Midterm 2 Flashcards

(114 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following cells are least prone to injury

Hematopoietic cells
Neurons
Hepatocytes
Testicular cells

A

Neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Highly active, injury prone cells

A

Hematopoietic cells
Hepatocytes
Testicular cells
Intestinal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Increased size of an organ or cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Atrophy

A

Decreased size of organ or cell or cell count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hyperplasia

A

Increased number of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Metaplasia

A

Replacement of one cell type with another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Dysplasia

A

Disordered, unregulated cell proliferation without maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Orderly cell death without inflammation

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Disorderly cell death with inflammation

A

Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Death of a body part

A

Gangrenous necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cell death occurring in a granuloma

A

Caseous necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Left sided heart failure complications

A
Hypertension
Ischemic heart disease
Pulmonary edema
Orthopnea - hypertension laying down
Reduced blood to kidneys
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Right sided heart failure
caused by
effects

A

caused by lung disease/ left sided heart disease
causes hepatomegaly
hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Select incorrect statement concerning myocardial infarction

as many as 10-20% of these patients experience no pain
The majority of these patients experience pulmonary edema
These are often associated with a mural thrombus (40%)
Typically precipitated by an atrial premature beat

A

Typically precipitated by an atrial premature beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Complications of MI

A

Arrhythmias (75-95%)
Pericarditis (50%)
Mural thrombus (40%)
Extension of infarct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tachy-arrhythmias

A

cardiac contraction rates more than 100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most common ineffective cardiac contraction

A

Atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Essential/primary hypertension

A

don’t know what causes it
very common - 90-95% of hypertensive patients
narrowing of arterioles especially in kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Secondary hypertension

A
Caused by pheochromocytoma or other endocrine cause
and by congestive heart failure
5-10% of hypertensives
Drugs
Pregnancy
Renal failure
Sleep apnea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is least likely to be a compensation for congestive heart failure

Cardiohypertrophy
A reduction in cardiac stroke volume
Increased catecholamine (sympathetic) activity
Tachycardia

A

A reduction in cardiac stroke volume

Will want to increase stroke volume

Also will want to redistribute blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Fixed (stable) stenosis/angina

A

Symptoms resolve after exerted effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Variant angina

A

at rest, brief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Unstable angina

A

prolonged at rest

most dangerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Risk of atrial fibrillation

