Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

microbiology > exam 2 second attempt > Flashcards

exam 2 second attempt Flashcards

(74 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

The chief cell which regulates an immune response is the:

A

T helper cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the main difference between disinfectants and antiseptics is:

A

disinfectants are usually used on inanimate objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a population is reduced from 110^8 to 110^2 cells in 9 min. what is the D value?

A

1.5 min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the difference between ionizing radiation and nonionizing radiation is:

A

ionizing radiation can be used to sterilize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which disinfectant below is most resistant to inactivation by organic material?

A

glutaraldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

monocytes develop into which type of cell?

A

macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

BFE refers to:

A

surgical mask filtration testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

commonly combined with trimethoprim; inhibits dihydrofolate synthesis

A

sulfanilamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An aminoglycoside; binds 30s ribosome; must be given by injection

A

streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

can’t be administered orally, 30s protein synthesis inhibitor

A

aminoglycoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

responsible for the highest percentage of drug allergies:

A

penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A broad-spectrum drug that inhibits protein synthesis; binds with calcium

A

tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

semi-synthetic penicillin

A

amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

antiviral guanosine analog; used to treat RSV infections

A

Ribavirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a cell wall synthesis inhibitor that is ussed to treat MRSA

A

vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which fungal genus produces more useful antibiotics than any other?

A

cephalosporium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which of the following is NOT a granulocyte?

A

monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

plasma:

A

contains antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

the source of blood platelets:

A

megakaryocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

differentiated B cells which make antibody:

A

plasma cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

found in tissues, can be either fixed or wandering:

A

macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

mature in the thymus:

A

T cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

have surface antibody

A

B cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

phagocytic cells of acute inflammation

A

neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
a lymphocyte which is part of innate immunity
natural killer cell
26
which of the following cells is NOT monocyte-derived?
plasma cells
27
the complement system provides all of the following useful functions except:
activation of macrophages
28
interferons:
are produced by virus-infected cells
29
secondary lymphoid tissue:
is where an immune response takes place
30
which immune cells are depleted in AIDS patients leading to acquired immunosuppression?
T helper cells
31
T cell receptor of T helper cells looks for this protein
MHC class II
32
T cell receptor of T-cytotoxic cells looks for this protein:
MHC class I
33
combines with endogenous antigenic fragments in the ER:
MHC class I
34
combines with exogenous antigenic fragments within endosomes:
MHC class II
35
can cross the placenta
IgG
36
produced first in response to a foreign antigen
IgM
37
a parasite infection is most often indicated by an increase in the number of peripheral blood ____
eosinophils
38
impetigo can be caused by:
A and B, staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus pyogenes
39
adjuvants:
all of the aboce: increase antigenicity, stimulate local inflamation, include substances
40
which of the following is NOT on the list of recommended childhood and adolescent immunizations for everyone in the US?
anthrax vaccine
41
passive immunity:
all of the above, can come from mother, provides temporary protection, humoral
42
the production of monoclonal antibody
all of the above: requires use of myeloma, requires hypridomas, has revolutionized clinical diagnostic testing
43
can be direct or indirect; fluorophore-labeled antibody:
fluorescent antibody test
44
involves enzyme-conjugated antibodies
ELISA
45
the only hypersensitivity NOT mediated by antibody:
type IV hypersensitivity
46
hypersensitivity pneumonitis (farmer's lung):
type III hypersensitivity
47
a positive TB skin test:
type IV hypersensitivity
48
asthma and hay fever
type I hypersensitivity
49
patients fail to develop a thymus (no T cells):
DiGeorge disease
50
MOST kidney transplants performed in the US are
allografts
51
An adjuvant increases:
the immunogenicity of a vaccine
52
causes woolsorter's disease, skin lesions are black
bacillus anthracis
53
produces the most potent poison known to man; results in flaccid paralysis
clostridium botulinum
54
intracellular pathogen to which pregnant women are more susceptible; infection by consumption of contaminated milk and meats:
listeria monocytogenes
55
number on cause of bacterial pneumonia; large capsule
streptococcus pneumoniae
56
causes infections in newborns; lancefield group B
streptococcus agalactiae
57
implicated in the genesis of acne
propionibacterium
58
cause of buruli ulcer:
mycobacterium ulcerans
59
common cause of food poisoning; coagulase positive
staphylococcus aureus
60
cause of necrotizing fasciitis
streptococcus pyogenes
61
previously classified as group D, VRE
enterococcus
62
responsible for dental caries
viridans streptococci
63
Hansen's disease; causes nerve destruction
mycobacterium leprae
64
involved in pharyngitis and glomerulonephritis;
streptococcus pyogenes
65
produces a superantigen toxin that results in a T cell cytokine overdose
staphylococcus aureus
66
disease was once called "consumption":
mycobacterium tuberculosis
67
produces a polyketide immunosuppressive toxin; no proven antimicrobial therapy exists:
mycobacterium ulcerans
68
gram positive anaerobic rod that is the second most common organism on the skin:
propionibacterium
69
estimated that one-third of the world's population is infected with this organism; #3 cause of death from a single infectious agent:
mycobacterium tuberculosis
70
can grow only in the footpads of mice and the bellies of 9-banded armadillos:
mycobacterium leprae
71
AFB and Ghon complexes:
mycobacterium tuberculosis
72
produces a secretory IgA protease and a protein that binds cholesterol in host epithelial cell membranes which causes their lysis; optochin sensitive:
streptococcus pneumoniae
73
responsible for scalded skin syndrome:
staphylococcus aureus
74
the cell which produces cytokines which induce a cell-mediated type of immune response is:
Th1

microbiology (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions