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Nutrition [BIOL0030] > Midterm #1 > Flashcards

Midterm #1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is nutrition?

A

science that studies all the interactions that occur between living organisms and food

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2
Q

What are nutrients?

A

chemical substances in foods that provide energy and structure and help regulate body processes

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3
Q

What gives us access to previously/quickly prepared foods with little effort?

A

processed foods and fast foods

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4
Q

When did processed foods/fast foods arise?

A

21st century

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5
Q

How do processed/fast foods differ in nutritional value from other foods?

A

higher in calories, lower in other nutrients (vitamins, minerals, antioxidants); makes it easier to overeat because they’re so available

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6
Q

What is the focus of nutrition advice in modern America?

A

controlling intake, just as much as ensuring adequate intake

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7
Q

kilocalorie

A

unit of heat used to express the amount of energy provided by foods; heat required to raise temperature of 1 kg of water 1 degree C (1 kcal = 4.18 J)

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8
Q

how many joules per kcal?

A

4.18 kjoules = 1 kcal

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9
Q

macronutrient

A

needed in large amounts; water, carbs, protein, lipids

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10
Q

micronutrient

A

needed in small amounts; vitamins and minerals

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11
Q

What are lipids?

A

organic, energy-yielding, macronutrient, NOT water-soluble; fatty acids/triglycerides/cholesterol

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12
Q

What are proteins?

A

organic, energy-yielding, macronutrient, water-soluble, made of amino acids

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13
Q

What are vitamins?

A

organic, not energy yielding, micronutrients, some water-soluble, some fat-soluble

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14
Q

What are minerals?

A

inorganic, not energy-yielding, micronutrients, water-soluble

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15
Q

What is undernutrition?

A

malnutrition: deficiency of energy and/or nutrients

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16
Q

What is overnutrition?

A

malnutrition: excess energy and/or nutrients

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17
Q

How does overnutrition differ for energy vs vitamins/minerals?

A

energy: obesity, chronic illness (diabetes, etc.); vit/min = organ damage and/or death

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18
Q

What is malnutrition?

A

any condition resulting from an energy or nutrient intake either above or below that which is optimal for a period of time

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19
Q

How does someone get overnutrition of energy but undernutrition of vitamins/minerals?

A

by eating a diet high in processed foods: lots of energy but low in vitamins/minerals

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20
Q

How do genetics influence nutrition?

A

can influence predisposition to diseases like diabetes/cancer; diet an increase risk or decrease if healthful

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21
Q

What effect can diet have on genetic predispositions to disease?

A

if unhealthy, can exacerbate; if healthy, can alleviate

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22
Q

What is nutritional genomics?

A

new field of study exploring interaction between genetic variation and nutrition

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23
Q

What field of study explores the interaction between genetic variation and nutrition?

A

nutritional genomics

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24
Q

What determines food choices?

A

availability, cultural and family background, prior experience, social acceptability, personal preference, psychological/emotional state, health concerns, taste, cost nutrition, convenience

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25
Q

What are the main determinants for what we eat?

A

taste, cost, nutrition, convenience

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26
Q

How can we choose a healthy diet?

A

identify and choose nutrient dense foods; varied diet; balance choices and use moderation, be aware of portion sizes

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27
Q

What is a nutrient dense food?

A

contains more nutrients per calorie

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28
Q

Why can nutrition science seem contradictory?

A

because science takes a whole: study designs/interpretation/media effects may differ from study to study

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29
Q

What is the scientific method?

A

systematic, unbiased approach to evaluating the relationships among food, nutrients, and health

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30
Q

What are the steps to the scientific method?

A

PIHERC (problem, info, hypothesis, experiment, results, conclusion, revise)

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31
Q

What are the steps to the scientific method?

A

PIHERC (problem, info, hypothesis, experiment, results, conclusion, revise)

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32
Q

How can an experiment generate reliable theories?

A

must produce consistent quantificable results and interpreted accurately

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33
Q

What are three ways that scientists study nutrition?

A

observational/epidemiological studies; human intervention/clinical trials; lab studies

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34
Q

What are observation/epidemiological studies?

A

can’t determine cause/effect, only identify patterns; often case-control studies (to compare groups of people to look for patterns)

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35
Q

What are human intervention/clinical trials?

A

can identify case/effect if designed well; variables carefully controlled by researchers

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36
Q

What are laboratory studies?

A

can include clinical trials; often involves cells in petri dish, chemical reactions, animals, humans, etc. can include depletion-repletion studies and balance studies

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37
Q

What is a depletion-repletion study?

A

eliminate nutrient until deficiency signs appear, then return nutrient until symptoms disappear

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38
Q

What are balance studies?

A

compare total amount of nutrient entering body to total amount leaving body

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39
Q

How do we resolve ethical concerns in scientific study?

A

both humans and animals are protected by federal laws and guidelines about research ethics

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40
Q

How can we evaluate nutrition information?

A

does the info make sense? What’s the source? Is it good science? Has it stood the test of time?

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41
Q

What does it mean to ask about the source of nutrition information?

A

is it coming from a company trying to sell a product? Trust RDs and research universities

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42
Q

What does it mean to ask if nutrition info is based in good science?

A

well-designed, interpreted correctly, published in respected peer-reviewed journal

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43
Q

What does it mean to ask if nutrition info has stood the test of time?

A

have multiple similar studies found similar results?

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44
Q

Why do nutrition recommendations exist?

A

to give people guidance for ensuring a diet that provides adequate amounts of calories and nutrients, and that reduces the risk of specific diseases

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45
Q

When was the first set of recommendations published by the USDA?

A

1894

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46
Q

What is MyPlate?

A

introduced by government in 2011: current government guidance for food intake

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47
Q

What are RDAs?

A

recommended dietary allowances: designed to make recommendations of intakes for specific nutrients; developed in 1940s

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48
Q

When were RDAs started?

A

1940s

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49
Q

What are the three ways of early US food guidance?

A

food groups, MyPlate, recommended dietary allowances

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50
Q

How has the focus of dietary guidance changes throughout the last 100 years?

A

originally, designed to prevent nutrient deficiencies; but since those are now rare in the US, chronic diseases due to overnutrition have increased: newer recommendations are designed to promote health against overnutritions: Dietary Reference Intakes

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51
Q

Why were Dietary Reference Intakes developed?

A

to adjust US food guidelines for the impact of overnutrition: both prevents deficiencies and promotes health

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52
Q

What is a Dietary Reference Intake?

A

set of reference values for the intake of energy, nutrients, and food components that can ve used for planning/assessing the diets of healthy people in the US/Canada; includes EARs, RDAs, Ais, Uls, EERs, AMDRs

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53
Q

What are EARS?

A

estimated average requirements: intakes that meet the estimated nutrient needs of 50% of individuals in a gender and life-stage group

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54
Q

What are RDAs?

A

recommended dietary allowances: ) Intakes that are sufficient to meet the nutrient needs of almost all healthy people in a specific life-stage and gender group

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55
Q

What are Ais?

A

adequate intakes: Intakes that should be used as a goal when no RDA exists. These values are an approximation of the average nutrient intake that appears to sustain a desired indicator of health.

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56
Q

What are Uls?

A

tolerable upper intake levels: maximum daily intakes that are unlikely ot pose a risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in the specified life-stage and gender group

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57
Q

What are EERS?

A

estimated energy requirements: Average energy intakes predicted to maintain body weight in a healthy individual. Variables in the calculations include age, gender, weight, height, and level of physical activity

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58
Q

What are AMDRs?

A

acceptable macronutrient distribution ranges: Ranges of intake for energy-yielding nutrients, expressed as a percentage of total energy intake, that are associated with reduced risk of chronic disease while providing adequate intakes of essential nutrients

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59
Q

How can we apply DRIs?

A

to plan diets, assess adequacy of diets, make judgments about excessive intakes for individuals and populations; can’t be used to identify whether a person has nutritional deficiency/excess

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60
Q

What are dietary guidelines?

A

suggest overall diet and lifestyle choices that will promote health; evidence-based nutritional guidanec; focus on balancing energy intake with physical activity, nutrient-dense foods, designed for Americans 2 yo and up

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61
Q

What ages are dietary guidelines for?

A

2yo and up

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62
Q

What is the minimum amount of moderate exercise recommmended each week?

A

150 minutes

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63
Q

What is the recommended intake for vegetables and fruits?

A

at least 2.5 cups per day (5 servings); improve choices by selecting variety, especially dark-green and red/orange vegetables, beans, peas

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64
Q

What is the recommended intake for whole graings?

A

at least half of grain servings are whole grains

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65
Q

What is the recommended intake for dairy?

A

limit consumption of high-fat dairy products like cheese

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66
Q

What is the recommended intake for proteins?

A

emphasis on plant-based proteins (legumes, nuts) and lean animal proteins; vary by choosing seafood

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67
Q

What are food and food components to reduce?

A

trans Fas, saturated fats, cholesterol, refined grains/sguars, processed foods, sodas/sugary drinks, fried foods, desserts and other high-sugar refined-grain foods; excess salt/sodium, excess alcohol

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68
Q

What are some of the food label changes from May 2016?

A

serving size bolded, calories in larger font and bolded, actual amount of vitamin C, calcium, iron, potassium; amount of added sugars

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69
Q

How is the ingredient list ordered?

A

by weight; must also list food colors and flavorings

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70
Q

What are some dietary supplements?

A

vitamins, minterals, herbs, botanicals, plant-derived substances, amino acids, enzymes, concentrates, extract

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71
Q

What are dietary supplement label requirements?

A

must contain words “dietary supplement” and carry “supplementary facts” listing recommended serving size and name/quantity of each ingredient per serving; directions for use and info about ingredients

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72
Q

What is DSVP?

A

dietary supplement verification program: meets manufacturing standards, but not necessarily safe/effective

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73
Q

Do dietary supplements need to be approved by the FDA?

A

nope

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74
Q

Are restaurants required to label food?

A

not unless the food is from a food establishment that has 20 or more locations

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75
Q

How are exchange lists used?

A

meal-planning tool for individuals: divides foods into groups (vegetables, fruits, starch, dairy, fat, protein); each serving contains approximately the same amount of energy/carbs/protein/fat: any one of the foods on a list can be exchanged with any other food on the list while maintaining nutritional impact

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76
Q

What is nutritional status?

A

state of health as it is influenced by the intake and utilization of nutrients

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77
Q

How to assess individual’s nutritional status?

A

use assessment tools (analyzing nutrient intake, anthropometric measurements, medical history, physical exam, laboratory measurements)

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78
Q

“analyzing nutrient intake” assessment?

A

info about food intake gathered, then nutrient content compared to recommended intakes

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79
Q

“anthropometric measurements” assessment?

A

involve assessments of height, weight, body size; compared with population standards or used to monitor changes in individual over time

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80
Q

“medical history” assessments?

A

medical history examined for nutritional impact

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81
Q

“physical exam” assessments?

A

careful physical to detect symptoms of/risk factors for nutrition-related diseases

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82
Q

“laboratory measures” assessments?

A

measures of nutrients or byproducts in body cells/fluids like blood/urine can detect nutrient deficiencies/excesses

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83
Q

How to assess nutritional health of population?

A

monitor food supply and nutritional status

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84
Q

How to monitor food supply of population?

A

year-to-year comparisons, identify diet trends; but tend to oversetimate actual intame because don’t consider losses during processing, marketing, home use, etc.

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85
Q

What are food disappearance surveys?

A

estimate food available to population; measure what food is sold

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86
Q

How do you monitor nutritional status of population?

A

examine/compare trends in food intake and health by interviewing individuals within population to determine what food is actually consumed and colelcting info on health and nutritional status

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87
Q

What is NHANES?

A

Nutritional Health and Nutrition Examination Survey conducted by department of Health and Human Services

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88
Q

What is the digestive system?

A

organ system primarily responsible for the movement of nutrients into the body proper

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89
Q

What are the organs of the digestive system?

A

gastrointestinal tract, four accessory organs (salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, pancrease)

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90
Q

How long is food left in the GI tract?

A

24-72 hours in a healthy adult

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91
Q

What are the four layers of the structure of the gut wall?

A

small intestine layers: mucosa, connective tissue, smooth muscle layers, outer connective tissue layer

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92
Q

How do digestive secretions help digest food?

A

mucus and enzymes: helps break down and absorb nutrients in the lumen of the GI tract

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93
Q

What kind of signals regulate digestive activity?

A

hormones and nervous signals

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94
Q

When does digestion begin?

A

cephalic phase: sight/smell of food, enters through mouth

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95
Q

Digestion in the mouth?

A

food broken into smaller pieces by teeth and mixed with saliva – digest carbs with salivary amylase

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96
Q

Digestion in the pharynx?

