. pyogenes 2. S. agalactiae 3. S.pneumoniae 4. E. faecalis a. 2 and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 1 and 4 d. 2 and 4

1 and 4

V. cholerae colonies on TCBS: a. blue b. yellow c. green d. red

yellow

Edwardsiella tarda biochemically may be confused with Salmonella in that it is: a. Urea positive b. Non-motile c. Lactose positive d. Hydrogen sulfide positive

Hydrogen sulfide positive

A test for the hydrolysis of esculin in the presence of bile is especially useful in identifying a. Brucella b. Haemophilus c. Enterococcus d. Staphylococcus

Enterococcus

On Tinsdale agar, colonies of Corynbacterium diphtheriae are differentiated by the observance of: a. Liquefaction of the agar surrounding colonies present on the medium b. Black colonies on the medium, surrounded by brown halos c. Opalescent colonies with a white precipitate in the surrounding agar d. Pitting of the agar surrounding the colonies that are present

Black colonies on the medium, surrounded by brown halos

Negative reaction in Decarboxylase Tests (Moeller’s Method) is indicated by which color? a. Yellow b. Magenta c. Purple d. Blue

Yellow

Which is the best rapid, noncultural test to perform when Gardnerella. vaginalis is suspected? a. 3% H2O2 b. 10% H2O2 c. 10% KOH d. 30% KOH

10% KOH

Positive result in Bacitracin Susceptibility test (0.04 units) is a zone of inhibition greater than ___ mm a. 5 b. 15 c. 10 d. 20

Which spore type and location is found on Clostridium tetani? a. Oval, subterminal spores b. Oval, terminal spores c. Round, terminal spores d. Round, subterminal spores

Round, terminal spores

Indicator used in MSA used for selective isolation of staphylococcus spp. a. Bromcresol green b. Neutral red c. Bromthymol blue d. Phenol red

Phenol red

Selective media for P. aeruginosa: a. CCFA b. CIN agar c. MAC with sorbitol d. Cetrimide agar

Cetrimide aga

Abiotrophia formerly known as nutritionally variant streptococci (NVS) will not grow on routine blood or chocolate agars because they are deficient in: a. Pyridoxal b. Vitamin B12 c. Thiophene-2-carboxyclic hydrazide d. Hemin

Vitamin B12

Which of the following amino acids are required for growth of Francisella tularensis? a. Arginine and lysine b. Cysteine and cystine c. Leucine and ornithine d. Histidine and tryptophan

Cysteine and cystine

Which of the following is classified as anaerobic culture media? a. CCFA b. BCYE c. CIN d. MTM

CCFA

Specimens that may be cultured anaerobically (1) Sputum (2) Needle Aspirate (3) Swabs of infected wounds (4) Suprapubic-aspirated urine a. 2 and 4 b. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3

2 and 4

Most common pathogen isolated on throat cultures causing pharyngitis: a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Bordetella pertusis c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. Streptococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus pyogenes

Which group of tests best differentiates Helicobacter pylori from C. jejuni? a. Catalase, oxidase, and cephalothin sensitivity b. Catalase, oxidase, and nalidixic acid sensitivity c. Catalase, oxidase, and Gram stain d. Urease, nitrate, and hippurate hydrolysis

Urease, nitrate, and hippurate hydrolysis

TSI agar is composed of 3 carbohydrate in a ratio such as: a. 1% glucose,1 % lactose, 1 % maltose b. 1% glucose,1 % lactose, 1 % sucrose  c. 0.1% glucose,1 % lactose, 1 % sucrose d. 1% glucose, 0.1% lactose, 1 % maltose

0.1% glucose,1 % lactose, 1 % sucrose

What are the resulting changes in Simmons citrate agar if the organism can utilize sodium acetate as its only carbon source? (positive reaction) a. growth on medium, change of color from green to blue b. growth on medium, change of color from blue to green c. no growth on medium, retaining the original color blue of medium d. no growth on medium, retaining the original color green of medium

growth on medium, change of color from green to blue

Which of the following enrichment medium for Streptococcus? a. Brain Heart infusion broth b. Trypticase soy broth c. Todd Hewitt broth d. Selenite broth

Todd Hewitt broth

An enzyme produced by Streptococcus pyogenes that solubilizes the ground substance of mammalian connective tissues and helping to spread the infection. a. Eryhthrogenic Toxin b. Hyaluronidase c. DNase d. Streptokinase

Hyaluronidase

Positive result in Acetamide Utilization test: a. Magenta b. Yellow c. Blue d. Purple

Blue

Which of the following Streptococcal species has the enzyme hippuricase? a. S. bovis b. S. agalactiae c. S. pneumoniae d. S. pyogenes

