Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CCMA Cards > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

if someone is experiencing vertigo, what specialist should they see first?

A

EENT (otorhinolaryngologist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

describe Maslow’s hiearchy of needs

A

one must satisfy one level before fulfilling the next

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

list the five levels on Maslow’s hiearchy

A
  • physiological needs
  • safety needs
  • love and belonging
  • self esteem
  • self-actualization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

list Kubler Ross’s five stages of grief

A
  1. anger
  2. denial
  3. bargaining
  4. depression
  5. acceptance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

list the 8 stages of erikson’s growth and development model

A
  1. trust v mistrust
  2. autonomy v shame and doubt
  3. initiative v guilt
  4. industry v inferiority
  5. identity v role confusion
  6. intimacy v isolation
  7. generativity v stagnation
  8. ego integrity v despair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what stage are infants in according to Erikson’s stages?

A

trust v mistrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what stage are kids in early childhood (toddlers) in according to Erikson’s stages?

A

autonomy v shame and doubt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what stage are preschoolers in according to Erikson’s stages?

A

initiative v guilt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what stage are school age kids in according to Erikson’s stages?

A

industry v inferiority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what stage are adolescents in according to Erikson’s stages?

A

identity v role confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what stage are young adults in according to Erikson’s stages?

A

intimacy v isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what stage are middle adulthoods in according to Erikson’s stages

A

generativity v stagnations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what stage are elderly in according to Erikson’s stages

A

ego integrity v despair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the idea behind Erikson’s stages?

A

each age group needs to overcome specific challenge, the outcome determines which value they walk away with

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe Medicare

A

four part health insurance under SS for eligible people and is an 80/20 plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

who is eligible for medicare?

A
  • ppl > 65 yrs
  • disabled
  • receiving SS benefits
  • end-stage renal disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does part A of medicare cover?

A

hospital/facility care, rehabilitation, some hospice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does part B of medicare cover?

A

office visits, xrays, labs, outpatient care, medically necessary/preventative services not covered by part A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

t/f: part B of medicare is optional and adds on to part A of medicare

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

aka: part c medicare

A

medicare advantage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

describe part C of medicare

A
  • health coverage including parts A, B and sometimes D from private companies approved by medicare
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

describe what part d of medicare covers

A

namebrand and generic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does CMS stand for

A

centers for medicare and medicaid services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what does CMS1500 stand for

A

claim form for CMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what does OSHA301 stand for

A

incident report for oSHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what does VIS stand for

A

vaccine information statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what does SDS stand for

A

safety data sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what does ACA stand for

A

affordable care act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what does EOB stand for

A

explanation of benefits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what does PCMH stand for

A

patient-centered medical home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what does HBV stand for

A

hepatitis b virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what does HAV stand for

A

hepatitis A virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what does HCV stand for

A

hepatitis C virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what does HIV stand for

A

human immunodeficiency virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what does DAW stand for

A

dispense as written

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

give examples of bloodborne pathogens

A

HBV, HCV, HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the 5 types of pathogens

A

bacteria, rickettsiae, virus, fungi, parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

t/f: bacteria always means disease

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how do bacteria infect the body if they are healthy for body

A

bacteria travels to wrong body part and feeds on nutrients producing toxins causing disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the smallest microoorganism

A

viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how do viruses reproduce

A

host cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

define fungi

A

simple parasitic plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

difference between mold and yeast

A

mold = multicellular fungi
- yeast = single cell fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

out of the 100 fungi in humans, how many have are pathogenic

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are the 3 types of parasites

A

protozoa, helminths ectoparasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

define protozoa

A

single cell parasite w/nucleus and flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

describe ectoparasites

A

type of multicellular parasite that lives on host skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

aka: rickettsiae

A

obligate parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

aka: rickettsiae

A
  • larger than virus and completely dependent on host and gen transmitted by ectoparasites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how is measles transmitted

