Microbiology (All subtopics) Flashcards

(102 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following is the largest animal virus?
a.arterivirus
b.poxvirus
c.adenovirus
d.birnavirus

A

Poxvirus

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2
Q

Which is not a characteristic of Mycoplasma?
a.Fried egg” appearance of colonies
b.Lacks a cell wall
c.Contain DNA and RNA
d.Possess peptidoglycan

A

Possess peptidoglycan

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3
Q

You get called upon to assist in an outbreak investigation in a neighbouring district. Several duck farmers in the district have reported significant mortalities of ducks in their flocks. All ducks are unvaccinated and affected ducks do not show any clear clinical signs. You are tasked to visit one affected farm later today, interview the farmer and take samples of the flock. What would be the appropriate level of PPE while handling affected ducks during this farm visit?
a.Nothing, this investigation has just started, and no disease has been confirmed yet.
b.Cleaned gumboots to avoid spreading disease to this flock.
c.Overalls, gumboots, gloves, goggles, disposable N95 mask as there is a potential zoonotic infection risk.
d.Totally encapsulated suit with self-contained breathing apparatus to eliminate any risk.

A

Overalls, gumboots, gloves, goggles, disposable N95 mask as there is a potential zoonotic infection risk

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4
Q

This disease is an example of an occupational hazard:
a.Erysipeloid
b.West Nile Fever
c.Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome
d.Leptospirosis

A

Erysipeloid

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5
Q

The mechanism of action of the botulinum toxin is to:
a.Block the release of inhibitory mediator
b.Stimulate the release of prostaglandin from epithelial cells
c.Block protein synthesis by ADP ribosylating EF-2
d.Activate host cell adenylate cyclase

A

Block protein synthesis by ADP ribosylating EF-2

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6
Q

In assessing titer, how long after the first serum sample is collected should the second sample be collected?
a.7 days
b.3 days
c.2-6 weeks
d.14 weeks

A

2-6 weeks

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7
Q

General term for fungi that can occur in both mold and yeast form.
a.bisexual
b.dimorphic
c.haustoria
d.rhizoids

A

Dimorphic

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8
Q

Based on the replication of Togaviruses, the virus will replicate in the:*
a.nucleus
b.cytoplasm
c.it can happen on both sites
d.location outside the living cell

A

Cytoplasm

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9
Q

In a integrated farm, an outbreak of Tetanus has been reported. Which among the following animals will be mostly affected?
a.goat
b.horse
c.chicken
d.cattle

A

Horse

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10
Q

What is the primary toxin responsiblefor Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning (PSP)?

*

1/1

a.Saxitoxin
b.Tetrodotoxin
c.Ciguatoxin
d.Domoic acid

A

Saxitoxin

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11
Q

The most commonly used agent for gas sterilization is:
a.Glutaraldehyde
b.Formaldehyde
c.Chlorhexidine
d.Ethylene oxide

A

Ethylene oxide

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12
Q

Which is an intracellular organism that occurs outside of the host cell as elementary bodies?
a.Mycobacterium avium
b.Aspergillus fumigatus
c.Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d.Chlamydia psittaci

A

Chlamydia psittaci

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13
Q

Period of bacterial growth when there is rapid multiplication of cells?
a.lag phase
b.log phase
c.stationary phase
d.period of decline

A

Log phase

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14
Q

IL-1 is produced mainly by what cells?
a.NK cells
b.macrophage
c.CD4 T cells
d.Th1 cells

A

Macrophage

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15
Q

What is the cause of blue ear disease?
a.arterivirus
b.poxvirus
c.adenovirus
d.birnavirus

A

Arterivirus

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16
Q

The epidemiologic triad of disease causation refers to:
a.Agent, host, environment
b.Time, place, person
c.Source, mode of transmission, susceptible host
d.John Snow, Robert Koch, Kenneth Rothman

A

Agent, host, environment

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17
Q

The diarrhea and dehydration seen in calves with colibacillosis are mainly attributable to the effects of:
a.Enterotoxin
b.Endotoxin
c.Verotoxin
d.Lipopolysaccharide

A

Enterotoxin

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18
Q

A reservoir of an infectious agent can be:
a.A symptomatic human
b.An animal
c.The environment
d.All of the above

A

All of the above

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19
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by gram positive bacteria?
a.Purulent pneumonia in foals
b.Tracheobronchitis in dogs
c.Tularemia
d.Fowl coryza