A

passes through into esophagus; bolus of food swallowed, epiglottis pushed down over the trachea to prevent choking

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97
Q

Digestion in the esophagus?

A

peristalsis proels bolus to stomach; weight of bolus presses on lower esophageal sphincter (aka gastroesophageal sphincter and cardiac esophageal sphincter) to allow bolus into stomach

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98
Q

Digestion in the stomach?

A

temporary storage site for food; muscles mix into chyme; meal stays in stomach for 2-4 hours

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99
Q

How does the structure of the stomach support its function?

A

lining covered in gastric pits with gastric glands to produce gastric juice components

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100
Q

What is gastric juice?

A

water, mucus, HCl, pepsinogen (activated by HCl into pepsin)

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101
Q

How is stomach activity regulated?

A

amount/composition of food consumed and regulated by nervous and hormonal signals from stomach/small intestine

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102
Q

What is the small intestine’s function?

A

main site of digestion and absorption of nutrients

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103
Q

How does the structure of the small intestine maximize function?

A

large circular folds, villi, microvilli, to increase absorptive surface area

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104
Q

How is chyme propelled through small intestine?

A

peristalsis, mixed by contractions of segmentation: bicarb from pancreas neutralizes stomach acid, pancreatic/intestinal enzymes digest macronutrients; aided by bile from gallbladder

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105
Q

How are nutrients absorbed in the small intestine?

A

across intestinal mucosa: simple diffusion, osmosis, facilitated diffusion do not require energy; active transport requires energy (down vs against concentration gradiet, respectively)

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106
Q

What does the large intestine do?

A

absorbs water and some nutrients, uses intestinal microflora (bacteria) to digest unabsorbed materials (fiber, etc.) to produce some nutrients and gas; remaining material excreted

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107
Q

How important is GI tract to health?

A

Very

108
Q

What is the immune function of the GI tract?

A

immune system cells and tissues help eliminate disease-casuing organisms or toxins

109
Q

How do immune response and food allergies interact?

A

if protein is absorbed whole (not broken to amino acids), likely to develop food allergy; common is seafood, peanuts, tree nuts, fish, soy, wheat, milk, and eggs

110
Q

What is celiac disease?

A

protein gluten (wheat, barley, rye) triggers immune response that damages villi of small intestine: impairs absorption

111
Q

What causes heartburn and GERD?

A

leakage of stomach contents into the esophagus

112
Q

What causes peptic ulcers?

A

infections with Helicobacter pylori, GERd, of medications that damage mucosa

113
Q

What is the consequences of gallstones?

A

interfere with fat digestion and absorption, pain

114
Q

What causes diarrhea?

A

lining of small intestine inflamed, so impaired absorption

115
Q

What causes constipation?

A

diet low in fiber, or high in fiber but low in fluids

116
Q

How to provide nutrients to those who can’t eat?

A

enteral feeding (tube through nasal passage into stomach; or intestine for liquid); total parenteral nutrition (delivers nutrients directly into bloodstream through vein in upper arm or chest)

117
Q

How are nutrients delivered to body cells?

A

absorbed into mucosal cells of intestine, enter blodo circulation by hepatic portal circulation (water-soluble) or lymphatic system (fat-solbule)

118
Q

Where do most of the absorbed nutrients go?

A

directly to liver through hepatic portal circulation

119
Q

What is the function of the liver?

A

processing center, removing the absorbed substances for storage, converting them into other forms, or allowing them to pass unaltered

120
Q

What is the function of the lymphatic system?

A

fat-soluble products of digestion absorbed; lipid transport particles absorbed into lacteals in intestinal villi, which feeds into lymph vessels – enter blood circulation directly without first passing through liver

121
Q

How do nutrients enter body cells?

A

through cell membrane receptors, etc.

122
Q

What is the product of catabolism of glucose/FA/AA?

A

2-carbon acetyl-CoA; goes through TCA and generates CO2, water and ATP

123
Q

What are some metabolic wastes?

A

carbon dioxide, nitrogen, water

124
Q

What happens in the kidneys?

A

water and small molecules filtered out of blood through the nephrons; some filtered substances are reabsorbed, but the rest are excreted in urine

125
Q

What is the difference between refined and unrefined grains?

A

whole grain has all three components (wheat, germ, endosperm), refined loses those phytonutrients in processing

126
Q

What are enriched grains?

A

added iron, thiamin, riboflavin, niacin

127
Q

What are fortified grains?

A

folate

128
Q

What effect do added sugars have on nutrient density?

A

lowers it: less nutritional value

129
Q

What are the three main elements in carbs?

A

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen

130
Q

What are simple carbohydrates?

A

mono and disaccharides, found in table sugar, honey, milk

131
Q

What are monosaccharides?

A

glucose, fructose, galactose

132
Q

glucose?

A

blood sugar; primary form of carbs for energy

133
Q

fructose?

A

fruit sugar; primary form of carbs in fruit

134
Q

galactose?

A

combines with glucose to form lactose

135
Q

What are the disaccharides?

A

maltose, sucrose, lactose

136
Q

maltose?

A

two glucose molecules; formed during intestines during starch digestion

137
Q

sucrose?

A

table sugar; fructose + glucose

138
Q

lactose?

A

milk sugar; glucose + galactose; only naturally found in animal products

139
Q

How are sugars made?

A

condensation reaction, releasing water molecule

140
Q

How are sugars broken down?

A

hydrolysis, requires water molecule

141
Q

What are some complex carbs?

A

oligosaccharides, glycogen, starches, fibers

142
Q

What are oligosaccharides?

A

short-term carbs containing 3-10 sugar units, formed in gut during breakdown of polysaccharides

143
Q

What is glycogen?

A

storage form of glucose in animals; highly-branched chain of glucose molecules that can be broken down quickly for energy; limited amount of glycogen stores in body; stored in liver and muscles

144
Q

Where is glycogen stored and used for in those locations?

A

liver (for blood glucose) and muscles (for exercising muscles)

145
Q

What are starches?

A

storage for of carbs in plants

146
Q

What are fibers?

A

soluble vs insoluble; soluble = form viscous solutions, broken down in intestine by microflora: pectin/gums/hemicelluloses; insoluble = can’t be broken down by bacteria: cellulose, lignin, some hemicellulose

147
Q

What foods have fiber?

A

whole grains, legumes, fruits, vegetables

148
Q

What happens to carbs in the digestive tract?

A

sugars and starches broken down into monosaccharides, absorbed in bloodstrea

149
Q

How are carbs digested in the mouth?

A

salivary amylase to break starch into shorter polysaccharides

150
Q

How are carbs digested in stomach?

A

salivary amylase inactivated by acid, so no carb digestion

151
Q

How are carbs digested in small intestine?

A

pancreatic amylase completes job of breaking down starch into disaccharides and oligosaccharides; enzymes attached to microvilli complete digestion

152
Q

How are carbs digested in large intestine?

A

fiber and other indigestible/resistance carbs partially broken down by bacteria to form short-chain FAs and gas

153
Q

What is lactose intolerance?

A

undigested lactose passes into colon, draws in mater and is metabolize dby bacteria, produces gas and acids to cause abdominal distension, flatulence, cramping, diarrhea

154
Q

How can lactose intolerant people get calcium?

A

tofu, fish, vegetables, calcium-fortified products, fermented dairy products

155
Q

What are indigestible carbs and what happens to them?

A

fiber, some oligosaccharides, resistant starch: not broken down, so pass into colon

156
Q

How do indigestible carbs affect transit time?

A

increase volume of material in lumen of intestine, adding bulk/weight to stool

157
Q

What do indigestible carbs promote healthy microflora?

A

they’re food for colon bacteria

158
Q

Why do indigestible carbohydrates increase intenstinal gas?

A

oligosaccharides raffinose and stachyose usually culprits after consuming beans

159
Q

How do indigestible carbs affect nutrient absorption?

A

fiber binds certain minerals (zinc, calcium, iron, magnesium) and prevent absorption; soluble fiber binds cholesterol/bile and reduces absorption; fiber causes distension in stomach and slows gastric emptying to increase satiation

160
Q

What does fiber bind to prevent absorption?

A

zinc, magnesium, calcium, iron

161
Q

What does soluble fiber bind to slow absorption?

A

cholesterol, bile

162
Q

What is the main function of glucose?

A

provide energy to body cells

163
Q

What are some other functions of carbs?

A

cell communication, synthesize DNA/RNA

164
Q

How is glucose delivered to body cells?

A

monosaccharides travel to liver by hepatic portal vein; once in liver, Fruc/Galac converted into glucose and used in three ways: immediate energy, stoarge as glycogen, converted into FAs for long term storage

165
Q

What are the three fates of fructose and galactose in the liver?