A

direct contact w/respiratory droplet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

aka: measles

A

rubeola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

sx: measles

A
  • blotchy rash
  • cough
  • fever
  • runny nose
  • red watery eyes
  • malaise
  • koplik’s spots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

how is varicella zoster transmitted

A

direct/indirect contact from droplet/airborne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

sx: varicella zoster

A
  • pruritic vesicular eruptions
  • slight fever
  • headache
  • loss of appetite
  • malaise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

how is pertussis transmitted

A

direct contact w/respiratory droplet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

sx: pertussis

A
  • sneezing
  • low fever
  • runny nose
  • mild cough
  • thick, clear mucus
  • crowing, high pitched whoop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

how is pediculosis transmitted

A

direct contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

sx: pediculosis

A
  • itching
  • visible lice
  • lice eggs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

how is haemophilus influenzae type b transmitted

A

direct/indirect contact w/respiratory droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

sx: HiB

A
  • URI symptoms
  • fever
  • aches
  • sleepiness
  • no appetite
  • irritable and fussy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

how is viral meningitis transmitted

A
  • direct contact
  • contact with fecal/oral/respiratory secretions
62
Q

sx: viral meningitis in adults/kids

A
  • cold/runny nose
  • diarrhea
  • vomiting/nausea
  • fever
  • headache
  • stiff neck
  • lack of appetite
  • sensitivity to light
  • sleepiness/trouble waking up
63
Q

sx: viral meningitis in infants

A
  • fever
  • irritability
  • poor eating
  • hard to awaken
64
Q

how is bacterial meningitis transmitted

A

direct contact with respiratory droplets

65
Q

sx: bacterial meningitis

A
  • fever
  • intense headache
  • nausea/vomiting
  • irritability
  • sluggishness
  • seizures/coma
  • petechial rash
66
Q

how is epiglottis transmitted

A

direct contact with respiratory droplets

67
Q

list the chain of infection

A
  1. pathogen
  2. reservoir
  3. portal of exit
  4. means/modes of transmission
  5. portal of entry
  6. susceptible host
68
Q

give examples of portals of exit

A
  • body secretions
  • respiratory droplets
  • body fluids
  • excretions
69
Q

how do you break the pathogen chain of infection

A

sanitize/disinfect/sterilize

70
Q

how do you break the means/modes of transmission chain of infection

A
  • PPE
  • asepsis
  • dispose contaminated objects
71
Q

list portals of entry

A
  • EENT
  • eyes
  • intestine
  • reproductive
  • open wounds
  • skin breaks
72
Q

how do you break the portals of entry

A
  • sterile techniques
  • dispose sharps
  • cover wounds
73
Q

what are preferred sites for intradermals

A
  • anterior forearm
  • midback
74
Q

what gauge needles should be used for intradermals

A

26G or 27G

74
Q

what needle length should be used for IDs

A

3/8-5/8 in

75
Q

what angle should the needle be when doing IDs

A

10-15 degrees

76
Q

what angle should needle be for IM

A

90 degrees

77
Q

list preferred sites for IM

A
  • deltoid
  • dorsalgluteal
  • ventrogluteal
  • vastus lateralis
78
Q

what needle gauge should be used for IMs

A

18-23 G

79
Q

what needle length should be used for IMs

A

1-3 inches

80
Q

what techniques can/should be used when performing IM

A

Z-track and aspirate

81
Q

list preferred site for SubQ injections

A
  • posterior arm
  • abdomen
  • upper thigh
82
Q

what needle gauge should be used for SubQs

A

25-27G

83
Q

what needle length should be used for SubQs

A

1/2-5/8 in

84
Q

what angle should needle be when doing SubQ injection

A

45-90 degrees depending on Body mass

85
Q

what are the 3 types of bacteria shapes

A
  • cocci
  • bacillus
  • spirochetes
86
Q

what shape is a spirochete bacteria

A

spiral

87
Q

what shape is a cocci bacteria

A

circular

88
Q

what shape is a bacillus bacteria

A

rod

89
Q

purpose of doing a first morning urine collection?

A

most concentrated urine

90
Q

purpose of doing clean catch/midstream urine collection

A

diagnose infection

91
Q

aka: clean catch urine collection

A

midstream urine collection

92
Q

purpose of chain of custody?

