microbiology exam 2 first attempt Flashcards

(97 cards)

1
Q

The main difference between disinfectants and antiseptics is

A

Antiseptics can be used on tissue

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2
Q

A population is reduced from 110^9 to 110^4 cells in 10 min. What is the D value?

A

2 min.

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3
Q

The difference between ionizing radiation and nonionizing radiation is

A

All of the above

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4
Q

With most disinfectants the higher the concentration the better the kill. The exception to this general rule occurs with:

A

Alcohols

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the three organisms used in the AOAC use-dilution test?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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6
Q

The Anderson sampler is used in:

A

The bacterial filtration efficiency (BFE) test

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7
Q

Anti microbial hand wash

A

4% chlorhexidine

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8
Q

Semi-critical instrument disinfection

A

2-3.2% glutaraldehyde or PAA based disinfectant

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9
Q

Counter top or other small surface disinfection

A

70-80% ethyl alcohol

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10
Q

Anti microbial in mop water for floors

A

Substituted phenols

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11
Q

Sterilization of heat-liable plastics (petri dishes):

A

Gamma irradiation

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12
Q

Anti-tuberculosis drug that inhibits cell wall synthesis

A

Isoniazid

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13
Q

Commonly combined with trimethoprim; inhibits dihydrofolate synthesis

A

Sulfanilamide

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14
Q

A beta lactam antibiotic with 2 sites that can be chemically modified

A

Cephalosporin

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15
Q

An amino glycoside; binds 30s ribosome; must be given by injection

A

Streptomycin

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16
Q

The first antibiotic used in humans

A

Penicillin G

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17
Q

A macrolide which binds the 50s ribosomal subunit

A

Erythromycin

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18
Q

Disrupt nucleic acid synthesis by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase

A

Quinolone

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19
Q

A polypeptide antibiotic found in topical ointments; kills group A strep

A

Bacitracin

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20
Q

A Polyene anti fungal agent that disrupts membrane permeability:

A

Amphotericin

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21
Q

Antiviral agent used to treat herpes virus infections

A

Acyclovir

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22
Q

Causes black hairy tongue as a side effect:

A

Metronidazole

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23
Q

A quinolone that inhibits prokaryotic DNA gyrase

A

Ciproflaxin

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24
Q

Inhibits DNA-directed RNA polymerase; used to treat TB

A

Rifampin

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25
The most commonly used and produced antibiotic in the world:
Cephalosporin
26
Antiviral thymidine analog used to treat HIV infection
AZT
27
Which genus of bacteria produce more useful antibiotics than any other:
Streptomyces
28
Which of the following is not a lymphocyte?
Monocyte
29
Which of the following is NOT phagocytic?
Lymphocyte
30
Cytotoxic T cells contain which 2 key protein molecules which constitute the kiss of death?
Granzymes and perforins
31
Serum:
All of the above
32
Make and secrete antibody:
Plasma cell
33
Breaks up to form platelets
Megakaryocyte
34
Important in resistance to large parasites
Eosinophil
35
Blood cells which contain histamine
Basophil
36
Cell of acquired immunity; matures in bone marrow in mammals
B cell
37
Most common leukocyte in the blood
Neutrophil
38
Tissue cells which contain histamine
Mast cell
39
Phagocyte which can be activated to be a more efficient killer
Macrophage
40
Cells which direct and regulate the acquired immune response
T cell
41
Lymphocytes which destroy aberrant cells non specifically
Natural killer cell
42
Which cells are not part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
Plasma cells
43
complement fixation results in:
all of the above; leukocyte chemotaxis, opsonization, lysis of foreign cells
44
interferons:
all of the above: produced by virus-infected cells, signal adjacent cells to produce antiviral proteins, can be alpha beta or gamma
45
which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation
itching
46
primary lymphoid tissue
A and B, is where cells of acquired immunity develop, consists of the bone marrow and the thymus in humans
47
booster immunizations:
all of the above
48
the antigen-recognition molecule of T cells:
T cell receptor
49
increases phagocytosis:
opsonin
50
found on every nucleated cell of the body:
MHC class I
51
found only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells
MHC class II
52
the antigen-recognition molecule of B cells:
immunoglobulin
53
main serium antibody; has longest serium half-life
IgG
54
can fix complement:
IgG and IgM
55
has (have) a J chain (for joining more than one unit together):
IgM and IgA
56
exists most commonly as a pentamer
IgM
57
no other function besides B cell receptor:
IgD
58
produced in greatest abundance each day by the body
IgA
59
attaches to mast cells and basophiols; involved in allergies:
IgE
60
microglial cells, mesangial cells and kupffer cells are all types of
fixed macrophages
61
a viral infection is most often indicated by an increase in the number of peripheral blood ____
lymphocytes
62
the complement system was so named:
because the proteins involved complement the action of antibodies
63
protein A on the surface of S. aureus is a virulence factor because it:
binds antibody by the Fc end
64
lancefield typing is done with:
streptococcus
65
immunologically privileged sites
all of the above
66
which of the following is NOT on the list of recommended childhood and adolescent immunizations for EVERYONE in the US?
BCG (for TB)
67
passive immunity:
provides only temporary protection
68
requires an ultraviolet light source
fluorescent antibody test
69
current blood test to screen for HIV antibodies
ELISA
70
blood typing
hemagglutination
71
labeled antibody used to detect protein on a membrane
western blot
72
antigen and antibody diffuse toward each other in gel
ouchterlony
73
antigen quantitated by measuring diameter of precipitation ring:
radial immunodiffusion
74
separate proteins in a gel, then add antisera in a trough; precipitation arcs identify multiple specific proteins
immunoelectrophoresis
75
the reaction to poison ivy
type IV hypersensitivity
76
hemolytic disease of the newborn
type II hypersensitivity
77
rheumatoid arthritis
type III hypersensitivity
78
allergic contact dermatitis to latex gloves:
type IV hypersensitivity
79
systemic exposure to an allergen that results in anaphylactic shock
type I hypersensitivity
80
drug-induced anemia:
type II hypersensitivity
81
characterized by autoantibodies against nuclear material:
systemic lupus erythematosus
82
autoantibodies overstimulate the thyroid gland
graves disease
83
patients fail to develop B cells or T cells
SCID
84
characterized by cytotoxic T cells which destroy the myelin sheath around nervous tissue
multiple sclerosis
85
according to your text, what is the reason there is no vaccine for the common cold?
there are so many different viruses from multiple families that cause the common cold, making it difficult to create a single vaccine that would protect against them all
86
the fundamental difference between an agglutination and a precipitation test is
the solubility state of the antigen
87
you contract the mumps from a friend and recover
naturally acquired active
88
you get the MMR vaccine and are immune to measles
artificially acquired active
89
You receive a y-globulin shot before traveling to Africa:
artificially acquired passive
90
a baby receives protective antibody from breast milk
naturally acquired passive
91
forms a grey pseudomembrane in the throat:
corynebacterium diptheriae
92
causes pseudomembranous colitis; associated with antibiotic use:
clostridium difficile
93
toxin causes spastic paralysis; associated with anaerobic wounds
clostridium tetani
94
causes gas gangrene
clostridium perfringens
95
diseases are gastrointestinal, cutaneous, or inhalation
bacillus anthracis
96
causes flaccid paralysis; inhibits acetylcholine release
clostridium botulinum
97
intracellular pathogen to which pregnant women are more susceptible; infection by consumption of contaminated milk and meats
listeria monocytogenes