A

Tracheobronchitis in dogs

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20
Q

During milk ring test, what is the indication if the milk at the bottom of the tube becomes gradually whitened?
a.positive result
b.negative result
c.result is inconclusive and the test should be repeated
d.partially negative

A

Result is inconclusive and the test should be repeated

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21
Q

Transmissible gastroenteritis virus cross-reacts serologically with:
a.Pseudorabies virus
b.Hog cholera virus
c.Bovine viral diarrhea virus
d.Porcine corona respiratory virus

A

Porcine corona respiratory virus

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22
Q

Which of the following vaccutainer can be used in the collection of your sample for antibody detection?
a.the one with green cap
b.the one with purple cap
c.the one with red cap
d.the one with yellow cap

A

The one with red cap

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23
Q

Which of the following is the transmitter of Hendra virus?
a.dogs
b.bats
c.guinea pig
d.firefly

A

Bats

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24
Q

Which bacteria is associated with Hamburger Disease is US?
a.Brucella foetus
b.Escherichia coli
c.Vibrio cholera
d.Staphylococcus aureus

A

Escherichia coli

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25
Double-dead is a Filipino appellation of meat obtained from a diseased animal or of an animal which has died other than slaughter. The Meat Inspection Code properly refers to this as: a.Adulterated b.Hot meat c.Condemned d.Misbranded
Adulterated
26
Population of the city of Atlantis on March 30, 2012 = 183,000 No. of new active cases of TB occurring between January 1 and June 30, 2012 = 26 No. of active TB cases according to the city register on June 30, 2012 = 264 The incidence rate of active cases of TB for the 6-month period was ______ per 100,000 population. a.7 b.14 c.26 d.28
14
27
A cohort study differs from a case-control study in that: a.Subjects are enrolled or categorized on the basis of their exposure status in a cohort study but not in a case-control study b.Subjects are asked about their exposure status in a cohort study but not in a case-control study c.Cohort studies require many years to conduct, but case-control studies do not d.Cohort studies are conducted to investigate chronic diseases, case-control studies are used for infectious diseases
Subjects are enrolled or categorized on the basis of their exposure status in a cohort study but not in a case-control study
28
What is the major antibody produced during a primary response? a.IgA b.IgG c.IgM d.IgD
IgM
29
Touching or feeding animals and licks on the skin is an example of what type of contact to rabies virus? a.Type I b.Type II c.Type III d.Type IV
Type I
30
What is the causative agent of Wooden tongue in cattle? a.Actinobacillus lignieresii  b.Nocardia asteroids c.Dermatophilus congolensis d.Moraxella bovis
Actinobacillus lignieresii
31
Which of the following bacteria are capable of producing motile zoospores? a.Actinomyces b.Brucella c.Dermatophilus d.Corynebacterium
Dermatophilus
32
During an ante-mortem inspection at a slaughterhouse, which scenario is most likely to be a significant concern that warrants further investigation? a.A cow with a slightly abnormal posture but normal appetite and alert behavior. b.A pig showing signs of moderate respiratory distress, accompanied by high fever and visible skin lesions. c.A goat with a minor but persistent limp and normal feeding behavior. d.A chicken with extensive external abscesses visible on the carcass
A pig showing signs of moderate respiratory distress, accompanied by high fever and visible skin lesions
33
False negative tuberculin tests may occur in: a.Heavily parasitized cattle b.Heavily pregnant cows c.Very old cattle d.Jersey cattle
Heavily pregnant cattle
34
An acidic reaction in the slant and butt portions of a triple sugar-iron medium indicates: a.Fermentation b.Carbohydrate utilization c.Deamination d.Desulfurylation
Fermentation
35
Which of the following yeasts become concentrated in pigeon feces that are rich in creatinine? a.Candida albicans b.Cryptococcus neoformans c.Malassezia pachydermatis d.Histoplasma capsulatum
Cryptococcus neoformans
36
Which of the following is most suitable for sterilization of an antiserum? a.Irradiation b.Steam sterilization c.Filtration d.Dry heat
Filtration
37
Primary reservoir of Q fever: a.Birds b.Cattle, sheep, and goats c.Contaminated water; rodents d.Wild carnivores
Cattle, sheep, and goats
38
