MIDTERM Flashcards

1
Q

For a business, stakeholders represent

a. lenders that have provided loans.	
b. investors in the business.	
c. employees who work for the firm.	
d. all of the different people or groups who are affected by the business.	
e. suppliers that have extended credit to the firm in search of profit for the firm..
A

d. all of the different people or groups who are affected by the business.

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2
Q

___ is the study of how wealth is created and distributed.

a. Marketing	
b. Capitalism	
c. Finance	
d. Business	
e. Economics
A

e. Economics

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3
Q

The concept of sustainability focuses on which of the following?

a. The needs of the government in the future	
b. The ability to maintain or improve standards of living without damaging natural resources for present and future generations	
c. The ability to increase profits for the present but still conserve resources for the future	
d. The needs of future employees	
e. The maximization of profits for the company and its employees
A

b. The ability to maintain or improve standards of living without damaging natural resources for present and future generations

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4
Q

The government uses tax dollars to

a. invest in foreign corporations.	
b. purchase resources and products needed to provide services.	
c. increase consumer income.	
d. purchase other nations.	
e. invest in foreign bonds.
A

b. purchase resources and products needed to provide services.

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5
Q

Monopolistic competition is a market situation in which

a. the same price is charged for all products.	
b. only one product is available.	
c. the government regulates prices.	
d. similar but not identical products are available.	
e. several identical products are available.
A

d. similar but not identical products are available.

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6
Q

If all leading corporations in the soft-drink industry merged, this would

a. create a monopoly.	
b. create a recession.	
c. encourage pure competition.	
d. lead to an oligopoly.	
e. encourage monopolistic competition.
A

a. create a monopoly.

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7
Q

Which of the following issues will not be a challenge for our economy in the years to come?

a. How can we preserve the benefits of competition?	
b. How can we meet the needs of the less fortunate?	
c. How can we conserve natural resources?	
d. How can individuals reinvest all the profits that have been made in the stock market as a result of the strong economy?	
e. How can we create a more stable economy?
A

d. How can individuals reinvest all the profits that have been made in the stock market as a result of the strong economy?

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8
Q

During 2018, Just-the-One Jewelry had sales revenues of $1,500,000. This retailer also had expenses that totaled $800,000. What is the firm’s profit or loss amount?

a. $1,500,000	
b. It is impossible to calculate profit or loss with the above information.	
c. $2,300,000	
d. $800,000	
e. $700,000
A

700,000

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9
Q

Stephanie would like to study abroad for a year before graduating from college. She would like to live in a country that has experienced economic growth for at least five years. She can choose from campus abroad programs in three different countries. What could she use to measure the economic performance of the three countries?

a. Accounting processes.	
b. Marketing measures.	
c. Gross Domestic Product.	
d. Productivity and Gross Domestic Productivity.
A
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10
Q

Andrew and Timmy are neighbors. Andrew owns a boat but never uses it. Timmy owns a car that he no longer needs since his son left for college in another state. Andrew needs a car. Andrew and Timmy make an agreement to trade the boat for car. What is the economic term given to this kind of exchange?

a. Bargained-for exchange.	
b. Replevin.	
c. Buying and selling.	
d. Barter.
A

d. Barter.

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11
Q

When an individual chooses his or her ideal career, it is most likely a reflection of one’s

a. values.	
b. hobbies.	
c. skills.	
d. education.	
e. desire to be rich
A

a. values.

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12
Q

The ultimate objective of every firm, such as Apple and Starbucks, must be to

a. pay out money to cover the various expenses of doing business.	
b. sell either to other firms or to consumers.	
c. know that people generally buy a product and store it.	
d. satisfy the needs of its customers.	
e. make it impossible to satisfy customers.
A

d. satisfy the needs of its customers.

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13
Q

What are the three sets of factors that influence the standards of behavior in an organization?

a. Peer pressure, attitudes, social factors	
b. Historical factors, management attitudes, opportunity	
c. Opportunity, individual factors, social factors	
d. Financial factors, opportunity, morals	
e. Organizational norms, circumstances, morals
A

c. Opportunity, individual factors, social factors

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14
Q

What is probably the most effective way for a company to encourage ethical behavior?

a. Threaten employees with immediate termination for unethical behavior.	
b. Have ethics training sessions for interested employees.	
c. Hire employees who are ethical and in agreement with the company's views.	
d. Develop and enforce a written code of ethics for the organization.	
e. Post signs discouraging sexual harassment and discrimination.
A

d. Develop and enforce a written code of ethics for the organization.

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15
Q

Suppose a manager at the Post-it Brand has recently become aware that employees are taking office supplies home and taking longer coffee and lunch breaks than the personnel policy allows. The manager finds these are widespread practices and wants to solve the problem. The best way to do this would be to

a. change the code of ethics in the personnel policy manual to prohibit these practices.	
b. call the police and arrest both the "time" thieves and the office supplies thieves.	
c. let the union know about the problem during next year's pay negotiations.	
d. make the corporate culture encourage more ethical behavior.	
e. fire all those who have taken office supplies, and suspend those who have taken too much time.
A

d. make the corporate culture encourage more ethical behavior.

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16
Q

The recognition that business activities affect society and the consideration of that impact when making business decisions is referred to as

a. corporate ethics.	
b. code of ethics.	
c. business ethics.	
d. community responsibility.	
e. social responsibility.
A

e. social responsibility.

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17
Q

With whom does social responsibility of business have to begin?

a. Consumers	
b. Government	
c. Management	
d. Consumer protection groups	
e. Society
A

c. Management

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18
Q

By ensuring that products are safe and reliable, the Food and Drug Administration and the Consumer Product Safety Commission are taking part in a movement known as

a. consumerism.	
b. product activism.	
c. product liability management.	
d. socialism.	
e. protectionism.
A

a. consumerism.

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19
Q

Business ethics

a. is the application of moral standards to business situations.	
b. do not vary from one person to another.	
c. is well-defined rules for appropriate business behavior.	
d. is most important for advertising agencies.	
e. is laws and regulations that govern business.
A

a. is the application of moral standards to business situations.

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20
Q

Customers expect a firm’s products to

a. be profitable.	
b. boost sales.	
c. be safe, reliable, and reasonably priced.	
d. earn a reasonable return on investment.	
e. be available everywhere.
A

c. be safe, reliable, and reasonably priced.

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21
Q

Investors expect management to do all of the following except

a. increase sales.	
b. consult them on ethical decisions.	
c. make sensible financial decisions.	
d. increase the return to the investor.	
e. boost the company's profit.
A

b. consult them on ethical decisions.

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22
Q

Taking credit for others’ ideas or work or not meeting one’s commitments in a mutual agreement are ethical issues concerning

a. fairness and honesty.	
b. conflict of interest.	
c. freedom of choice.	
d. communications.	
e. organizational relationships.
A

e. organizational relationships.

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23
Q

For health-related companies such as Jenny Craig, Inc., one of the most frequent ethical issues related to communications that they face is

a. seeking FDA approval.	
b. deception.	
c. experiments on animals.	
d. providing too much information.	
e. safe packaging.
A

b. deception.

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24
Q

Over the past several decades, concern for the environment has

a. become stronger in the United States but not yet in the rest of the world.	
b. been carefully handled by businesses because they are the primary source of pollutants.	
c. been relatively steady because people expect to live in a clean and safe environment.	
d. increased because pollution became a threat to life and health.	
e. decreased because today's industrialized processes are naturally more environmentally friendly.
A

d. increased because pollution became a threat to life and health.

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25
Q

Which of the following is not one of the steps in developing and implementing a program of social responsibility?

a. Commitment of employees	
b. The social audit	
c. Commitment of top executives	
d. Planning	
e. Appointment of a director
A

a. Commitment of employees

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26
Q

A distribution of earnings to the stockholders of a corporation is a(n)

a. distributed payment.	
b. earnings per share.	
c. par distribution.	
d. common payment.	
e. dividend.
A

e. dividend.

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27
Q

A ____ is a form that enables stockholders to allow someone else to vote for them.

a. rights transfer	
b. voter registration	
c. waiver	
d. proxy	
e. dividend
A

d. proxy

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28
Q

The top governing body of a corporation is known as the

a. management.	
b. stockholders.	
c. officers.	
d. board of directors.	
e. incorporators.
A

d. board of directors.

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29
Q

Unless specified in the charter, a corporation has a

a. life of seventeen years, which is renewable.	
b. life of fifty years.	
c. legally recognized life, which varies from state to state.	
d. perpetual life.	
e. legal life of one decade.
A

d. perpetual life.

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30
Q

In many cases a limited-liability company is

a. similar to a cooperative.	
b. the result of a horizontal merger.	
c. taxed like a not-for-profit corporation.	
d. always used to organize charitable organizations.	
e. taxed like a partnership.
A

e. taxed like a partnership.

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31
Q

A hostile takeover is a situation in which

a. the targeted firm is dismantled to avoid the merger.	
b. stockholders are paid a golden parachute.	
c. the corporate raider receives a sum of money to leave the targeted firm alone.	
d. the management and board of directors of the targeted firm disapprove of the proposed merger.	
e. the government makes the decision that the corporate raider can purchase the targeted firm.
A

d. the management and board of directors of the targeted firm disapprove of the proposed merger.

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32
Q

____ is the ability to produce a specific product more efficiently than any other product.

a. Relative advantage	
b. Dominant advantage	
c. Comparative advantage	
d. Specialization
A

c. Comparative advantage

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33
Q

Selling and shipping raw materials or products to other nations is called

a. deficit trading.	
b. tariffing.	
c. alien trading.	
d. exporting.	
e. importing
A

d. exporting.

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34
Q

When a country imports more than it exports, it has a(n)

a. favorable balance of trade.	
b. unfavorable balance of trade.	
c. favorable exchange role.	
d. trade surplus.	
e. favorable balance of payments.
A

b. unfavorable balance of trade.

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35
Q

Another name for an import duty is a(n)

a. tariff.	
b. limitation.	
c. quota.	
d. embargo.	
e. devaluation.
A

a. tariff.

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36
Q

___ is the exportation of large quantities of a product at a price lower than that of the same product in the home market.

a. Dumping	
b. Embargo	
c. Duty	
d. Dropping	
e. Export quota
A

a. Dumping

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37
Q

When the U.S. government will not allow meat from another country to be marketed in the United States, it is imposing a(n)

a. duty.	
b. devaluation.	
c. quota.	
d. tariff.	
e. embargo
A

e. embargo

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38
Q

The primary objective of the World Trade Organization is to

a. help underdeveloped nations increase their standard of living.	
b. achieve world peace.	
c. enforce worldwide political and trade regulations.	
d. remove barriers to trade worldwide.	
e. promote the invention of new technologies.
A

d. remove barriers to trade worldwide.

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39
Q

A ____ is a partnership formed to achieve a specific goal or to operate for a specific period of time.

a. trading company	
b. strategic alliance	
c. countertrade agreement	
d. licensing company	
e. joint venture
A

e. joint venture

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40
Q

Totally owned facilities overseas are an example of

a. roundabout investment.	
b. licensing.	
c. indirect investment.	
d. direct investment.	
e. joint venture.
A

d. direct investment.

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41
Q

When a business has plants located in several foreign countries without ties to any specific nation or region, it is called a(n)

a. licensing firm.	
b. multinational enterprise.	
c. exporting business.	
d. joint venture.	
e. none of these answer choices.
A

b. multinational enterprise.

42
Q

hich of the following represents the highest level of involvement in international business?

a. Exporting	
b. Multinational firm	
c. Joint ventures	
d. Totally owned facilities	
e. Strategic alliance
A

b. Multinational firm

43
Q

____ is an internationally supported bank that provides loans to developing countries to help them grow.

a. The Federal Reserve	
b. A multilateral development bank	
c. The International Monetary Fund	
d. The International Development Bank	
e. An international bank
A

b. A multilateral development bank

44
Q

Local residents have always thought the mom-and-pop store on the corner of Locust and Congress was a partnership between Mr. and Mrs. Davis. But Mr. Davis is the real owner. This probably means that the store is a

a. limited partnership.	
b. joint venture.	
c. corporation.	
d. sole proprietorship.	
e. cooperative.
A

d. sole proprietorship.

45
Q

Unlimited liability means

a. creditors will absorb any loss from nonpayment of debt.	
b. stockholders can borrow money from the business.	
c. the business can borrow money for any type of purchase.	
d. the owner is responsible for all business debts.	
e. there is no limit on the amount an owner can borrow.
A

d. the owner is responsible for all business debts.

46
Q

With regard to taxation of partnerships, which of the following statements is correct?

a. A partnership is exempt from taxes.	
b. Taxes are paid on a partnership's profits, after which each partner pays taxes on his or her share of the profits.	
c. Each partner is taxed in the same way as a sole proprietor.	
d. The partnership is taxed as a separate entity.	
e. Profits are taxed twice.
A

c. Each partner is taxed in the same way as a sole proprietor.

47
Q

Lucas has been saving his excess funds for several years and has contemplated entering a partnership with a friend from college. Lucas hesitates because he knows that it is ____ to invest money in a partnership and ____ to get the money back out.

a. difficult; difficult	
b. easy; impossible	
c. easy; easy	
d. difficult; easy	
e. easy; difficult
A

e. easy; difficult

48
Q

When incorporating, a business

a. must receive the secretary of state's permission to incorporate in any state other than the one in which its corporate headquarters will be located.	
b. may incorporate in any state it chooses.	
c. must incorporate in the state in which it does the most business.	
d. must do none of these answer choices.	
e. must incorporate in the state in which its headquarters are located.
A
49
Q

In the state in which it is incorporated, a business is known as a(n)

a. foreign corporation.	
b. public corporation.	
c. S-corporation.	
d. resident corporation.	
e. domestic corporation.
A

e. domestic corporation.

50
Q

In all states besides the one in which it is incorporated, a business is known as a(n)

a. resident corporation.	
b. public corporation.	
c. domestic corporation.	
d. foreign corporation.	
e. S-corporation.
A

d. foreign corporation.

51
Q

Accounting and investments are areas within which management field of specialization?

a. Finance	
b. Administration	
c. Operations	
d. Human resources	
e. Marketing
A

Finance

52
Q

Managers charged with managing the organization’s programs for hiring, training, and evaluating employee performance are ____ managers.

a. general	
b. administrative	
c. human resources	
d. operations	
e. financial
A

c. human resources

53
Q

A manager who has the ability to see the big picture of an organization and to understand how the various parts of the organization can fit together has ____ skills.

a. decisional	
b. leadership	
c. conceptual	
d. interpersonal	
e. technical
A

c. conceptual

54
Q

A manager with ____ skills has the ability to deal effectively with people inside and outside the organization.

a. interpersonal	
b. technical	
c. conceptual	
d. functional	
e. diagnostic
A

a. interpersonal

55
Q

Leadership can best be defined as the ability to

a. generate reasonable solutions to problems.	
b. deal effectively with others.	
c. identify problems.	
d. influence others.	
e. relate to others.
A

d. influence others.

56
Q

The leadership style in which a leader makes all decisions and tells subordinates what to do and how to do it is called

a. participative.	
b. autocratic.	
c. entrepreneurial.	
d. consensus.	
e. democratic.
A

b. autocratic.

57
Q

Analytical skills give a manager the ability to identify problems creatively, generate _____ alternatives, and select the “best” alternative to solve problems.

a. ​reasonable	
b. ​conflicting	
c. ​satisfice	
d. ​perfect
A

a. ​reasonable

58
Q

The duties of a marketing manager include facilitating the exchange of products between the organization and its

a. ​customers or clients.	
b. ​stakeholders.	
c. ​suppliers.	
d. ​local government.
A

a. ​customers or clients.

59
Q

A small business is all of the following except

a. operated for profit.	
b. dominant in its field.	
c. independently owned.	
d. difficult to manage.	
e. demanding of the owner's time and attention.
A

b. dominant in its field.

60
Q

What is the primary reason that so many new businesses fail?

a. Low employee quality for new businesses	
b. Mismanagement resulting from lack of business know-how	
c. Owner does not work hard enough	
d. Lack of brand-name recognition	
e. Inability to compete with well-established brand names
A

b. Mismanagement resulting from lack of business know-how

61
Q

Businesses such as flower shops, restaurants, bed and breakfasts, and automobile repair are good candidates for entrepreneurs because they

a. are the most likely to succeed.	
b. can obtain financing easily.	
c. require no special equipment.	
d. do not require any skills.	
e. have a relatively low initial investment.
A

e. have a relatively low initial investment.

62
Q

Businesses are generally placed into three broad categories: service industries, production industries, and ____ industries.

a. manufacturing	
b. retailing	
c. financial	
d. distribution	
e. transportation
A

d. distribution

63
Q

The industry concerned with the movement of goods from producer to consumer is

a. production.	
b. wholesaling.	
c. agriculture.	
d. service.	
e. distribution.
A

e. distribution.

64
Q

Which of the following is the most likely example of a production industry?

a. Retail outlet	
b. Financial enterprise	
c. Transportation company	
d. Subassembly plant	
e. Wholesale outlet
A

d. Subassembly plant

65
Q

The main reason there are fewer production industries than distribution or service industries is that

a. few people want to work in production industries.	
b. there is little chance for profit in production industries.	
c. production industries have no market.	
d. production industries need a large initial investment.	
e. there are few things production industries manufacture.
A

d. production industries need a large initial investment.

66
Q

An individual’s desire to create a new business is referred to as

a. self-determination.	
b. the laissez-faire spirit.	
c. self-evaluation.	
d. the entrepreneurial spirit.	
e. the desire for ownership.
A

d. the entrepreneurial spirit.

67
Q

All of the following are reasons people go into business except the

a. desire for independence.	
b. guaranteed return on investment.	
c. desire to create a new business.	
d. desire to determine one's own destiny.	
e. willingness to accept a challenge.
A

b. guaranteed return on investment.

68
Q

What is a common mistake that small-business owners make when their businesses begin growing?

a. They put too much money in advertising.	
b. They overexpand without proper planning.	
c. They invest too much of their own money.	
d. They move beyond their local area.	
e. They sell more goods and services.
A

b. They overexpand without proper planning.

69
Q

Imagine that you want to open your own small business. You will probably be most concerned with having

a. a lot of inventory in the warehouse on opening day.	
b. a good source of capital and good management skills.	
c. the best Madison Avenue ad agency money can buy.	
d. a really good lawyer and an even better accountant.	
e. a top-notch marketing consultant and a lot of inventory in the warehouse.
A

b. a good source of capital and good management skills.

70
Q

You have just opened a new small business. You’re really happy to learn that studies show that small-business workers

a. are especially good at handling inventories in the warehouse to avoid damage and spoilage.	
b. don't really like bill collectors much.	
c. design ad campaigns that work especially well on network television.	
d. are more innovative than workers in large businesses.	
e. pay little attention to their salary levels compared to similar workers in small businesses.
A

d. are more innovative than workers in large businesses.

71
Q

A(n) ____ is a smaller-scale plan developed to implement a strategy.

a. tactical plan	
b. goal	
c. objective	
d. strategy	
e. mission
A

a. tactical plan

72
Q

A(n) ____ is a type of plan designed to implement tactical plans.

a. mission	
b. management objective	
c. contingency plan	
d. strategy	
e. operational plan
A

e. operational plan

73
Q

The process of evaluating and regulating ongoing activities to ensure that goals are achieved is known as

a. leading.	
b. controlling.	
c. planning.	
d. organizing.	
e. motivating.
A

b. controlling.

74
Q

The two managerial functions that compose the process of directing an organization are

a. leading and organizing.	
b. planning and organizing.	
c. motivating and leading.	
d. goal setting and planning.	
e. planning and leading.
A

c. motivating and leading.

75
Q

A manager who coordinates the activities of operating employees is a(n) ____ manager.

a. functional	
b. middle	
c. top	
d. executive	
e. first-line
A

e. first-line

76
Q

The period of time over which an operational plan will be in effect is known as a

a. fiscal period.	
b. quality circle.	
c. planning horizon.	
d. process layout.	
e. research period
A

c. planning horizon.

77
Q

The quantity that customers will purchase at the going price is called the

a. capacity.	
b. consumer need.	
c. market demand.	
d. inventory.	
e. economic demand.
A

c. market demand.

78
Q

During the process of operational planning, management must compare market demand with

a. planned supply.	
b. consumer demand.	
c. capacity.	
d. available human resources.	
e. market supply.
A

c. capacity.

79
Q

All of the activities involved in obtaining required materials, supplies, and parts from other firms are called

a. purchasing.	
b. inventory scheduling.	
c. product design.	
d. operational planning.	
e. scheduling.
A

a. purchasing.

80
Q

____ include(s) stocks of completed goods, work in process, and raw materials.

a. Holding goods	
b. Inventories	
c. Supplies	
d. Stock	
e. Processed goods
A

b. Inventories

81
Q

Products that have been partially completed but require further processing are known as ____ inventory.

a. processed-goods	
b. work-in-process	
c. component-parts	
d. raw-materials	
e. finished-goods
A

b. work-in-process

82
Q

The process of checking and testing products to ensure that they meet specifications is called

a. quality inspection.	
b. check pointing.	
c. assurance.	
d. quality control.	
e. inventory control.
A

d. quality control.

83
Q

Distinguishing between positions with direct authority and those that are support positions establishes an organization’s

a. span of management.	
b. degree of centralization or decentralization.	
c. degree of specialization.	
d. nature and degree of departmentalization.	
e. chain of command
A

e. chain of command

84
Q

In a recent task force meeting, the human resources manager gave many reasons why the organization needed some specialization. In so doing, she stated that

a. the job of most organizations is simply too large for one person to handle. Several people carrying out different functions are needed.	
b. a worker who does the same job over and over loses time changing from one operation to another.	
c. a worker who learns only a specific, highly specialized task becomes inefficient at that task.	
d. the more specialized the job, the harder it may be to design specialized equipment for those doing it.	
e. the more specialized the job, the easier it is to train new employees when an employee quits or is absent.
A

e. the more specialized the job, the easier it is to train new employees when an employee quits or is absent.

85
Q

Location, product, function, and customer are common bases for a firm’s

a. departmentalization.	
b. span of management.	
c. job specialization.	
d. chain of command.	
e. job design.
A

a. departmentalization.

86
Q

A firm organized on the basis of retail customers and wholesale customers utilizes the concept of departmentalization by

a. function.	
b. product.	
c. location.	
d. customer.	
e. task.
A

d. customer.

87
Q

Although departmentalization may be determined within an organization on the basis of one criterion, such as location, most organizations find ____ to be a more efficient means of conducting business.

a. managerial decision making	
b. delegation of authority	
c. centralization	
d. decentralization	
e. more than one basis for departmentalization
A

e. more than one basis for departmentalization

88
Q

One’s duty to do a job or perform a task is called

a. obligation.	
b. authority.	
c. delegation.	
d. accountability.	
e. responsibility.
A

e. responsibility.

89
Q

Authority and ____ are synonymous terms.

a. responsibility	
b. power	
c. delegation	
d. duty	
e. accountability
A

b. power

90
Q

The degree of centralization of an organization is based on the

a. degree of job specialization.	
b. delegation of authority.	
c. degree of departmentalization.	
d. organization chart.	
e. level of bureaucracy.
A

b. delegation of authority.

91
Q

The number of workers who report directly to one manager is called

a. the span of management.	
b. authority.	
c. centralization.	
d. accountability.	
e. responsibility.
A

a. the span of management.

92
Q

A manager with many subordinates is said to have a

a. tall organizational structure.	
b. matrix structure.	
c. wide span of control.	
d. narrow span of control.	
e. managerial hierarchy.
A

c. wide span of control.

93
Q

Generally speaking, a narrow span of management implies that the height of the organization will be ____; a wide span of management implies that the height of the organization will be ____.

a. short; tall	
b. flat; tall	
c. tall; sloped	
d. tall; flat	
e. long; short
A

d. tall; flat

94
Q

The name given to a diagram that represents the positions and relationships within an organization is a(n)

a. ​organizational chart.	
b. ​organizational identification.	
c. ​organizational outline.	
d. ​chain of command.
A

a. ​organizational chart.

95
Q

All of the managerial activities in which managers engage for the purpose of creating goods and services are known as ____ management.

a. operations	
b. production	
c. plant	
d. site	
e. personnel
A

a. operations

96
Q

If a good or service satisfies a human need, it has

a. focus.	
b. form.	
c. value.	
d. magnitude.	
e. utility.
A

e. utility.

97
Q

The type of utility on which production and operations management focuses is ____ utility.

a. time	
b. form	
c. need	
d. place	
e. possession
A

b. form

98
Q

The degree to which input resources are physically changed by the conversion is referred to as the

a. magnitude of change.	
b. depth of a conversion.	
c. width of the conversion process.	
d. focus of the conversion process.	
e. number of technologies.
A

a. magnitude of change.

99
Q

One primary difference between services and the production of goods is that services are consumed ____ whereas goods can be ____.

a. one at a time; consumed more than one at a time	
b. immediately; stored	
c. as they are produced; special ordered	
d. intangibly; tangible or intangible	
e. later; consumed now
A

b. immediately; stored

100
Q

In many cases, customers will travel farther to purchase a(n) ____ than they would travel to purchase a(n) ____.

a. good; service	
b. service; good	
c. inexpensive service; expensive good	
d. product; good	
e. inexpensive good; expensive good
A

a. good; service