A

converted to glucose and then: 1) for immediate energy, 2) for storage as glycogen, 3) for fatty acids for long-term storage

166
Q

What is glycemic response?

A

how quickly or how high blood glucose rises after carbs consumed

167
Q

How is glycemic response quantified?

A

glycemic load or glycemic index

168
Q

What hormones regulate glucose supply?

A

insulin and glucagon (in liver)

169
Q

What do insulin and glucagon do?

A

insulin decreases blood glucose (uptake into muscle and adipose tissue); glucagon increases blood glucose (signals glycogen breakdown; from pancreas)

170
Q

How does glucose provide energy?

A

metabolized to provide ATP through cellular respiration

171
Q

What is glycolysis?

A

anaerobic metabolism; splits glucose into 2 pyruvates (3C each) in the cytosol; produces 2 ATP per glucose (1 per pyruvate)

172
Q

How many ATP from glycolysis?

A

2 ATP per glucose

173
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

cytoplasm

174
Q

What happes to pyruvate in presence of oxygen?

A

mitochondria: 1C removed and released as CO2, the other two mix with coezyme A to form acetyl-CoA for TCA

175
Q

What happes in the TCA cycle?

A

acetyl-CoA enters and the 2 carbons are lost as carbon dioxide whereas the energy in bonds is used to make more ATP

176
Q

What happens in the ETC?

A

the energy from high-energy electron inedmediates from TCA cycle and glycolysis is used to funnel electrons down a chain and pump H ions across the membrane to be used to make more ATP; electrons combine with hydrogen and oxygen to make water

177
Q

What happens when carbs are limited?

A

metabolism shifts to ensure enough glucose; breaks down protein

178
Q

What happens when protein is broken down?

A

skeletal muscle broken down to synthesize glucose through gluconeogensis

179
Q

What are ketones?

A

molecules formed in liver when insufficient carbs to metaboliz the 2C units produced from fat breakdown

180
Q

What is type 1 diabetes?

A

autoimmune disease: insulin-secreting pancreatic cells destroyed

181
Q

What is type 2 diabetes?

A

body doesn’t produce enough insulin to keep blood glucose in normal range; decreased insulin receptor function; higher levels of blood glucose; often preceded by prediabetes or impaired glucose tolerance

182
Q

What is gestational diabetes?

A

occurs in women during pregnancy, disappears after birth

183
Q

Why is diabetes problematic?

A

body can’t use glucose correctly

184
Q

What are imemdiate symptoms of diabetes?

A

excessive thirst, frequent urination, blurred vision, weight loss

185
Q

What are long-term complications of diabetes?

A

damage to heart, blood vessels, kidneys, eyes, nerves: excessive blood levels of insulin and glucose

186
Q

How to treat diabetes?

A

regulate blood glucose: diet, exercise, moderation

187
Q

How can diet affect diabetes?

A

monitor carb food groups (vegetables, fruits, starches, dairy); not a low fat diet (since will increase blood levels of glucose and insulin); moderate in healthy fats

188
Q

How can exercise affect diabetes?

A

increases sensitivty of body cells to insulin; glucose available to fuel exercising muscles as well as promoting weight loss

189
Q

How can medication affect diabetes?

A

Type 1: inject insulin; Type 2: oral hypoglycemic agents taken

190
Q

What is hypoglycemia?

A

blood sugar drops low enough to cause irritability, nervousness, sweating, shakiness, anxiety, rapid heartbeat, headache, hunger; common complication of diabetes treatment

191
Q

What are dental caries?

A

most well-documented health problem associated with diet high in carbs = tooth cavities

192
Q

How do cavities form?

A

baceteria form colonies and stick to teeth; metabolize carbs and produce acids that dissolve tooth enamel

193
Q

Why do low-carb diets promote weight loss?

A

less food is consumed; ketosis occurs (suppresses appetite and food intake)

194
Q

What is the consequence of ketosis?

A

suppresses appetite and reduced food intake

195
Q

Why are high-carb diets linked to heart disease?

A

high carb diets increase blood lipid levels

196
Q

How do indigetible carbs affect bowel health?

A

make stool larger and softer, to reduces pressure needed to move material through colon; lower risk of constipation, hemorrhoids, and symptoms of diverticular disease

197
Q

How can fiber help protect against colon cancer?