Prevalence measures the 1)_______ of cases within a 2)_______-at-risk at a specified 3)______ in time.  a.1) number 2) group 3) point b.1) proportion 2) population 3) date c.1) proportion 2) population 3) point d.1) proportion 2) group 3) date
1) proportion 2) population 3) point
39
Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin found in the pig’s body surfaces? a.IgA b.IgG1 c.IgM d.IgD
IgA
40
Abortion in cow can be suspected to be cause by Brucella spp if it occurs ___? a.on the first month b.on the third month c.on the fourth month d.on the seventh month
On the seventh month
41
Which of the following is a primary cause of Pale Soft Exudative (PSE) pork? a.Rapid decline in pH (reaching 5.5 within 30-60 mins) due to Lactic acid accumulation and failure to chill meat rapidly b.Insufficient feed intake and poor nutrition during the growth period c.Infection with specific bacterial pathogens causing discoloration and texture changes in the meat d.Inadequate aging of pork
Rapid decline in pH (reaching 5.5 within 30-60 mins) due to Lactic acid accumulation and failure to chill meat rapidly
42
It serves as a mordant during routine gram staining? a.safranin red b.acetone alcohol c.crystal violet d.iodine
Iodine
43
Legal mandate declaring March as the Rabies Awareness Month, Rationalizing the Control Measures for the Prevention and Eradication of Rabies and Appropriating Funds. a.Republic Act 9482 b.Batas Pambansa Bilang 97 c.Executive Order No. 84, March 13, 1999 d.MOA on Interagency Interagency Implementation of the NRPCP
Executive Order No. 84, March 13, 1999
44
The major function of eosinophils is to: a.Phagocytose bacteria b.Neutralize viruses c.Cause delayed hypersensitivity d.Promote inflammation
Promote inflammation
45
Which of the following is a common ante-mortem sign of pleuritis in animals? a.Fever is always present b.Abducted elbows c.Purulent or fibrous exudate in pleural cavity d.Carcass condemnation
Abducted elbows
46
Staphylococcus aureus is associated with the following conditions except: a.Botryomycosis b.Bovine mastitis c.Tick pyemia d.Stuttgart disease
Stuttgart disease
47
A veterinary clinic is experiencing an outbreak of a disease among its staff, who have been in close contact with dogs recently rescued from a shelter. Among the options, which is most likely to proliferate in this situation? a.Toxoplasmosis b.Q fever c.Brucellosis d.Psittacosis
Brucellosis
48
Cold enrichment is usually employed in the cultivation of: a.Moraxella bovis b.Listeria monocytogenes c.Bordetella bronchiseptica d.Francisella tularensis
Listeria monocytogenes
49
During post-mortem exam of a carcass, the sublingual lymph node and spleen have lesions. What would be the decision? a.trim and pass rest of carcass b.condemn affected parts c.condemn entire carcass d.conditionally pass
condemn entire carcass
50
The enzyme catalase is used by bacteria to break down: a.Starches b.Hydrogen peroxide c.Proteins d.Superoxides
Hydrogen peroxide
51
If there is fecal contamination of the carcass, what would be the judgment? a.trim and reject affected parts b.total rejection c.fit for consumption d.condemn
Trim and reject affected parts
52
Ebola virus is under what viral family? a.Bunyaviridae b.Bornaviridae c.Filoviridae d.Arenaviridae
Filoviridae
53
Which of the following virus is associated with Hendra virus? a.nipah virus b.calivirus c.togavirus d.arterivirus
Nipah virus
54
Erythritol acts as a growth factor for: a.Brucella b.Salmonella c.Moraxella d.Avibacterium
Brucella
55
Shiga or shiga-like toxin is produce by what type of E. coli? a.EHEC b.EPEC c.ETEC d.ESEC
ETEC
56
Which disease control measure is least likely to be applied during an outbreak of viral respiratory disease in horses? a.Isolation b.Quarantine c.Immunization d.Depopulation
Depopulation
57
Which is not included in the minimum postmortem inspection requirements for animals? a.Tongue b.Ingesta c.Lymph nodes d.Spleen
Ingesta
58
The transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another aided by sex pili is called: a.Conjugation b.Transduction c.Transformation d.Recombination
Conjugation
59
Which of the following clotting factor is present in Chocolate agar? a.Factor I b.Factor VII c.Factor V d.Factor III
Factor V
60
In case of an epizootic anthrax in a farm the following can be done except: a.Affected farms should be quarantined for a period extending 2 weeks past the last death from anthrax b.Perform necropsy of suspected cases c.Decontamination of premises D.Carcasses of animals that died of anthrax be completely burned or buried deeply
Perform necropsy of suspected cases
61