A

Thrombus
25% of strokes
no MI danger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Select the incorrect statement Valvular heart disease can be caused by streptococcal infections Endocarditis can cause fatal thromboemboli Atrial premature beats are usually very dangerous Bradycardia is defined as fewer than 60 bpm and can be caused by cardiac conduction blocks
Atrial premature beats are usually very dangerous | Ventricular are dangerous
26
Thrombus
blood clot clogging an artery
27
Embolus
anything blocking a vessel
28
Select the incorrect statement concerning cardiac arrhythmias Tachy-arrhythmias can be caused by multiple ectopic foci A risk of atrial fibrillation is stroke-causing emboli Often are associated with congestive heart failure Procainamide is the first choice for ventricular arrhythmias
Procainamide is the first choice for ventricular arrhythmias
29
First choice for ventricular arrhythmias
Lidocaine
30
Treat atrial fibrillation
Amiodarone
31
Metoprolol
B1 blocker treats heart failure, reduce heart rate and block sympathetic nervous system activity treats heart failure
32
Dobutamine
Increases HR - B1 agonist can cause arrhythmias treats heart failure
33
Captopril
Decrease TPR ACE inhibitor - angiotensin converting enzyme Reduces salt and water retention treats heart failure
34
Hydralazine
vasodilator smooth muscle relaxer treats heart disease
35
Digitalis
Increases Ca and contractility of heart | treats heart failure
36
Procainamide
Anti-arrhythmic slows action potential conduction Na channel blocker not first choice
37
Select the incorrect statement concerning the following antihypertensive drugs ``` Furosemide is a loop diuretic more potent than hydrochlorthiazide Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic Clonidine is an alpha 1 antagonist Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker Captopril is an ACE inhibitor ```
Clonidine is a alpha 2 agonist
38
Most likely to treat cholesterol and lipid condition Fenobrate Cholesteramine Exetimibe Lovastatin
Lovastatin - Inhibits synthesis of cholesterol
39
Fenobrate
Decreases LDL and VLDL Increases HDL Increases lipolysis in liver and muscles
40
Cholesteramine
Reduces bile reabsorption of lipid/cholesterol
41
Exetimibe
Decreases fat absorption
42
Select the incorrect statement concerning pulmonary pathology Asthma is associated with smooth muscle hypertrophy and hyper-inflated lungs Fibrosing lung diseases are often associated with rheumatoid arthritis The main cause of COPD (congestive obstructive pulmonary disease) is car emissions Cystic fibrosis is associated with destruction of elastin and muscle in the pulmonary bronchial walls
The main cause of COPD is not car emissions | it's smoking
43
Which is described as a 'controller' agent and is most likely to be prescribed as the primary drug for regular use to treat long-term stable moderate to severe asthma ``` Theophylline Mentelukast Cromolyn Albuterol Fluticasone ```
Fluticasone - steroid, thrush, ulcers
44
Theophylline
Add on controller increased cyclic AMP Phosphodiester inhibitor combined with cortical steroids to treat asthma
45
Mentelukast
Leukotriene modifier | Prophylactic for serious/chronic asthma
46
Cromolyn
Inhibits release of histamine from mast cells | prophylactic before exercise
47
Albuterol
beta 2 agonist | treats asthma
48
Which of the following is responsible for the majority of renal/ureter stones Magnesium ammonium phosphate Calcium oxalate Uric acid Cystine
Calcium oxalate - 80% of stones, mostly men, alkalize, stop soda
49
Struvite, 10% of stones
Magnesium ammonium phosphate Infection mostly women
50
Acidify this stone to treat
Struvite/Magnesium ammonium phosphate
51
Uric acid stone
Purines, men alkalize
52
Cystine stones
alkalize
53
Order of kidney stone commonality
Calcium oxalate - 80% Struvite/Magnesium - 15% Uric Acid - 5% Cystine - 2-5%
54
Select the incorrect statement concerning pyelonephritis The most common cause is kidney stones Often associated with flank pain 10-20% result in kidney failure Often causes kidney scarring
The most common cause is not kidney stones | Retrograde spread from cystitis
55
Select the incorrect statement concerning urogenital diseases The majority of renal cancers are renal cell carcinomas 3 weeks of complete urinary tract obstruction by a stone typically causes permanent kidney damage (partial blockage- 3 months) Females tend to have more bladder infections (cystitis) than males The most frequent drug treatment for bacterial cystitis or urethritis is erythromycin
the most frequent drug treatment for bacterial cystitis or urethritis is erythromycin it is trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole
56
Used to treat a heparin overdose
Protamine
57
Platelet aggregate inhibitor
Clopidagrel
58
Dissolves an established clot
streptokinase
59
antagonized by vitamin K
Warfarin
60
actions are similar to heparin
Enoxaparin
61
Which of the following is incorrect about struvite (magnesium ammonium phosphate) kidney stones and their treatment They are the second most common type of kidney stone (10-15%) Must alkalinize the urine pH to dissolve Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is often give to prevent or control the underlying urinary tract infection in these patients More common in females than males
Must alkalinize the urine pH to dissolve Must acidify struvite
62
Woman with enlarged thyroid, chronically nervous, weight loss, high thyroxine (T4), mostly likely has ``` DeQuervain thyroiditis Graves disease Hashimoto disease Nodular goiter Toxic nodule ```
Graves disease
63