A

cells in colon may be exposed to carcinogens in colon contents – fiber may decrease amount of contact between cells of colon and carcinogenic substances

198
Q

How much carbs should be eaten per day?

A

RDA for adults and children is 130g per day; 45-65% of energy from carbs; 25g fiber for females, 38g for males

199
Q

What kinds of carbs are recommended?

A

unrefined, whole; limit added sugars to less than 10% of energy

200
Q

What is the average american fiber intake?

A

only 15g per day, which is below the recommendation of 25-38g

201
Q

What is the role of alternative sweeteners?

A

can reduce amount of added sugar; don’t contribute to tooth decay, keep blood sugar in normal range; reduce energy content of diet if calories they eliminate aren’t added back in other food choices

202
Q

What are nonnutritive sweeteners?

A

alternative sweeteners that provide no calories: saccharin, aspartame, sucralose, acesulfame K, rebiana

203
Q

What are sugar alcohols?

A

sweeteners that are structurally related to sugars, but provide less energy because aren’t well-absorbed; can cause digestive issues because produce gas

204
Q

What do fats do for food?

A

add desirable texture and taste

205
Q

How many kcal/g fot fats vs carbs/protein?

A

9 for fats, 4 for carbs/protein

206
Q

What is the chemical makeup of lipids?

A

organic, not water soluble, hydrophobic

207
Q

What are the types of lipids?

A

fatty acids, triglycerides, sterols, phospholipids

208
Q

What are whole food/natural sources of lipids?

A

nuts, meats, whole fat dairy, avocados, oils/butter

209
Q

What counts more for health, overall dietary patterns or total fat intake?

A

overall dietary patterns: depends on how many kcals taken in, not just fat (so if you cut fat but increase calories elsewhere, won’t help)

210
Q

What are fatty acids?

A

chains of C,H, O: one end has methyl group (omega end)

211
Q

What are triglycerides?

A

3 fatty acids in ester linkage to glycerol; fats found in food and form of lipid that provides energy

212
Q

What is the form of lipid found in food and used for energy in the body?

A

triglycerides

213
Q

What are phospholipids?

A

structural; made of 2 Fas with a polar head for membranes; contain phosphorous

214
Q

What are sterols?

A

not built of fatty acids; cholesterol, some hormones, etc.

215
Q

What is the omega end of a fatty acid?

A

methyl end: carbon bound to three hydrogens

216
Q

What is opposite the omega end of a fatty acid?

A

carboxyl end: -COOH group

217
Q

What determines fatty acid structure and function?

A

chain length and # of double bonds

218
Q

Which lipid type can directly enter cells and be catabolized to make ATP?

A

fatty acids

219
Q

How are fatty acids stored in the body?

A

as triglycerides: found in adipocytes

220
Q

What is glycerol?

A

backbone for TG; composed of 3C and some H and O

221
Q

What are the three general categories of fatty acid?

A

short chain (4-7) medium chain (8-12) and long chain (13-20)

222
Q

Give examples of all three chain lengths of fatty acids

A

short = milk fat; medium = coconut oil; long = beef fat

223
Q

What is saturation?

A

description of # and type of double bonds in a fatty acid

224
Q

What is a saturated fatty acid?

A

no double bonds anywhere

225
Q

What are the health implications of saturated fatty acids?

A

increased risk of heart disease

226
Q

what food sources have saturated fat?

A

animal fats, tropical plant oils (coconut, palm, palm kernel); most sources of fat have at least some saturated fatty acids on the TG

227
Q

What are the most common saturated fats?

A

stearic (18C) and palmitic (16C)

228
Q

What is the physical state of the different lengths of fatty acid chains?

A

short = liquid when cold and RT; medium = solid when cold, liquid at RT; long = solid when cold and RT

229
Q

what kind of fats are susceptible to oxidation?

A

unsaturated (saturated fats do not oxidize as readily)

230
Q

What happens when a fat oxidizes?

A

smells rancid, carcinogenic properties

231
Q

What kind of fat has a longer shelf life?

A

saturated: less readily oxidized

232
Q

What are unsaturated fats?

A

contain at least one double bond between carbons; tend to be liquid at RT

233
Q

What’s the relationship between unsaturation and physical state at RT?

A

the more unsaturated, the more likely to be liquid at RT (and the lower the melting temperature)

234
Q

Most common monounsaturated fatty acid?