In case of an epizootic anthrax in a farm the following can be done except: a.Affected farms should be quarantined for a period extending 2 weeks past the last death from anthrax b.Perform necropsy of suspected cases c.Decontamination of premises D.Carcasses of animals that died of anthrax be completely burned or buried deeply
Perform necropsy of suspected cases
62
The aim of the prevention during the clinical phase of the natural history disease is to: a.Prevent exposure b.Prevent emerge of disease c.Early diagnosis and treatment d.Prevent or delay death
Early diagnosis and treatment
63
The Coomb’s test was designed to: a.Diagnose brucellosis b.Detect RBC antigens c.Detect reaginic antibody d.Detect immune reactants on cells
Detect reaginic antibody
64
The odds ratio describes the 1)______ of an event 2)_____ compared to the 3)_____ of an event 4)_____. a.1) chance 2) incidence 3) probability 4) incidence b.1) odds 2) occuring 3) odds 4) not occurring c.1) odds 2) incidence 3) probability 4) occurring d.1) odds 2) occuring 3) odds 4) occurring
1) odds 2) occuring 3) odds 4) not occurring
65
Based on DNA relatedness, the genus Salmonella is comprised of: a.2 species, Salmonella bongori and Salmonella enteritidis b.3 species, Salmonella cholerasuis, S. typhi and S. enteritidis c.2 species, Salmonella enterica and Salmonella bongori d.3 species, Salmonella typhi, S. paratyphi and S. enteritidis
2 species, Salmonella enterica and Salmonella bongori
66
The Veterinary Health Certificate (VHC) shall be valid for a maximum of:  a.24 hours b.3 days, to start counting the following day after its issuance date including Saturdays and Sundays, but not Holidays c.3 days, to start counting immediately on the issuance date including Saturdays, Sundays, and Holidays d.3 days, to start counting the following day after its issuance date including Saturdays, Sundays, and Holidays
3 days, to start counting the following day after its issuance date including Saturdays, Sundays, and Holidays
67
Which is NOT a mode of transmission of Anthrax? a.Ingestion of undercooked meat b.Inhalation of spores in wool c.Arthropod vector (horseflies) d.Person to person
Person to person
68
The optichin test is used to identify which species of Streptococcus? a.S. suis b.S. equisimilis c.S. pneumonia d.S. uberis
S. pneumonia
69
Which antiseptic agent is one of most potent antiseptics because it is bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal? a.Chlorhexidine b.Hydrogen peroxide c.Iodine d.Quaternary ammonium compound
Iodine
70
What is the incubation period of Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza? a.2-5 days b.14 days c.18 days d.30 days
2-5 days
71
The CAMP test is used for: a.Staphylococcus aureus b.Streptococcus uberis c.Streptococcus dysgalactiae d.Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus agalactiae
72
This is often referred to as bacillary dysentery because of bloody diarrhea, tenesmus, fever and nausea that it causes to human. a.Campylobacteriosis b.Colibacillosis c.Salmonellosis d.Shigellosis
Shigellosis
73
Which of the following is NOT a key component affecting animal welfare in the slaughterhouse? a.Competence of the personnel handling the animals b.Availability of high-quality feed and water during transportation c.Design of premises or facilities to minimize stress d.Proper use of tools that are fit for purpose
Availability of high-quality feed and water during transportation
74
In the definition of epidemiology, “determinants” generally includes the following EXCEPT: a.Agents b.Causes c.Control measures d.Risk factors
Control measures
75
Test to determine perfect carcass bleeding a.Wode’s test b.Six-plate tesr c.Malachite Green Test d.Carotene Test
Malachite Green Test
76
In a region with increasing cases of human psittacosis linked to pet parakeets, which intervention would likely be the most cost-effective for preventing further spread of the disease? a.Implementing mass antibiotic therapy for all affected persons b.Quarantining all pet parakeets in the affected area c.Treating all imported parakeets with antibiotics before distribution d.Conducting public health education campaigns on safe handling of pet parakeets
Treating all imported parakeets with antibiotics before distribution
77
Which of the following disease is most likely to acquire by a cattle submerged to flood? anthrax hemorrhagic septicemia leptospirosis pink eye
Leptospirosis
78
What is the source of Salmonella in dressed chicken before slaughtering? a.bird itself b.evisceration area c.feeds d.none of the above
Bird itself
79
bird itself   evisceration area feeds none of the above   A cloudy, green colored fluid after Radan’s test would mean that bleeding is: a.Very unsatisfactory (cold-slaughtered) b.Incomplete c.Complete d.Satisfactory
