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Clinical Pathology II > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

(68 cards)

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1
Q

what is microbiology used for?

A

useful but expensive and time-consuming diagnostic tool
identifying organisms can determine treatment

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2
Q

what do facilities usually do with samples for microbiology diagostics?

A

some send out all samples and others will plate the organisms and only send out if there is growth

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3
Q

are most microbes pathogenic or non-pathogenic?

A

non-pathogenic and make up normal flora

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4
Q

can normal flora be opportunistic?

A

yes

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5
Q

microbes from smallest to largest

A

prions, viruses, bacteria

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6
Q

prions

A

proteinaceous infectious agents
abnormally folded proteins
causes transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
doesn’t trigger immune response

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7
Q

viruses

A

obligate intracellular organisms = have to go into a cell to live
DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat
requires a host to replicate

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8
Q

types of viruses

A

bacteriophage, adenovirus, human immunodeficiency virus

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9
Q

bacteriology

A

study of bacteria

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10
Q

bacteria

A

prokaryotes= DNA is free in the cytoplasm
reproduce by binary fission= cell division

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11
Q

life cycle of bacteria

A

lag phase: adjustment
log phase: exponential growth (division)
stationary phase: cells stop dividing, growth is limited
death phase: cell loss

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12
Q

mycology

A

study of fungi

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13
Q

fungi

A

eukaryotes: DNA in the nucleus, organelles in the cytoplasm and membrane
reproduce by binary fission: budding (fruiting body is the spore)

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14
Q

protozoa

A

unicellular eukaryotes
binary fission to reproduce

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15
Q

how are protozoa classified?

A

by locomotion
amoeboids: pseudopodia
ciliates: cilia
sporozoa: non-motile
flagellates: flagella

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16
Q

bacteria growth requirements

A

pH: 7
oxygen or no oxygen (depends on type)
growth requirement factors affect which media we choose

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17
Q

oxygen tension

A

concentration of oxygen at a specific pressure

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18
Q

mesophilic bacteria temperature requirements

A

moderate temperature
20-40 C

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19
Q

psychrophile bacteria temperature requirements

A

low temperature

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20
Q

thermophile bacteria temperature requirements

A

high temperature

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21
Q

fastidious bacteria growth requirements

A

complex nutritional needs

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22
Q

oxygen requirements

A

aerobes: require O2
anaerobes: require absence of O2 (will die or have inhibited growth in O2 presence)

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23
Q

facultative

A

describes a bacteria that can grow under a variety of conditions
can survive without O2 but may have inhibited growth or grow with O2

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24
Q

microaerophilic

A

describes bacteria that prefer reduced O2 tension
O2 tension means it needs O2 at a lower concentration than is present in the atmosphere with enhanced CO2