A

oleic acid (primary FA in olive oil)

235
Q

Most common polyunsaturated polyunsaturated fatty acid?

A

linoleic acid (in a lot of plant oils)

236
Q

What are the health implications of unsaturated fatty acids?

A

decrease risk of heart disease

237
Q

What are essential fatty acids?

A

Omega-3 and Omega-6; we can’t make them in the body, so must obtain from diet

238
Q

What are Omega-3 Fas?

A

first doulbe bond between 3-4 C from omega end upward

239
Q

What are three examples of Omega-3 FAs?

A

ALA (alpha-linolenic; primary in plants); EPA (eicosapentanoic acid); DHA (docosapentanoic acid) from animal sources like fish

240
Q

Which forms of Omega-3 have health benefits and why?

A

EPA and DHA: body can convert those, but not ALA

241
Q

What are Omega-6 FAs?

A

first double bond between 6-7 C from omega end upward; includes linolenic acid (plant seed oils) and arachidonic acid (from animal fats, red meat)

242
Q

What are two examples of Omega-6 FAs?

A

linolenic acid (plant seed oils), arachidonic acid (red meat)

243
Q

What are the roles of Omega-3 and Omega-6 fatty acids?

A

make eicosanoids (regulatory compounds with hormone-like function that work in same location as made)

244
Q

What are eicosanoids?

A

hormone-like regulators that are synthesized and utilized in the same location

245
Q

What is important about the relationship between Omega-3 and Omega-6 fatty acids in the body?

A

need the ratio to be favorable; want more Omega-3 than Omega-6)

246
Q

What is the tradeoff/paradox for Omega-3 and Omega-6 fatty acids?

A

can have favorable eicosanoid benefits, but since they are unsaturated, they will oxidize in the body and contribute to chronic disease risk

247
Q

What substance is energy-yielding without being considered a food?

A

alcohol: you don’t gain weight the same way

248
Q

What is the function of phytonutrients in plants?

A

to protect the plant from damage (UV, herbicides, pesticides, predators, etc.)

249
Q

Wow can you get more phytonutrients in a plant?

A

when you damage it: consider health benefits of wine from crushed grapes; olives stressed to produce healthier olive oil

250
Q

Hhow is extra protein stored by the body?

A

as fat, not muscle

251
Q

how much of the human body is water?

A

approximately 60%: high muscle content needs more water, higher fat content needs less water)

252
Q

What is the function of nutrients?

A

provide energy: for biochemical reactions in the cody and to fuel physical work

253
Q

What are four methods of assessing nutritiaonl health/intake?

A

24-hour recall; food diary/food intake record; food frequency questionnaire; diet history

254
Q

What are the four stages of nutritional deficiency?

A

Inadequate intake; Decreased stores/tissue levels; Altered biochemical and physiological function; Physical signs and symptoms of deficiency

255
Q

How do we assess the US population for health and diet?

A

NHANES study: now online, continual survey asking about intake habits, nutrition-related interview, etc.

256
Q

What is the function of lysozymes in digestion?

A

help to inhibit bacterial growth in the mouth

257
Q

What gets absorbed in the stomach?

A

Water, salt, alcohol

258
Q

Where does 95% of digestion occur?

A

Small intestine

259
Q

What does the gallbladder do?

A

stores and releases bile (produced by the liver) to emulsify fat to ease absorption

260
Q

What does the pancreas do?

A

secretes digestive enzymes, bicarbonate ions to raise pH from stomach acid HCl
c

261
Q

Give examples of substances that are absorbed by the three types of transport.

A

Passive (water, some fats, some minerals), Facilitative (fructose); Active (carbs, AA)

262
Q

Which is better, probiotics or prebiotics?

A

Prebiotics: not digested by small intestines, but will stimulate growth/activity in colon bacteria (onions, garlic, bananas, artichokes, etc.)

263
Q

What reuslts in ketone production?

A

Incomplete fat catabolism, because there’s not enough glucose to fuel it through to the end

264
Q

Ketones are short-term energy usage for what organs?

A

Brain, heart

265
Q

What type of diabetes is the one you get when you’re older?

A

Type 2

266
Q

What are carbs that have ten or fewer monosaccharides? Where are they found

A

Oligosaccharides; found in legumes

Nutrition [BIOL0030] (3 decks)

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