S. agalactiae

When clinical specimens are being processed for the recovery of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the generally recommended method for digestion and decontamination of the sample is: a. 1% HCl b. NALC-NaOH c. TSP d. 6% NaOH

NALC-NaOH

The Moeller test for the detection of decarboxylase activity is dependent upon: a. a deamination of tryptophan b. an alkaline pH shift in the medium c. the oxidation of gluconate d. an acid pH basal medium

an alkaline pH shift in the medium

Catalase test should not be performed on: a. blood agar, because blood has catalase b. nutrient agar, because it is not enriched c. tryptic soy agar, because the protein interferes d. glass slides, because agar is required

blood agar, because blood has catalase

Urea hydrolysis test is performed on what medium? a. Krigler’s iron agar b. Simmons medium c. Christensen medium d. Moellers medium

Christensen medium

Which of the following is not included in the Mycosel medium? a. Chloramphenicol b. Cycloheximide c. Vancomycin d. SDA

Vancomycin

What stain is incorporated in the Aman medium? a. mucicarmine b. Methylene blue c. Cotton blue d. Prussian blue

Cotton blue

HIV a. RNA b. Neither c. DNA d. Both

RNA

BK Virus a. RNA b. Both c. Neither d. DNA

DNA

Which of the following is a DNA virus? a. Rotavirus b. Rubella c. HIV d. Chickenpox

Chickenpox

Which among the choice below would be the most useful morphological feature that can aid in the identification of the tissue phase of Histoplasma capsulatum? a. presence of capsule b. tuberculate macroconidia, 8-14 micrometer c. small budding round yeast cells located intracellularly to monocytes visible with Giemsa stain d. arthrospores every other cell

small budding round yeast cells located intracellularly to monocytes visible with Giemsa stain

For lab scientists handling cultures of Coccidioides, it should be handled in a BSL ___. a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1 e. Any of these

Rubella a. Both b. Neither c. DNA d. RNA

RNA

Congenital Defects; Mono-like illness a. VZV b. CMV c. EBV d. Parvovirus B19

CMV

Which of the following possess aseptate hypha? a. Absidia b. Cryptococcus c. Phailophora d. Aspergillus e. Candida

Absidia

Which of the following is incorrect about fungi? a. Cell membrane contains sterols b. Fungi are eukaryotic organisms c. Cell wall is composed of murein d. Able to produce reproductive spores

Cell wall is composed of murein

Hyphal elements appear magenta using this stain a. GMS b. PAS c. Gram Stain d. Calcofluor white

PAS

Chlamydospores that grow at the tip of the hypha are referred as a. Terminal b. Sessile c. Apical d. Intercalary

Terminal

Which virus from the following options has an affinity for the nervous system? a. Rhinovirus b. Rabies c. Influenza A d. Hepatitis

Rabies

Match the following fungi and their associated characteristic feature Coccidioides immitis a. Spherules b. Capsulated Yeast c. Oocyst

Spherules

Pneumocystis a. Spherules b. Capsulated Yeast c. Oocyst

Oocyst

Candida albicans a. Spherules b. Capsulated Yeast c. Oocyst d. germ tube

germ tube

Trichophyton rubrum a. En thryse arrangement b. Capsulated Yeast c. Oocyst d. germ tube

En thryse arrangement

Cryptococcus neoformans a. En thryse arrangement b. Capsulated Yeast c. Oocyst d. germ tube

Capsulated Yeast

Mycotic infections involving traumatic skin puncture: a. Subcutaneous b. Opportunistic c. Cutaneous d. Systemic e. Superficial

Subcutaneous

A complete viral particle is termed a. Capsomere b. Nucleocapsid c. Capsid d. Virion

Virion

Which of the following is an ether stable icosahedral RNA virus implicated in infantile diarrhea a. HIV b. Rotavirus c. Adenovirus d. Picornavirus

Rotavirus

The basic functional unit of molds: a. Rhizoids b. Spores c. Hypha d. Mycelium

Hypha

Which virus from the following options is a dsRNA virus? a. HIV b. Rotavirus c. Influenza d. Measles

Rotavirus

Match the following hyphal elements to its associated fungi Rhizoids M. auduoinii No match T. schoenlinii Rhizopus

Rhizopus

Match the following hyphal elements to its associated fungi Pectinate hypha M. auduoinii No match T. schoenlinii

M. auduoinii

Match the following hyphal elements to its associated fungi Spirals No match T. schoenlinii T. mentagrophytes

T. mentagrophytes

Match the following hyphal elements to its associated fungi Antler hypha M. auduoinii No match T. schoenlinii

T. schoenlinii

Match the following hyphal elements to its associated fungi Microspores M. auduoinii No match T. schoenlinii

No match

Pfeiffer’s Disease a. Norovirus b. EBV c. VZV d. Parvovirus B19

EBV

Microbio Quizzes Flashcards

(100 cards)