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25
capnophilic
describes bacteria that requires high levels of CO2
26
culture media
can be solid or liquid form supports the growth of microorganisms come as plates, tubes, or slants can be general purpose, enriched, selective, or differential
27
Mueller-Hinton (MH) media
general purpose used for antibiotic sensitivity testing
28
Kirby-Bauer antibiotic susceptibility testing
culture and sensitivity test agar diffusion test used to determine which antimicrobial to use done by performing a pure culture on MH media antibiotic impregnated discs placed on top of streaks
29
Kirby-Bauer antibiotic susceptibility testing: plating process
1. pure culture of bacteria in agar 2. bacteria grown overnight (18-24 hours) with a thin wafer that contains a known amount of a relevant antibiotic
30
reading a Kirby-Bauer test
if the bacteria are susceptible to the particular antibiotic from the disc, there will be an area of clear media where the bacteria are not able to grow around the disc: known as zone of inhibition
31
what does a larger zone of inhibition indicate?
the bacteria are more sensitive to the antibiotic in that specific disc considered to be sensitive to antibiotic
32
what does a smaller zone of inhibition indicate?
the bacteria is considered to be resistant to that antibiotic
33
what is the relationship between zone of inhibition and minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)?
they are inversely related
34
minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
the amount of an antibiotic required to prevent bacterial growth in an overnight culture the MIC graph is used in conjunction with the zone of inhibition to determine the best antibiotic to use
35
TSA agar plate
general purpose media enriched media version: TSA with blood (blood agar plates: BAP)
36
enriched blood agar plates (BAP)
promotes growth of even fastidious bacteria grows a wide range of pathogens especially those that are difficult to grow
37
differential blood agar plates (BAP)
detects and differentiates hemolytic bacteria particularly streptococcus spp.
38
hemolysis results on BAP
beta= complete hemolysis (creates a clear zone around the bacteria) alpha= partial hemolysis or "greening" of agar (greenish or slimy discoloration around colony) gamma= no hemolysis
39
thioglycolate broth
differential media in liquid form grows most bacteria used for anaerobes
40
macconkey media
contains crystal violet selective: selects for gram negative bacteria by suppressing growth of gram positive bacteria differential: differentiates into groups by their use of lactose, differentiates gram negative since they release acid that turn the agar red
41
Simmons citrate media
differential uses citrate which makes it blue
42
bile escalin agar
differential media enterococci: brown/black
43
brain-heart infusion broth
enriched media used for blood cultures and fastidious bacteria differential: turns transparent if positive for strep
44
inoculation
goal is to isolate bacteria of interest with aseptic method
45
inoculation process
1. streak the plate 2. incubate (37 C for most pathogenic bacteria) 3. evaluate
46
what characteristics do we look at while evaluating an agar plate?
colony form, elevation, margin, texture, and pigmentation
47
how often should agar plates be checked on throughout incubation?
check on the plates and report if growth is observed or not every 12-24 hours
48
sub-culturing
determine the number of different colony morphologies present and sub-culture each one to a separate plate so there are pure cultures available for analysis
49
streaking the agar plate
use 4 streaks in the 4 quadrants of the plate in order to get distinct isolated colonies of bacteria
50
hyphae
fungal filaments that are branching they grow towards food sources and release digestive enzymes that break food up into small molecules
51
how do fungi reproduce?
via sexual and asexual spores different fungi groups produce different spores fungi can be differentiated on the basis of hyphae structure and spore presence
52
types of asexual spores
sporangiospores and conidia conidia are exposed to the external environment at maturity but sporangiospores are enclosed from the external environment at maturity
53
example of a spore
molds which are dispersed in the wind there is 1 type of sexual spore produced by molds
54
yeasts
candida (vaginal) and Malassezia (ears) reproduce by budding
55
dermatophytes
cutaneous mycotic organisms
56
which dermatophytes cause ringworm?
Microsporum spp. and Trichophyton spp.
57
dermatophyte spores
conidia types: macroconidia- large, multicellular conidium microconidia- single cell, small conidium
58
why do we usually ID dermatophytes?
for fungal skin infections
59
which media is used for IDing dermatophytes?
Sabouraud media which has antifungal and antibacterial agents to retard contaminant growth
60
how can we tell if a DTM or Fungassay plate test is positive?
dermatophytes release alkaline metabolites which change pH indicator red so the media turns red if it is positive
61
how can dermatophytes be viewed under the microscope?
in KOH on a slide with a cover slip use clear tape and Lactophenol blue stain evaluate on 10x-40x
62
what are we looking for when viewing dermatophytes under the microscope?
look for hyphae and then macroconidia may take up to 10 minutes to appear
63
when performing a DTM test what type of fur do we try to pluck?
fur that appears to be damaged or crusting use Mackenzie toothbrush method: using a toothbrush to brush along the damaged fur to collect a sample
64
is using a Woods lamp reliable for ringworm?
no, it gives ambiguous results depending on the growth stage
65
histoplasma
found worldwide transmission: humid nitrogenous soil (especially increased bird/bat droppings), inhaled spores
66
histoplasma CS
non-specific signs usually see mild fever, depression, anorexia, weight loss dogs can have respiratory/GI signs
67
blastomycosis
"Chicago dz" soil fungus seen in warm moist environments dogs are most susceptible causes pulmonary disease, skin lesions, eye infections that could to blindness
68
blastomycosis treatment
long term antifungal treatment usually lasts up to 6 months

Clinical Pathology II (15 decks)

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