Incomplete
80
What is the major function of interferon? a.antiviral b.antiprotozoal c.antibiotic d.antifungal
Antiviral
81
Humans most commonly contract Vibrio vulfinicus from ingestion of: a.Unpasteurized milk b.Contaminated marine shellfish like oysters c.Contaminated meat d.Any of these
Contaminated marine shellfish like oysters
82
What is the source of Salmonella in dressed chicken after slaughtering? a.bird itself b.evisceration area c.feeds d.none of the above
Evisceration area
83
Tuberculin test is a diagnostic test used to diagnosed tuberculosis in animals. This is being done by inoculation of mycobacterial antigen via: a.intramuscular b.intradermal c.subcutaneous d.intravenous
Intradermal
84
What is the virus common in tumors of marine mammals? a.poxvirus b.papillomavirus c.lentivirus d.adenovirus
Papillomavirus
85
Which of the following is NOT transmitted through consumption of raw or undercooked fish? a.Diphyllobothriasis b.Balantidiasis c.Vibriosis d.Anisakiasis
Balantidiasis
86
Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of what type of hypersensitivity? a.Type I  b.Type II c.Type III d.Type IV
Type III
87
Sabouraud’s dextrose agar is a medium used for ___: a.virus b.bacteria c.fungi d.protozoa
Fungi
88
Concerning Hemophilus parasuis, which statement is least accurate? a.It is the cause of Glasser’s disease b.It is a normal commensal of the pharyngeal mucosa c.It is a small Gram positive bacillus- gram-negative rod d.It is a frequent secondary invader in swine influenza
It is a small Gram positive bacillus- gram-negative rod
89
Which is not a characteristic of Rickettsia? a.Obligate intracellular parasite b.Grows well on artificial media c.Transmitted by arthropods d.Contain a cell wall
Grows well on artificial media
90
Q fever: Primary mode of zoonotic transmission a.Ticks b.Raw milk ingestion c.Inhalation d.Direct contact with carcass
Inhalation
91
Serratia marcescens in blood agar produces: a.Greyish,round and shiny colonies b.Mucoid colonies that coalesce c.Grey,swarming growth over the agar d.Convex,round and shiny colony sometimes produces pigment
Convex,round and shiny colony sometimes produces pigment
92
Which of the job roles below are field epidemiologists least likely to be involved in: a.Conducting disease surveillance activities b.Managing disease prevention and control programs c.Developing disease models d.Developing herd health programs
Developing disease models
93
What is the recommended procedure for handling a fetus in the uterus post-slaughter of pregnant animals? a.The fetus should be euthanized immediately b.The fetus should be left undisturbed in utero for at least 30 minutes c.The fetus should be removed from the uterus and left to breathe d.Pregnant animals, no matter the stage of gestation, should neither be transported nor slaughtered.
The fetus should be left undisturbed in utero for at least 30 minutes
94
Which best defines pathogen pressure in the context of zoonotic spillover risk? a.The mode of pathogen release from reservoir hosts b.The survival of pathogens outside reservoir hosts c.The amount of pathogen available to humans at a specific time and place d.The probability of infection following exposure
The amount of pathogen available to humans at a specific time and place
95
Which of the following is a morbiliviral infection causing fever, stomatitis and gastroenteritis in artiodactyls? a.Vesicular stomatitis b.Rinderpest c.Malignant catarrhal fever d.Foot and mouth disease
Rinderpest
96
Which one is a non-oncogenic retrovirus? a.Caprine arthritis-encephalitis b.Bovine leukemia virus c.Rous sarcoma virus d.None of the above
Caprine arthritis-encephalitis
97
What is the basis for serotyping of Pasteurella multocida? a.Capsule b.Fimbria c.Adhesin d.Flagella
Capsule
98
The “rough, tough and buff” colonies are characteristics of: a.Mycobacterium tuberculosis b.M. bovis c.M. farcinogenes d.M. avium
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
99
Lactose is fermented by: a.Escherichia coli b.Salmonella typhimurium c.Corynebacterium diphtheriae d.Proteus vulgaris
Escherichia coli
100
Contagious equine metritis is a highly contagious venereal disease caused by: a.Brucella abortus b.Taylorella equigenitalis c.Histoplasma farciminosum d.Pseudomonas pseudomallei
Taylorella equigenitalis
101
Which of the following diseases is caused by gram negative bacteria? a.Anthrax b.Hemorrhagic septicaemia c.Lumpy jaw d.Swine erysipelas
Hemorrhagic septicaemia
102
Which of the following diseases is caused by gram negative bacteria? a.Anthrax b.Hemorrhagic septicaemia c.Lumpy jaw d.Swine erysipelas
Hemorrhagic septicaemia