Graves disease
autoimmune | agonist of thyroid receptor
64
DeQuervain thyroiditis
subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, viral, painful, | self limited
65
Hashimoto disease
``` auto-immune causes hypothyroidism (with some hyper beforehand) ```
66
Nodular goiter
low iodine levels
67
Most appropriate treatment for hyperthyroidism lady, Graves disease T3 supplements T4 supplements Antiserum for TSH beta blocker and radioactive iodine
beta blocker and radioactive iodine beta blocker for symptoms T3 and T4 would be for Hashimoto disease Antiserum for TSH is not effective, TSH levels are already low in Graves
68
Hours after thyoidectomy, the patient has severe muscle spasms, anxious, and depressed. Low calcium in blood, what happened
Inadvertent removal of parathyroid glands during thyroid surgery
69
Man with hypercalcemia, constipation, anorexia, weakness and kidney stones Pulmonary metastatic carcinoma Multiple myeloma Thyroid hyperplasia Parathyroid adenoma
Parathyroid adenoma
70
Acromegaly ``` Parathyroid adenoma hypothalamus infarct anterior pituitary adenoma posterior pituitary insufficiency Cushing's disease ```
anterior pituitary adenoma
71
Main effect of parathyroid adenoma
increased serum calcium
72
effect of hypothalamus infarct
shuts down blood to hypothalamus and anterior pituitary | decreases hormone release
73
effects of anterior pituitary adenoma
increase in TSH, LH, FSH, Prolactin, GH, ACTH
74
Posterior pituitary insufficiency
less oxytocin and ADH
75
Cushing's disease
``` Increase cortisol increased ACTH caused by pituitary adenoma moon face buffalo hump ```
76
Hypertension, headaches, flushing, nervousness, increased catecholamines, right adrenal mass.
Pheochromocytoma
77
Neuroblastoma
Catecholamines possible | Usually in children
78
Normal range of HbA1c
4-5.6%
79
a 54 year old male informs you he has HbA1c value at 9.0%. Without any additional info, which are correct statements Patient has type 1 diabetes Patient has Addison's disease Infections of the periodontal tissues may be a particular problem With proper treatment, the HbA1c value can be returned to normal range Daily insulin treatments are required for this patient
Infections of periodontal tissues and Treatment can normalize HbA1c levels He has diabetes, but don't know which
80
Addison's disease
Adrenal gland does not produce as much cortical steroids
81
Which favor type 2 diabetes over type 1 Age less than 15 Experiences polydipsia and polyphagia Serum insulins is normal Thin rather than obese
Serum insulin is normal
82
Type I diabetes
Be cells don't work Ketoacidosis need insulin to treat
83
Which is not associated with insulin activity Reduces HbA1c Promotes glucose uptake in kidney cells connected with a C-peptide in its precursor form Prevents glucosuria
Promotes glucose uptake in kidney cells - nope Every cell but kidney, RBC, Neurons, Retina and lens
84
Insulin receptors are resistant to activation by insulin
type II diabetes | gestational
85
Diuresis
all types of diabetes (including gestational and insipidus)
86
Severe abnormal lipid metabolism
type I diabetes
87
no insulin
type diabetes
88
increased thirst
all diabetes
89
Long-term increased risk of atherosclerosis and hypertension
Type I and II
90
Increased risk of major periodontal disease
Type I type II Gestational diabetes
91
Lispro
Rapid onset and early peak action insulin
92
metformin
a biguanide that decreases glucose production in the liver
93
acarbose
slows digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides from intestines
94
tolbutamide
a sulfonylurea that increases the release of insulin from beta cells
95
orlistat
diminishes fat absorption in intestines
96
rosiglitazone
reduces insulin resistance in muscle cells
97
Which weight reduction drug is thought to suppress appetite by stimulating the 5HT2c receptors in they hypothalamus Glucagon Phentermine Qsymia (topiramate) Lorcaserin
Lorcaserin
98
Glucagon
pancreas increase gluconeogenesis increase glycogenolysis weight loss
99
Phentermine
inhibits NE and DA uptake | weight loss
100
Lorcaserin
Suppresses appetite in hypothalamus | weight loss
101
Correct statements concerning Addison's disease Often associated with hyperpigmentation in skin Typically associated with weight gain Often associated with a deficiency of aldosterone Frequently treated with prednisone Administration of mifepristone worsens the symptoms
All are right but - association with weight gain | associated with weight loss
102
Which is a monoclonal antibody to treat excessive bone resorption Alendronate Denosumab Thiazide diuretics Calcitonin
Denosumab
103
Alendronate
a bisphosphonate, inhibits osteoclasts
104
Thiazide diuretics
decreased renal secretion of calcium
105
Calcitonin
secreted by thyroid gland, C cells gets Ca from blood to bone not an antibody
106
Legal limit of alcohol percent
0.08%
107
``` Sedation and slower reaction Impaired motor and slurred speech Emissis and stupor Comma Respiratory dysfunction and death ```
``` .05 - .1 .1-.2 .2-.3 .3-.4 more than .4 ```
108
Alcohol metabolized to what order of kinetics
zero-order | fixed rate - usually saturated
109
Alcohol can cause which concentration in low doses
can increase HDL
110
abrupt withdrawal from alcoholics can cause
seizures
111
Men or women more sensitive to alcohol
women
112
Freak bone break accident, most important questions before appointment
What medications are you taking | Do you have a history of osteopororsis or Pagets disease
113
Bisphosphonates and bone/implants
can't do them when on bisphosphonates
114
Alendronate
bisphosphonate