A

keep info confidential and know exactly who handled what and when

93
Q

list the order of draw

A
  • blood culture
  • clear
  • light blue
  • red
  • tiger
  • gold
  • green
  • lavender
  • grey
94
Q

what is the purpose of a clear blood tube

A

discard in preparation for light blue

95
Q

what is the purpose of light blue blood tube

A

coagulation study

96
Q

what additive is in light blue tube

A

sodium citrate

97
Q

what is the purpose of red blood tube

A

blood chemistry

98
Q

what additive is in a red blood tube

A
  • glass = no anticoagulant
  • plastic = silicon coating
99
Q

what additive is in a tiger blood tube

A

clot activator and clot separator

100
Q

what is the purpose of a tiger blood tube

A

blood chemistry

101
Q

what is the purpose of a gold blood tube

A

blood chemistry

102
Q

what additive is in a gold blood tube

A

gel separator and clot activator

103
Q

what is the purpose of green blood tube

A

blood chemistry

104
Q

what additive is in a green blood tube

A

heparin

105
Q

what additive is in a lavender blood tube

A

EDTA

106
Q

purpose of lavender blood tube

A

hematology and hemoglobin A1c

107
Q

what is the purpose of gray blood tube

A

blood alcohol content and glucose

108
Q

what additives are in a gray blood tube

A

sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate

109
Q

what are the 3 levels of medical asepsis

A

disinfection, sanitization, and sterilization

110
Q

define sanitization

A

processing involving washing, scrubbing, and rinsing

111
Q

define disinfection

A

use chemical/physical means to kill pathogens; usually wiping things down

112
Q

what things are disinfected

A
  • large tools
  • heat sensitive items
  • scopes
  • surfaces
113
Q

t/f: there are 3 levels of disinfection

A

true

114
Q

how can things be sterilized

A
  • autoclave
  • dry heat
  • chemical
115
Q

what is the normal range for hemoglobin in a male

A

14-18

116
Q

what is the normal range for hemoglobin in a female

A

12-16

117
Q

what is the normal range for hemoglobin A1c

A

<7%

118
Q

what is the normal hematocrit range for male

A

40-54%

119
Q

what is the normal hematocrit range for females

A

34-47%

120
Q

what is included in a CBC

A

hematocrit, hemoglobin, RBC, WBC, platelets

121
Q

normal range of RBCs in a male

A

4.35-5.65 trillion

122
Q

normal range of RBCs in a female

A

3.92-5.13 trillion

123
Q

normal range for WBCs

A

3.4-9.6 billion

124
Q

normal range of platelets in a male

A

135-317 billion

125
Q

normal range of platelets in a female

A

157-371 billion

126
Q

normal glucose range when fasting

A

70-100

127
Q

normal range for MCV

A

80-100

128
Q

what are the components of a lipid panel

A
  • total cholesterol
  • HDL
  • LDL
  • triglycerides
129
Q

normal range for total cholesterol

A

130-200

130
Q

normal range for HDL

A

<60

131
Q

normal range for LDL

A

<100

132
Q

normal range for triglycerides

A

<150

133
Q

give examples of CLIA waived tests

A
  • strep
  • pregnancy
  • fecal occult
  • urinalysis
134
Q

normal respirations for adult

A

12-20

135
Q

normal temperature for adults in Fahrenheit and Celsius

A

98.6F/37C

136
Q

how should BP cuff be inflated

A

palpate brachial artery and pump 30 mmHg above number brachial artery stopped pulsing

137
Q

what does systolic pressure represent

A

pressure in arteries w/heart contraction

138
Q

what does diastolic pressure represent

A

pressure in arteries w/heart relaxation

139
Q

define TORT

A

branch of common law where crime is intentional/unintentional and can be suable for compensatory and punitive damages

140
Q

define NEGLIGENCE

A

accidental medical tort determined by standard of care

141
Q

what are the requirements for negligence

A
  • duty of care must be owed to pt
  • defendant breached duty
  • plantiff harmed by breach of duty
  • plantiff harmed
142
Q

define STATUTE OF LIMITATIONS

A

plausible defense of medical malpractice allegation where there is a limited period of time to bring a claim

143
Q

define ADVANCED DIRECTIVES

A

legal document giving instructions for medical care and life-sustaining efforts

144
Q

define DEDUCTIBLE

A

amount insured must pay before insurance will pay claim

145
Q

define COINSURANCE

A

amount you pay for covered healthcare after meeting deductible

146
Q

purpose of AED

A
  • diagnose
  • evaluate heart rhythm
  • give rescue instructions
  • deliver shocks
147
Q

what are the 4 E’s of pediatric communication

A
  • empathy
  • enlistment
  • education
  • encouragement
148
Q

what blood tube is used for trace metal analysis

A

royal blue

149
Q

formula for BMI with US measurements

A

703 * (pounds/inches^2)

CCMA Cards (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions